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ES & M final so far

Total questions: 211

Worksheet time: 4hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the following:

a)

I believe that as protein consumption increases, so will muscle mass.

1.

Prediction

b)

If I water the grass in the summer evenings, then it will grow taller - compared to if I watered in the mornings.

2.

Hypothesis

c)

There are 4 apple trees at the park.

3.

Observation

d)

The dog in the street belongs to one of the houses behind it.

4.

Inference

e)

You are your partner are collecting data, you rounded up - he was exact.

5.

human error/bias

2.

Which is the independent variable?

The city of Austin, TX protects Mexican free-tailed bats because as the number of bats increase the mosquitos/insect population decreases.

a)

The number of misquitos

b)

the number of Mexican free-tailed bats

3.

  • Which of the following is the dependent variable?

  • The brand of paper towel determines the amount of liquid it holds.

a)

Brand paper towel

b)

amount of liquid it holds

4.

648 g = ____ mg

a)

6,480

b)

64,800

c)

648,000

d)

64.8

5.

7,000 g = ____ kg

a)

70

b)

700

c)

7

d)

0.07

6.
Which unit is a a measure of volume?
a)
meters
b)
grams
c)
inches
d)
liters
7.

What is the basic unit of length/distance in the metric system?

a)

Liter

b)

Meter

c)

Gram

d)

Kilometer

8.
What is 9.3 x 10-3 in standard form? 
a)
.093
b)
.0093
c)
.00093
d)
.000093
9.
How would you write 564,000,000 in scientific notation?
a)
5.64 x 10-7
b)
5.64 x 106
c)
5.64 x 108
d)
56.4 x 107
10.

Ben makes five paper helicopters with different wing lengths. He drops them the same way from a height of two meters for five trials each. He records the amount of time it takes for each helicopter to fall to the ground.

What are controlled variables?

a)

Dropping the same way

b)

Wing Length

c)

Amount of time it takes the helicopter to hit the floor

d)

Dropping from the same height

11.
Convert: -45.9 C to K:
a)
227.1 K
b)
400 K
c)
0 K
373 K
12.

Convert 25.6°C to Fahrenheit.

a)

48.1°F

b)

781°F

c)

78.1°F

d)

14.1

13.

Match the following

a)

Energy of movement

1.

Kinetic

b)

Energy you can see

2.

Light

c)

Energy of heat

3.

Thermal

d)

Energy you can hear

4.

Sound

e)

Energy of moving electrons

5.

Electrical

14.

What color of star is the coolest?

ROYGBIV

a)
Red
b)
Yellow
c)
Blue
d)
White
15.

Given the parallax angles, which of the following answer choices places the stars from closest to furthest?

(1/P=D)

C= .95

B= .33

D= .75

A= .66

a)

C, D, A, B

b)

D, C, A, B

c)

B, A, C, D

d)

A, B, D, C

16.

What is the KINETIC ENERGY of an asteroid moving 200 m/s with the mass of 600,000 kg?

KE=(.5 x Mass)(Velocity^2)

a)

12,000,000 joules

b)

36,000,000 joules

c)

6,000,000 joules

d)

18,000,000 joules

17.

Using the formula P = F ÷ A, what is the pressure if 600 N are applied to 50 squared centimeters?

a)

50 Pa

b)

.083pa

c)

15 atm

d)

12 Pa

18.

Which theory below is defined as the idea that: the Sun is the center of the universe, and all other celestial objects orbit it?

a)

heliocentric theory

b)

pangea thoery

c)

geocentric theory

d)

sun central model

19.

What makes up stars?

a)

Hot gasses hydrogen and helium

b)

Solids and gasses compacted together

c)

Space debris with reflective qualities

d)

depends on the star

20.

True or false: Large stars are usually brighter than small stars.

a)

true

b)

false

21.

Luminosity is to energy emitted and brightness, as spectral class is to ___.

a)

mass

b)

speed

c)

color

d)

temperature

22.

As distance increases, luminosity decreases this is a ___ relationship.

a)

direct

b)

inverse

c)

universal

d)

undefined

23.

When a small to medium star runs out of hydrogen, they swell up and their surface cools; thus becoming a ___.

a)

nebula

b)

red giant

c)

black hole

d)

planet

24.

The __ of a star is left behind once a star evolves into a planetary nebula.

a)

core

b)

gasses

c)

supernova

d)

none of the above

25.

The core of a star forms a ___ mostly composed of extremely dense and hot carbon.

a)

white dwarf

b)

black hole

c)

planetary nebula

d)

main sequence

26.

Stars with a core about 1.5 solar masses form a __ , while stars with a mass greater than 3 form a __.

a)

black hole, neutron star

b)

neutron star, black hole

c)

white dwarf , black hole

d)

neutron star, super nova

27.

