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ESS Exam

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 4hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Events such as clearing of land for farming, fires and tornadoes are linked to ________________.

a)

primary primary succession

b)

secondary succession

c)

old field

d)

ecosystem

2.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
d)
Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.
3.
What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
soil
c)
climax community
d)
lichens
4.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
eutrophication
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
5.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
6.

Which experiences the least change over time?

a)

Pioneer Species

b)

Primary Succession

c)

Aquatic Succession

d)

Climax Community

7.

Which of the following best describes primary succession?

a)

Volcano wipes out ecosystem that gradually grows back from ash covered soil

b)

Volcano creates a new island of rock that must break down to form an ecosystem

c)

Forest fire burns down forest that must bounce back over time

d)

Tornado destroys a crop that must slowly grow back over time.

8.
The non-living parts of an ecosystem, such as water, sun, & oxygen are called 
a)
habitat
b)
abiotic factors
c)
biotic factors
d)
ecology
9.
All the populations in an ecosystem are called a 
a)
climate
b)
population
c)
community
d)
habitat
10.
Autotrophs are organisms that
a)
rely on other organisms for their energy & food supply.
b)
consume plant & animal remains and other dead matter.
c)
use energy they take in from the environment to convert inorganic molecules to organic molecules.
d)
obtain energy by eating only plants.
11.
The total mass of living tissue at each trophic level can be shown in a(n)
a)
energy pyramid
b)
pyramid of numbers
c)
biomass pyramid
d)
biogeochemical cycle
12.
Why are food chains, such as the one shown, limited to 4-5 organisms?
a)
There are not more organisms in the ecosystem
b)
Organisms must share resources
c)
Energy transfers are inefficient
d)
They are only limited when organisms are living on land.
13.
According to the food web shown, what would occur if there were a drastic decrease in the squirrel population?
a)
There would be fewer vultures
b)
There would be more nuts and seeds.
c)
There would be fewer vultures & there would be more nuts and seeds.
d)
There would be more grass.
14.

At which trophic level can you find an herbivore?

a)

1st Level

b)

2nd Level

c)

3rd Level

d)

4th Level

15.
Which organism do the owl and the weasel compete for in the food web?
a)
Hawk
b)
Spider
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Shrew
16.
__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.   
a)
Net
b)
Total
c)
Gross
d)
None of the above
17.
__________productivity = the organic materials that remain after photosynthetic organisms in the ecosystem have used some of these compounds for their cellular energy needs (cellular respiration).
a)
Gross
b)
Primary
c)
Net
d)
Secondary
18.

Which of the following processes removes carbon from the atmosphere?

a)

Plant Respiration

b)

Auto and factory emissions

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Animal Respiration

19.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
20.
Which biome is characterized by low temperatures and low amounts of rainfall?
a)
Tundra
b)
Desert
c)
Temperate Deciduous Forest
d)
Tropical Rainforest
21.

Which biome covers most of the land mass near Earth's equator?

a)

Desert

b)

Grassland

c)

Tropical rainforest

d)

Temperate forest

22.

The rain forest soil is

a)

poor and rocky

b)

frozen soil

c)

thick and nutrient rich

d)

thin and nutrient poor

23.

__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.

a)

Net

b)

Total

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

24.

During the process of ecological succession the changes that take place in communities are

a)

Orderly and sequential

b)

Random

c)

Very quick

d)

Not influenced by the physical environment

25.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Tropical rainforests are hot and wet because they are permanently under the influence of the rising limb of the Hadley cell.

b)

Deserts are always dry because they are under the falling limb of the Hadley cell.

c)

Polar regions are always cold because they receive little solar radiation.

d)

All the statements are correct.

26.

Which of the following statements about the tri-cellular model is correct?

a)

The Hadley cell and the Ferrel cell are thermally driven.

b)

Only the Hadley cell is thermally driven.

c)

The Hadley cell and the Polar cell are thermally driven.

d)

Only the Polar cell is thermally driven.

27.

Which of the three stations, A, B, or C is most likely to be a desert location?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

28.

Which statement describes the impact(s) of climate change on biome distribution?

a)

Biomes move to lower latitudes.

b)

Mangrove swamps will expand.

c)

Biomes move to higher altitude.

d)

Corals reefs will benefit from warmer water.

29.

Species richness is

a)

the number of species in a population

b)

the number of species in a community

c)

the function of the number of species and their relative abundance

d)

the frequency of the number of species

30.

What converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants and animals?

a)

bacteria

b)

rain

c)

fungi

d)

car exhaust

31.

How is nitrogen "fixed" into a usable form for plants?

a)

Through action of bacteria only

b)

Through lightning only

c)

Through action of bacteria and lightning

d)

Through photosynthesis

32.

How do animals get the nitrogen they need?

a)

From the air they breathe

b)

From the water they drink

c)

From the food they eat

d)

From the sun

33.

Gas that makes up 78% of our atmosphere.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

34.

What is the process of combining nitrogen gas with other elements to make nitrogen into usable compounds?

a)

nitrogen composition

b)

nitrogen fixation

c)

ammonia

d)

denitrification

35.

A correct path that nitrogen could take would be

a)

air -> animals -> plants -> bacteria

b)

animals -> air -> bacteria -> plants

c)

bacteria -> air -> plants -> animals

d)

air -> bacteria -> plants -> animals

36.
What does NOT produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
37.
What are the end products of cellular respiration? 
a)
Carbon dioxide, water and ATP energy
b)
Carbon dioxide, glucose and water
c)
Oxygen, glucose and ATP energy
d)
Water, Carbon dioxide and Oxygen
38.

In the carbon cycle, animals can release carbon back into the cycle through __________ or through __________.

a)

burning . . . photosynthesis

b)

fixation . . . decomposition

c)

decomposition . . . photosynthesis

d)

respiration . . . decomposition

e)

respiration . . . photosynthesis

39.

Which of the following is an example of human impact on the carbon cycle?

a)

The increased production of methane gases from cattle farms

b)

The burning of fossil fuels

c)

The cutting down of trees for lumber

d)

Driving automobiles

e)

All of the above

40.

An organism that tends to have a low life expectancy and increased birth rate is known as a

a)

k-strategist.

b)

r-strategist.

41.

An organism that tends to have a high life expectancy and takes care of their offspring longer is known as a

a)

k-strategist.

b)

r-strategist.

42.

_____ have a high reproductive rates, short-life spans, and do not care for their offspring.

a)

R-strategists

b)

K-strategists

c)

B strategists

d)

Z-Strategists

43.

Species that are able to in survive hostile environments. Usually autotrophs, these species are the first to colonize areas. Their niche is to create new ecological niches for other species.

a)

pioneer

b)

self-perpetuating

c)

intermediate

d)

community

44.

These organisms typically live in unstable, unpredictable environments & are able to reproduce rapidly (exponentially). They do not take care of their young & are subject to predation.

a)

k-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

45.

Look at this image- What is the carrying capacity of this population?

a)

21

b)

5000

c)

2000

d)

1000

46.
Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...  
a)
carrying capacity
b)
population crash
c)
lag phase
d)
mutualism
47.
Which type of growth is best illustrated by this rabbit population?
a)
exponential
b)
logistic
c)
S-shaped
d)
predator-prey
48.
What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?
a)
1.8 million
b)
1.25 million
c)
1.6 million
d)
1.o million
49.

Exponential population growth can be described as

a)

growth when resources are limited

b)

a j-shaped curve

c)

a s-shaped curve

d)

growth that reaches carrying capacity

50.
Boom and bust cycles, where populations will grow and shrink over and over, are usually caused by...
a)
Predator-Prey Relationships
b)
Parasite-Host relationships
c)
Extinction 
d)
None of these
51.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
52.
Any abiotic or biotic factor in an ecosystem that causes a population’s size to slow or decrease is a ____________ factor.
a)
growth
b)
limiting
c)
carrying
d)
density dependent
53.
The graph of logistic growth can be described as...
a)
S-shaped
b)
J-shaped
c)
W-shaped
d)
U-shaped
54.
Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
55.
Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?
a)
competition
b)
volcanoe
c)
earthquake
d)
forest fire
56.
If the amount of food or resources available increases, the carrying capacity for an animal:
a)
Stays the same
b)
Increases
c)
Decreases
d)
Fluctuates
57.

Animals such as pandas are long lived, mature slowly, and generally produce fewer offspring during their life spans but place a greater investment in each. What term is applied to this type of reproductive strategy?

a)

K-strategy

b)

r-strategy

58.

As a population of a species increases within a territory, which of the following most likely also increases?

a)

Immigration

b)

Food supply

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Competition

59.