A red supergiant forms when...

a)

a large star runs out of hydrogen at its core, begins burning helium and other elements expanding the size of Jupiter.

b)

a medium star runs out of hydrogen at its core, begins burning helium and other elements expanding the size of Jupiter.

c)

a large star runs out of helium at its core, begins burning hydrogen and other elements expanding the size of Jupiter.

d)

a small star runs out of hydrogen at its core, begins burning helium and other elements expanding the size of Jupiter.

28.

Which property determines the life cycle of a star?

a)

distance from sun

b)

volume

c)

mass

d)

color

29.

When a massive star collapses it can become so dense that its gravitational pull keeps light from escaping. This is known as a ___.

a)

White dwarf

b)

Blackhole

c)

Red Giant

d)

Supernova

30.

Describe the composition of the planet Mercury.

a)
Metallic iron and nickel, with a silicate mantle and crust.
b)
Consists of only rocks
c)
Composed of water and ice
d)
Made of pure gold
31.

Describe the composition of the planet Venus.

a)
Gaseous mantle, iron core, nitrogen atmosphere with water vapor clouds
b)
Metallic mantle, carbon core, hydrogen atmosphere with helium clouds
c)
Liquid mantle, silicon core, oxygen atmosphere with methane clouds
d)
Rocky mantle, metallic core, carbon dioxide atmosphere with sulfuric acid clouds
32.

What is the purpose of Mariner 10 and Messenger probes?

a)
To study Mercury and Venus (Mariner 10) and Mercury (Messenger) respectively.
b)
To study Mars and Jupiter
c)
To explore the Moon and Mars
d)
To investigate Saturn and Uranus
33.

Why is Venus referred to as the Earth's sibling/twin?

a)
Venus is a gas giant
b)
Different size, composition, and gravity
c)
Venus has no atmosphere
d)

Similar size, density, and gravity

34.

Would you weigh less or more on Venus?

a)
Equal
b)
Less
c)
More
35.

What is different about Venus's volcanos and earths?

a)

Venus's volcanoes are all active, while Earth's are dormant.

b)

Venus's volcanoes have no tectonic activity, so the material simply piles up on itself.

c)

Earth's volcanoes are mostly shield volcanoes, while Venus has a variety of volcano types.

d)
Venus's volcanoes are all underwater, while Earth's are on land
36.

What are the layers of Earth?

a)
Crust, Core, Outer Core, Inner Core
b)
Crust, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core
c)
Crust, Mantle, Core, Inner Core
d)
Surface, Mantle, Outer Core, Inner Core
37.

Earth's atmosphere is mostly which 2 elements?

a)
neon and krypton
b)
hydrogen and argon
c)
helium and carbon dioxide
d)
nitrogen and oxygen
38.

The moon orbits the earth every __ days.

a)
27.3
b)
29.2
c)
25.8
d)
30.5
39.

How many days is a year on Earth?

a)
364 days
b)
366 days
c)
360 days
d)
365 days
40.

How many moons does the Earth have?

a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
1
41.

Solar wind exists on which planets?

a)

Earth & Mercury only.

b)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
c)

Venus & Earth only.

42.

How long is Earth's rotation?

a)
24 hours
b)
48 hours
c)
36 hours
d)
12 hours
43.

Radar on probes such as Magellan are able to...

a)
analyze the chemical composition of comets
b)
measure the temperature of stars
c)
communicate with extraterrestrial life forms
d)

detect the surface features of planets, moons, seeing through clouds, and producing topology maps.

44.

T/F: Earth is the only planet with large amount of liquid water on its surface.

a)

true

b)

false

45.

What is the difference between the 4 inner and 4 outer planets?

a)
The 4 inner planets are all red in color, while the 4 outer planets are all blue.
b)
The 4 inner planets are all moons, while the 4 outer planets are all stars.
c)
The 4 inner planets are gas giants and larger, while the 4 outer planets are rocky and smaller.
d)
The 4 inner planets are rocky and smaller, while the 4 outer planets are gas giants and larger.
46.

What color is Mars?

a)
Yellow
b)
Blue
c)
Green
d)
Red
47.

Does Mars have gravity?

a)
No
b)
Sometimes
c)
Yes
d)
Only on weekends
48.

Which planet has had the most missions?

a)
Jupiter
b)
Saturn
c)
Mars
d)
Venus
49.

Natural disasters on Mars include...

a)
Volcanic eruptions
b)
Tornadoes
c)
Earthquakes
d)
Dust storms, avalanches, meteorite impacts
50.

What is the largest planet in the solar system?

a)
Mars
b)
Saturn
c)
Neptune
d)
Jupiter
51.

The red spot on Jupiter is a...

a)
Giant hurricane
b)

An area enduring countless volcanic eruptions

c)

Large build up of red dust and ash

d)
Giant storm
52.

What are the auroras on Jupiter?

a)

caused by volcanic eruptions.

b)

a result of gravitational interactions with its moons.

c)

caused by atmospheric disturbances.

d)

the interaction between the planet's magnetic field and charged particles from the Sun.

53.

Which planets experience dust storms?

a)
Mercury and Uranus
b)
Mars and Earth
c)
Saturn and Neptune
d)
Venus and Jupiter
54.

What evidence proves Jupiter's enormous amount of gravity?

a)

The comet Shoemaker-Levy passed too close and was torn apart slamming into Jupiter.

b)
Jupiter's rings being made of pure gold
c)
Jupiter's ability to rotate faster than other planets
d)
Jupiter's color changing due to its gravity
55.

The spacecraft ___ has orbited and studied Saturn up-close since 2005 & did so until 2017.

a)

Voyager

b)

Cassini

c)

New Horizons

d)

Galileo

56.

The planetary structure of Saturn is likely similar to Jupiter in that it has a relatively

a)

small icy/rocky core surrounded by liquid metallic hydrogen.

b)

small mantle of liquid hydrogen surrounded by gas.

c)

slow spin rate.

d)

large upper atmosphere made of methane.

57.

Saturn (like Jupiter) also has a strong magnetic field. This creates ___ at its poles.

a)

massive hurricanes

b)

cloud banding

c)

auroras

d)

more ring structures

58.

Saturn's largest moon Titan is also the largest in the solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

59.
When we look at Saturn, we only see its cloud tops, which are mostly _____
a)
ammonia
b)
methane
c)
hydrogen
d)
helium
60.
Under ordinary conditions, how many planets can you see in the sky without a telescope?
a)
four
b)
five
c)
six
d)
seven
61.
To distinguish it from the gas giants Jupiter and Saturn, Uranus is called _____
a)
an ice giant
b)
a frosty dwarf
c)
a gas dwarf
d)
a snow giant
62.
Which spacecraft has been the only one to visit Uranus?
a)
Voyager 2, in 1986
b)
Magellan, in 1990
c)
Cassini, in 1998
d)
Viking 2, in 1978
63.
Voyager saw a huge storm marring Neptune’s face, called _____
a)
the Great Red Spot
b)
the Great Dark Spot
c)
the Great Blue Spot
d)
the Great Azure Spot
64.
Neptune has over a dozen known moons, the largest of these is ____
a)
Triton
b)
Proteus
c)
Nereid
d)
Larissa
65.
Triton has been seen to have active geysers of _____ erupting from its surface
a)
water
b)
nitrogen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
methane
66.

True Or False

Neptune Is The 7th Planet From The Sun

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The gas element ___ is responsible for the overall colors of both Uranus & Neptune.

a)

methane

b)

hydrogen

c)

helium

d)

nitrogen

68.

Although there aren't as many storms & bright cloud banding as Jupiter, Saturn still has

a)

as many lightning strikes as Jupiter.

b)

a very weak magnetic field.

c)

a very dense structure overall.

d)

fast equatorial wind speeds of over 1000 km (620 mph).

69.

Saturn's rings consists of trillions of particles of ice, dust & rock most likely because

a)

of Enceladus' ice volcanoes (or geysers).

b)

a moon collided with the planet which shattered it.

c)

Mimas' gravitational pull creating the Cassini division.

d)

a moon (or moons) came within the planet's Roche limit.

70.

What can be inferred about the moon during low tide?

a)
The moon's gravitational pull is stronger during low tide.
b)
The moon is closer to the Earth during low tide.
c)
The moon's phase changes during low tide.
d)

The moon is further from the Earth during low tide.

71.

As distance between moon and earth increases, the gravitational force ____. This is a ____ relationship.

a)

Decreases; direct

b)

Increases; inverse

c)

Decreases; inverse

d)

Increases; direct

72.

During which moon(s) are the tides most extreme? (select all that apply)

a)

b)

c)

d)

73.

If the moon's mass doubled how would the force of gravity change?

a)
The force of gravity would stay the same.
b)

The force of gravity would be cut in half.

c)
The force of gravity would become zero.
d)
The force of gravity would double.
74.

What is responsible for ocean tides?

a)
Magnetic fields
b)
Underwater volcanoes
c)
Wind patterns
d)
Gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun
75.

Why do we see different phases of the moon?

a)

Due to the relative positions of the moon, Earth, and the sun in their orbits.

b)
Due to the gravitational pull of Mars
c)
As a result of Earth's rotation speed
d)
Because of the magnetic field of the moon
76.

The earth ____ sunlight.

The moon ____ sunlight.

a)

absorbs; reflects

b)

reflects; absorbs

c)

absorbs; absorbs

d)

absorbs; dissolves

77.

How many days does it take for the moon to make one orbit?

a)

about 15

b)

about 31

c)

about 28

d)

depends on the month

78.
The Moon orbits Earth in a ________________ direction
a)
clockwise
b)
counterclockwise
c)
upwards
d)
downwards
79.

Match the following

a)

1.

Waxing Cresent

b)

2.

Waxing Gibbous

c)

3.

Waning Crescent

d)

4.

Waning Gibbous

80.