Predator population lags behind prey population because......

a)

Increase in predators leads to decrease in prey

b)

Increase in predators leads to increase in prey

c)

Increase in predators leads to decrease in producers

d)

Increase in producers leads to increase in prey

60.
Which symbols best describe mutualism?
a)
+,+
b)
+,-
c)
+,0
d)
-,0
61.
Cattle egrets are birds that forage in fields among cattle. The egrets get easy access to food and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
62.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that feed on parasites found on an impala. The impala gets rid of parasites and the red-billed oxpeckers get a yummy dinner. This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
63.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from the spruce tree to the tree's detriment (harm). 
a)
Mutualsim 
b)
Parasitism 
c)
Commensalism 
64.

Two organisms that are so similar they can interbreed in nature and produce fertile offspring.

a)

biotic factor

b)

herbivore

c)

ecosystem

d)

species

65.

A cuckoo and a warbler are both birds. A cuckoo will find the nest of warbler instead of building her own, and she harms the warbler by knocking a warbler egg out of nest and laying her own. When the warbler mother returns, she isn’t aware of the switch. The warbler will then raise the baby cuckoo bird instead of her own baby. Which term best describes this relationship?

a)

Predation

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

66.
The resources a population actually uses as a result of competition.
a)
niche
b)
realized niche
c)
fundamental niche
d)
competition
67.
The ecological niches of three bird species are shown in the diagram. What is the advantage of each bird species having a different niche?
a)
As more birds feed higher in the tree, available energy increases.
b)
More abiotic resources are available for each bird.
c)
Predators are less likely to feed on birds in a variety of locations.
d)
There is less competition for food.
68.
Two closely related species of birds live in the same tree.  Species A feeds on ants and termites, while Species B feeds on caterpillars.  The two species coexist successfully because –
a)
each occupies a different niche
b)
they interbreed 
c)
they use different methods of reproduction
d)
birds compete for food
69.
This is known as the set of resources a population is theoretically capable of using in the wild.
a)
niche
b)
realized niche
c)
fundamental niche
d)
competition
70.

The ecological role an organism performs in their specific environment is considered the organism's...

a)

Habitat

b)

Population

c)

Biome

d)

Niche

71.

a relationship between two species in which both species compete for limited resources such that both species are negatively affected by the relationship

a)

Symbiosis

b)

interspecific competition

c)

species richness

d)

species-area effect

72.

A relationship in which two different organisms live in close association with each other

a)

interspecific competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Symbiosis

d)

Commensalism

73.

the differentiation of niches that enables similar species to coexist in a community

a)

character displacement

b)

climax community

c)

resource partitioning

d)

pioneer species

74.
The ecological niches of three bird species are shown in the diagram. What is the advantage of each bird species having a different niche?
a)
As more birds feed higher in the tree, available energy increases.
b)
More abiotic resources are available for each bird.
c)
Predators are less likely to feed on birds in a variety of locations.
d)
There is less competition for food.
75.
How much of the energy in each level of a ecological pyramid gets lost as heat or used by the organism so that it cannot be passed on to the next trophic level?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
76.
A tertiary consumer has to be which type?
a)
Carnivore.
b)
Decomposer.
c)
Producer.
d)
Herbivore.
77.
For a pyramid of numbers, the width of the bar shows the__________ of organisms present in each trophic level at a particular time. 
a)
number
b)
biomass
c)
energy
d)
volume
78.
Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Lilypad
d)
Mouse
79.
Which of the following shows the correct pyramid of biomass for the food chain?
a)
A
b)
B
80.

Which animal is the top of this food web?

a)

mosquito

b)

alligator

c)

frog

d)

raccoon

81.

Only about ten percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is typically...

a)

used in reproduction

b)

stored as body fat

c)

stored as body tissues

d)

converted to heat and lost

82.
Which organism do the owl and the weasel compete for in the food web?
a)
Hawk
b)
Spider
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Shrew
83.

Changes in a community along a factor such as altitude

a)

Succession

b)

Zonation

c)

Insolation

d)

Latitude

84.

The progressive increase in the amount of a chemical or substance in an organism

a)

biomass

b)

bioaccumulation

c)

biomagnification

d)

eutrophication

85.

The concentrating of pollutants at successive levels of the food chain

a)

photosynthesis

b)

eutrophication

c)

bioaccumulation

d)

biomagnification

86.