What is the relationship between distance and sunlight intensity?

a)
Direct relationship
b)
No relationship
c)
Exponential relationship
d)
Inverse relationship
81.

Why do we always see the same side of the moon?

a)
Solar flares
b)
Alien intervention
c)
Lunar rotation
d)
Tidal locking
82.

What is tidal locking?

a)
Tidal locking is when an object's rotation period matches its orbital period.
b)
Tidal locking is when an object's rotation period is faster than its orbital period.
c)
Tidal locking is when an object's rotation period is irregular.
d)
Tidal locking is when an object's rotation period is unrelated to its orbital period.
83.

How many times does the moon rotate per orbit around the earth?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

365

d)

.5

84.

Which kind of moons experience tidal locking?

a)

Small

b)

Medium

c)

Large

d)

All

85.

What does the term waxing mean? (referring to the moon)

a)
The moon's illuminated portion increasing in size.
b)
The moon's surface becoming smoother.
c)
The moon's orbit around the Earth.
d)
The moon's illuminated portion decreasing in size.
86.

What is the moon's "face"?

a)
The dark side of the moon
b)
The back of the moon
c)
The hidden side of the moon
d)

The bright portion of the moon

87.

Which of the following best describes when a solar eclipse occurs?

a)
When the Sun passes between the Earth and the Moon
b)
When the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun
c)
When the Moon passes between the Earth and Mars
d)
When the Earth passes between the Moon and the Sun
88.

Which of the following best describes a lunar eclipse?

a)
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun, casting a shadow on the Earth.
b)
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth passes between the Sun and the Moon, casting a shadow on the Moon.
c)
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon moves away from its orbit and disappears from view.
d)
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Sun passes between the Earth and the Moon, casting a shadow on the Earth.
89.

Which image shows a partial eclipse?

a)

b)

c)

d)

90.

Which of the following is a total eclipse?

a)

b)

c)

d)

91.

A solar eclipse can only happen during which moon phase?

a)
First quarter
b)
New moon
c)
Waxing crescent
d)
Full moon
92.

How often do total solar eclipses take place?

a)
Every 100 years
b)
Approximately every 18 months
c)
Approximately every 5 years
d)
Once in a lifetime
93.

How often do solar eclipses take place?

a)
2 to 5 times per year
b)
Only during leap years
c)
Every month
d)
Once every 10 years
94.

Describe the orbit of the moon

a)
The moon orbits around the Earth in a square path.
b)
The moon orbits around the Sun in a circular path.
c)
The moon orbits around Mars in a spiral path.
d)
The moon orbits around the Earth in an elliptical path.
95.

Lunar eclipse can only take place during which moon phase?

a)
First Quarter
b)
Waxing Crescent
c)
Full Moon
d)
New Moon
96.

What's a penumbra?

a)
A penumbra is a type of bird
b)
A penumbra is a type of pasta
c)
A penumbra is a type of dance
d)
A penumbra is the partial shadow that is cast during an eclipse.
97.

Why might it go dark during a solar eclipse?

a)
The Earth moves away from the Sun during a solar eclipse.
b)
The Sun explodes during a solar eclipse.
c)
Aliens cover the Sun during a solar eclipse.
d)
The Moon blocks the Sun's light during a solar eclipse.
98.

Who was the first person to visit moon?

a)
Buzz Aldrin
b)
Neil Armstrong
c)
Michael Collins
d)
Yuri Gagarin
99.

Match the following definitions to the term in which it best defines:

a)

repeating path around another object

1.

Orbit

b)

The motion of an object around its own axis

2.

Rotation

c)

An attractive force that all mass possesses.

3.

Gravity

d)

A natural &/or artificial body/spacecraft orbiting a celestial object.

4.

Satellite

e)

An envelope of gasses surrounding a celestial body.

5.

Atmosphere

100.

How do Deep Space Networks work? And how many do we have on Earth?

a)

Deep Space Networks work by using UV Lasers to communicate with spacecraft in deep space. 6.

b)

Deep Space Networks work by sending messages via Infrared Waves to reach spacecraft in deep space. 5.

c)

Deep Space Networks work by relying on Gamma Ray communication with spacecraft in deep space. 2.

d)

Deep Space Networks work by using ground-based antennas to communicate with spacecraft in deep space. 3.

101.

How does NASA communicate and receive information from spacecrafts and satellites?

a)

NASA use smoke signals and helium to communicate with spacecrafts and satellites.

b)

NASA communicates with spacecrafts and satellites utilizing UV and sound waves.

c)

NASA relies on laser communication to receive information from spacecrafts and satellites.

d)
NASA uses the Deep Space Network (DSN) to communicate with spacecrafts and satellites.
102.

Match the following:

a)
1.

Space Probe

b)
2.

Space Shuttle

c)
3.

Satellite

d)
4.

Lander/Rover

103.
A person would weigh less on the moon than on the Earth because...
a)
the moon has less mass, and therefore less gravity
b)
the moon has more mass, and therefore less gravity
c)
the moon has less mass, and therefore more gravity
d)
the moon has more mass, and therefor more gravity
104.
Clouds are made up of tiny drops of ______ or ice. The moisture in the cloud affects the weather.
a)
dust
b)
water
c)
cloud particles
d)
precipitation
105.
They are highest clouds in the sky. They look curly, white and feathery. Usually mean good weather.
a)
Cumulus
b)
Cumulonimbus
c)
Cirrus
d)
Stratus
106.
This is sometimes called a thunderhead cloud. It looks very tall like mountains and heavy rain comes from it. 
a)
Cumulus
b)
Cirrus
c)
Stratus
d)
Cumulonimbus
107.
They are low in the sky and look soft and fluffy. 
a)
Cirrus
b)
Cumulonimbus
c)
Cumulus 
d)
Stratus
108.
Low clouds (like fog), that are thick, cover the sky, and block the sun.  Usually bring continuous precipitation (rain or snow).
a)
stratus
b)
cumulus
c)
cirrus
d)
nimbo
109.
what type of cloud is shown?
a)
cumulus
b)
cirrus
c)
stratus
110.
Dew is most likely to form 
a)
after heavy rain on a humid day
b)
when humid air contacts cold ground
c)
when the snow on the ground melts
d)
during windy nights when it rains
111.
During which part of the water cycle does a cloud form?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Precipitation
c)
condensation
d)
Run off
112.
Clouds are classified by their
a)
color and size
b)
color and shape
c)
height and size
d)
height and shape
113.
The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere compared to how much it could hold.
a)
Saturation
b)
Vaporicity
c)
Humidity
d)
Relative Humidity
114.

Which of the following best describes cirrostratus clouds?

a)
Clouds that form close to the ground and are often associated with fog
b)
Thin, high-altitude clouds that cover the sky like a veil
c)
Puffy, cotton-like clouds that indicate fair weather
d)
Thick, low-altitude clouds that bring heavy rain
115.

Which of the following best describes cumulonimbus clouds?

a)
Large, dense, towering clouds associated with thunderstorms and severe weather.
b)
Dark, low-lying clouds that bring mild weather
c)
Small, fluffy clouds associated with clear skies
d)
Thin, wispy clouds that indicate light rain
116.

What does stratus mean?

a)

rain

b)

fog

c)

medium-tall

d)

layer

117.

Which clouds have ice crystals?

a)
Stratus clouds
b)
Cumulus clouds
c)
Nimbostratus clouds
d)
Cirrus clouds
118.

Which clouds predict a warm front?

a)
Cirrus clouds
b)
Stratus clouds
c)
Cumulus clouds
d)
Nimbostratus clouds
119.

Which clouds predict beautiful sunsets?

a)
Low clouds
b)
High clouds, such as cirrus clouds
c)
Cumulus clouds
d)
Stratus clouds
120.

Tornadoes are most likely to be produced from which type of cloud?

a)

cirrus

b)

stratus

c)

cumulous

d)

cumulonimbus

121.

These types of clouds are fluffy and white with flat bottoms. They usually indicate fair weather.

a)

stratus clouds

b)

cirrus clouds

c)

cumulus clouds

d)

cumulonimbus clouds

122.

These clouds tend to accumulate on top of each other in a towering shape. May have shades of grey and may possibly produce thunderstorms.

a)

stratus clouds

b)

cirrus clouds

c)

cumulus clouds

d)

cumulonimbus clouds

123.

Low lying blankets of puffy clouds are called...

a)

Cumulus

b)

Altocumulus

c)

Stratocumulus

d)

Nimbostratus

124.

small rounded clouds at high elevation are called...

a)

Altocumulus

b)

Cumulus

c)

Cirrocumulus

d)

Altostratus

125.
This type of cloud is thin and flat, and the edges are not clearly defined
a)
cirrus cloud
b)
cumulus cloud
c)
stratus cloud
d)
cumulonimbus cloud
126.
Virtually all weather takes place in the...
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
127.

If you are standing at the BOTTOM of the mountain there is...

a)

higher air pressure

b)

lower air pressure

128.
Clouds are found at various levels within the...
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
129.

Which gas makes up the largest proportion of atmosphere at 78%?

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

argon

d)

carbon dioxide

130.

The coldest layer of atmosphere

a)

Thermosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Troposphere

d)

Exosphere

131.

What layers are dry? (Mark All)

a)

Troposphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Stratosphere

132.

What layer houses the International Space Station

a)

Exosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Troposphere

133.

This layer has 99% of the Atmospheric Water Vapor

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Troposphere

134.

The outermost layer of the Atmosphere that is sometimes considered to just be outer space

a)

Troposphere

b)

Thermosphere

c)

Exosphere

d)

Stratosphere

135.

Ozone layer is located in which layer of the atmosphere?

a)
Exosphere
b)
Stratosphere
c)
Mesosphere
d)
Troposphere
136.

The hottest layer of atmosphere is the...

a)
Mesosphere
b)
Exosphere
c)
Stratosphere
d)
Thermosphere
137.

99% of this molecule is mainly found in the troposphere.

a)

Argon

b)

Oxygen

c)

d)

138.

Fall here tends to be dry and cool.

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

139.

We average 200 inches of snow each winter.

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

140.

There is a hurricane affecting the Gulf Coast.

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

141.

I live in Tornado Alley, therefore there is the risk of experiencing a tornado each year.

a)

Weather

b)

Climate

142.
What does this picture show?
a)
weather
b)
climate
143.

We are expecting a cold front to move into the area later today.

a)

weather

b)

climate

144.

Indicate atmospheric conditions above a large portion of the Earth’s surface.

a)

Weather Map

b)

Hygrometer

c)

Weather Balloon

d)

Anemometer

145.

Match the following instruments to what they measure/record:

a)

Weather balloon

1.

Upper troposphere humidity

b)

Doppler Radar

2.

Precipitation

c)

Hygrometer

3.

Water vapor in air

d)

Wind Sock

4.

Wind speed and direction

e)

Satellite

5.

Hurricane images

146.

Which instrument do meteorologists use to observe/receive information on clouds?

a)

weather balloon

b)

barometer

c)

climate modeling system

d)

their eyes

147.

What is the tool to measure air pressure?

a)
thermometer
b)
anemometer
c)
compass
d)
barometer
148.

In a climate model/simulation, what is an initial condition?

a)

The conditions at the end of a period

b)

The conditions at the start of a period

c)

The conditions in the middle of a period

d)

The conditions unaffected by change

149.

In a climate model/simulation, what are inputs and outputs?

a)

Factors that increase the effects of a system only

b)

Factors that do not affect a system

c)

Factors that may cause changes in a system

d)

Factors that decrease the effects of a system only

150.

The purpose of a _________ is to simulate and predict climate patterns, assess impacts of human activities, and develop strategies for mitigation and adaptation.

a)

Doppler radar

b)

Climate model

c)

Weather map

d)

Heat map

151.

When will climate models be complete?

a)

Climate models were introduced in the 1960's and were complete in 1976.

b)

Climate models will never be complete, as data input is continuous.

c)
Climate models will be complete by 2030.
d)

Climate models were completed in 2002.

152.

What factors may cause it to feel warmer/colder outside than it actually is?

**select all that apply*

a)

relative humidity

b)

wind speed

c)

Sun intensity/cloud cover

d)

none of the above

153.

What careers rely on weather data?

a)
Astronomer, geologist, marine biologist
b)
Zoologist, architect, accountant
c)
Chemist, physicist, psychologist
d)

agricultural scientist, pilot/air-traffic control, renewable energy specialist

154.

What is meteorologist?

a)
A meteorologist is a person who studies rocks and minerals.
b)
A meteorologist is a chef who specializes in cooking meat dishes.
c)
A meteorologist is an artist who paints meteor showers.
d)
A meteorologist is a scientist who studies the atmosphere and weather patterns to forecast future weather conditions.
155.

Weather takes place in which layer of the atmosphere?

a)
stratosphere
b)
ionosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
156.

How are cumulonimbus clouds formed?

a)
Cumulonimbus clouds are formed through the process of convection and condensation of water vapor.
b)
Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by volcanic eruptions.
c)
Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by the evaporation of oceans.
d)
Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by the rotation of the Earth.
157.

What is lightening and how is it formed?

a)
Lightning is caused by the rotation of the Earth
b)
Lightning is a sudden electrostatic discharge that occurs during a thunderstorm.
c)
Lightning is a result of volcanic eruptions
d)
Lightning is a type of cloud formation
158.

Make complete sentences using the terms below.

a)

follows lightening.

1.

Thunder

b)

is caused by the friction of water molecules in a cumulonimbus cloud.

2.

Lightening

c)

can signal tornadoes.

3.

Thunderstorms

d)

are fueled by warm moist air

4.

Hurricanes

159.

Which of the following is not a component of a thunderstorm?

a)
Lightning
b)
Tornado
c)
Rain
d)
Hail
160.

A tornado is (a)   .

Choose from the below words
a rapidly rotating column of air.
a type of cloud.
a slow-moving weather phenomenon.
a body of water.
161.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

Temperature

1.

The amount of thermal energy in the atmosphere

b)

Atmospheric pressure

2.

The weight of the air over a point on the Earth's surface

c)

Precipitation

3.

Fall of water towards the Earth in the form of rain, hail or snow

d)

Humidity

4.

Amount of water vapour in the atmosphere

e)

Wind

5.

Air in motion in the atmosphere

162.

What is a supercell?

a)
A supercell is a type of ice cream dessert
b)

A supercell is a hurricane characterized by the presence of an eye-wall.

c)

A supercell is a tornado characterized by the presence of a vortex.

d)
A supercell is a thunderstorm characterized by the presence of a mesocyclone.
163.

What is an updraft?

a)
A current of rising air in the atmosphere.
b)
A current of descending air in the atmosphere.
c)
A weather phenomenon involving lightning.
d)
A type of cloud formation.
164.

T/F during a tornado cold air rises and warm air sinks

a)

true

b)

false

165.

When is tornado season in the mid-west?

a)

During the summer months, from July to August.

b)
Throughout the entire year, with no specific season.
c)
During the spring and early summer months, from March to July.
d)
In the fall, from September to November.
166.

What is the difference between a tornado watch and a tornado warning?

a)
A tornado watch means a tornado has been spotted, a tornado warning means a hurricane is approaching.
b)
A tornado watch means conditions are favorable, a tornado warning means a hurricane is approaching.
c)
A tornado watch means conditions are favorable, a tornado warning means a tornado has been spotted.
d)
A tornado watch means a tornado has been spotted, a tornado warning means conditions are favorable.
167.

What is something you should avoid during a tornado?

a)

beds

b)

small places

c)

windows

d)

doors

168.

What should you do when there is a tornado and you are on the road driving?

a)

Park in a ditch stay inside car with seatbelt on and cover yourself with a blanket or coat.

b)

Drive fastly with hazards away from the tornado.

c)
Roll down the windows to equalize pressure
d)

Abandon the car and run and take cover in an open field or corn field.

169.

Tornados can reach speeds of up to (a)   mph (km/h).

Choose from the below words
100
500
50
300 or more
170.

Which scale measures wind speed and destruction of a tornado?

a)
Richter scale
b)
Enhanced Fujita (EF) scale
c)
Saffir-Simpson scale
d)
Fujita-Richter scale
171.

Where is tornado alley?

a)
Southern United States
b)
Central United States
c)
Eastern United States
d)
Western United States
172.

T/F: Tornados form well when cold dry air is pushed up underneath warm wet air.

a)

true

b)

false

173.

What is a hurricane?

a)
A hurricane is a type of drought.
b)
A hurricane is a tropical cyclone with sustained winds of at least 74 mph (119 km/h).
c)
A hurricane is a type of earthquake.
d)
A hurricane is a type of snowstorm.
174.

How many miles across can hurricanes be?

a)
Millions of miles
b)
Hundreds of miles
c)
Dozens of miles
d)
Thousands of miles
175.

In which state are hurricanes rare?

a)
Hawaii
b)
California
c)
Louisiana
d)
Florida
176.

Hurricanes have which of the following?

a)

high wind speeds

b)

lots of rain

c)

ocean water

d)

all of the above

177.

What is the difference between a cyclone and typhoon?

a)
Size of the storm
b)
Time of occurrence
c)
Difference in wind speed
d)
Location of occurrence
178.

In the Atlantic, when is hurricane season?

a)
December 1st to May 31st
b)
July 1st to December 31st
c)
April 1st to September 30th
d)
June 1st to November 30th
179.

What is the circular hole in the center of a hurricane?

a)
center
b)
eye
c)
core
d)
hub
180.

Why is the eyewall of a hurricane so dangerous?

a)
It contains the strongest winds and most intense rainfall.
b)
It is a safe area to seek shelter
c)
It is where the hurricane weakens
d)
It has minimal impact on the storm's intensity
181.

Which of the following is not a name of a major hurricane?

a)
Matthew
b)
Larry
c)
Michael
d)
Katrina
182.

Where did hurricane katrina take place?

a)
Atlantic Ocean
b)
Gulf Coast region of the United States
c)
Pacific Coast
d)
Caribbean Sea
183.

What hurricane took place in Galveston, TX?

a)
Hurricane Katrina
b)
Hurricane Harvey
c)
Hurricane Rita
d)
Hurricane Ike
184.

Match the following locations with the event that took place there.

a)

Texas and Louisiana

1.

Where did hurricane Harvey take place?

b)

Florida

2.

Where did hurricane Irma take place?

c)

California

3.

Where did the 2018 wildfires occur?

d)

Atlantic Ocean

4.

Where did hurricane Dorian make landfall?

185.

Where did hurricane Ida take place?

a)
Texas
b)
Louisiana
c)
Florida
d)
California
186.

Which of the following was the deadliest hurricane?

a)

Hurricane Galveston

b)
Hurricane Katrina
c)
Hurricane Irma
d)
Hurricane Harvey
187.

How much money per year does the US spend on hurricane damages? (a)  

Choose from the below words
$54 billion
$70 billion
$30 billion
$45 billion
188.

Match the following reasons with why they contribute to more hurricanes occurring by the equator.

a)

Hurricanes are attracted to the equator due to its

_____

1.

magnetic field

b)

The equator has less ___________, leading to hurricane formation

2.

atmospheric pressure

c)

Warm ocean waters near the _____ provide the necessary heat and moisture for hurricane formation and intensification.

3.

equator

d)

_________ create a barrier that traps hurricanes in the region

4.

Equatorial winds

189.

What is the coriolis effect?

a)
The Coriolis effect is caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon
b)
The Coriolis effect is the deflection of moving objects when viewed in a rotating reference frame, caused by the rotation of the Earth.
c)
The Coriolis effect is the result of the Earth's magnetic field
d)
The Coriolis effect is a fictional concept with no scientific basis
190.

A blizzard is (a)   .

Choose from the below words
a light snowfall with no wind
a type of rainstorm with thunder an
a severe snowstorm characterized by
a warm weather phenomenon with high
191.

Match the following actions with their appropriate scenarios during a blizzard.

a)

Best thing to do when driving thru a blizzard

1.

pull over & wait

b)

If you insist on driving during blizzard you should

2.

drive slowly with hazards on

c)

Close your eyes and hope for the best

3.

What is the least safe action during a blizzard?

192.

After a tsunami attack, how long should you refrain from beach activities?

a)

1 day

b)

48 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

14 days

193.

Match the following weather conditions with the scenarios where power outages can be seen:

a)

Tornadoes

1.

Scenario often involving violent air movements and potential power disruptions

b)

Thunderstorms, hurricanes, blizzards, and high winds

2.

Conditions that can disrupt power due to extreme weather phenomena

c)

Heat waves

3.

Periods of extreme temperature without direct impact on power infrastructure

d)

Droughts

4.

Extended periods of dry weather with minimal direct effect on power lines

194.

What is the primary cause of most thunderstorms?

a)

Collision of cold and warm air masses

b)

Solar flares affecting the atmosphere

c)

High sea temperatures

d)

Earthquakes

195.

What safety measures should be taken during a hurricane?

a)

Stay indoors and secure all windows and doors

b)

Go outside to check the weather condition

c)

Keep all windows open to equalize pressure

d)

Use candles for lighting

196.

Which scale measures hurricanes?

a)
Richter scale
b)
Beaufort scale
c)
Saffir-Simpson scale
d)
Fujita scale
197.
What information best helps a meteorologist predict the possibility of tornadoes developing in a certain area?
a)
current wind conditions 
b)
types of clouds in the sky 
c)
percent humidity in the air
d)
amount of rainfall
198.
How do the conditions for a tornado differ from the conditions for a hurricane?
a)
Tornadoes never form when there is rain, while hurricanes always form with rain.
b)
Tornadoes form under low pressure, while hurricanes form under high pressure
c)
Tornadoes form in a stable atmosphere, while hurricanes form in an unstable atmosphere 
d)
Tornadoes form over land, while hurricanes form over bodies of water
199.
What happens if a hurricane moves over land or cold ocean water?
a)
it will get stronger
b)
it will get weaker
c)
it will upgrade its category
d)
it will morph into a typhoon
200.

Thunderstorm clouds are known as _____.

a)

cirrus clouds

b)

stratus clouds

c)

cumulonimbus clouds

d)

cumulus clouds

201.

What are a few ways to prevent catastrophic damages of a tornado?

a)
Run outside to take pictures
b)
Open windows to equalize pressure
c)
Designate safe room, reinforce buildings, have emergency plan
d)
Ignore tornado warnings
202.

What are a few ways to prevent catastrophic damages of a hurricane?

a)
Planting more trees to absorb the hurricane's impact
b)
Leaving windows and doors open during the storm
c)
Reinforcing buildings, creating and following evacuation plans, securing loose objects, planting wind-resistant trees
d)
Ignoring evacuation orders
203.

The top of the tsunami is called a

a)

high

b)

peak

c)

crest

d)

ceiling

204.
What can cause a tsunami?
a)
earthquake
b)
underwater volcanoes
c)
landslides
d)
all of these
205.

All of the following are factors that affect tsunami intensity except

a)

Magnitude of earthquake causing tsunami

b)

Distance from earthquake to land

c)

Shape of coast line

d)

Time of day when earthquake occurs

206.

What type of coast line would produced the worst tsunami?

a)

A shallow coastline, with nothing to dissipate energy

b)

A deep coastline, with a bay inlet

207.

Most fatalities associated with tsunamis occur from

a)

drowning

b)

impact with large pieces of debris

c)

gas leaks and explosions

d)

lightening strikes

208.

Tsunamis have occurred in the last 50 years in all of the following areas, except

a)

Indonesia

b)

Japan

c)

Chile

d)

New York City

209.

A tsunami usually starts ____________________.

a)

in the middle of a continent

b)

at a plate boundary

c)

in the middle of an ocean

210.

What is an indicator of a potential tsunami brewing?

a)

A noticeable retreat/drawback of water at the shore

b)
Sudden rise in inland water levels
c)
Strong winds blowing away from the coast
d)
Unusually calm ocean surface
211.

How can we limit the impact of tsunamis?

a)

Implement early warning systems

b)

build coastal defenses

c)

create evacuation plans & educate communities

d)

All of the above

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