DDT, PBB, Mercury all accumulate and bio-magnify without deteriorating in the environment over time. These are called....

a)

PCBs

b)

Dioxins

c)

Persistent Organic Pollutants

d)

DOT's

87.

Which substance originally designed to eliminate mosquitos was banned as a result of the death of many birds?

a)

Nuclear Waste

b)

DDT

c)

CFCs

d)

Plastic

88.

Which are common environmental value systems? Select all that apply

a)

Concentric

b)

Anthropocentric

c)

Heliocentric

d)

Ecocentric

89.

What are some of the things that influence an individuals EVS?

a)

The cost of fuel

b)

Religious beliefs

c)

Family influence

d)

What kind of house you own

90.

Which term means that matter or energy move around without changing?

a)

Transfer

b)

Transformation

91.

Which system most closely represents real systems

a)

Closed system

b)

Isolated system

c)

Idealised system

d)

Open system

92.

Which tool is used to assess sustainability?

a)

Simpson's Index

b)

Ecological Footprint

c)

Zonation patterns

d)

Carbon use

93.

What is the Ecological footprint?

a)

Hypothetical area of land that a human uses every day

b)

Hypothetical area of land to support waste assimilation and food production

c)

The hypothetical area of land required to support each person's resource needs

d)

The hypothetical area of land l to support their resource needs and assimilate all waste

94.

Which environmental disaster released Methyl Mercury into the water system?

a)

Bhopal

b)

Chernobyl

c)

Minimata

d)

Fukushima

95.

A set of interrelated parts working together to make a complex whole is called ____.

a)

the surroundings

b)

the system

c)

inputs

d)

outputs

96.

Letter A represents a(n) ___.

a)

output

b)

input

c)

process

d)

store

97.

___ only exchange energy with their surroundings.

a)

Open systems

b)

Closed systems

c)

Isolated systems

98.

A ________________ feedback loop makes a system more stable.

a)

Positive

b)

Neutral

c)

Negative

d)

Circular

99.

A _________________ feedback loop moves a system to an extreme.

a)

Positive

b)

Neutral

c)

Circular

d)

Negative

100.

Polar Ice Caps are melting due to an increase in Earth's temperature. This lowers the albedo of Earth, which in turn increases Earth's temperature. This is an example of what type of feedback?

a)

Negative

b)

Neutral

c)

Positive

d)

Ecosystem

101.

Which countries will tend to have a lower ecological footprint?

a)

MEDCs

b)

LEDCs

102.

When does an ecological footprint show unsustainability?

a)

When the ecological footprint is greater than the area available to the population.

b)

An ecological footprint cannot show unsustainability.

c)

When the ecological footprint is smaller than the area available to the population.

d)

When the value of the ecological footprint is greater than 50.

103.

An Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a detailed study undertaken prior to a development project. What does an EIA include?

a)

An assessment of environmental, social and economic impacts of the development project, as well as proposals for mitigation of the possible negative effects.

b)

A valuation of the development project providing guidance on budget planning to the contractors.

c)

An assessment of the environmental impact of the development project with particular emphasis on the possible losses of biodiversity in the given area.

d)

An outline of the positive effects that the development project can have for the local community.

104.

What is natural capital?

a)

A store of natural resources that can produce a sustainable source of goods and services.

b)

Goods or services obtained by proper management of the Earth’s natural resources.

c)

Total area of land required to maintain food production for the growing human population.

d)

Total area of land required to assimilate waste produced by the growing human population.

105.

With the rapidly growing human population and constant new pressures on the environment it gradually becomes more difficult to maintain sustainability. Choose the sentence which best explains what sustainability is.

a)

The exploitation of resources at such rate which allows for their natural replenishment and the recovery of the ecosystem affected by their use.

b)

The maximum population size that an area can support without detrimental effects.

c)

Engaging in the prevention of negative effects of human activities on the Earth’s resources through localised actions (recycling of waste, reduction in electricity consumption etc.).

d)

The area of land needed to provide all of the resources for a person’s lifestyle and to dispose of all their wastes.

106.
The number of different species and the abundance of each species in a biological community.
a)
genetic diversity
b)
ecosystem diversity
c)
extinction
d)
species diversity
107.

_______ happens when fertilizers, animal waste, sewage or other substances rich in nitrogen and phosphorus are lost into waterways causing excessive algae growth.

a)

Eutrophication

b)

Introduced species

c)

Biological Augmentation

d)

Nonrenewable Resource

108.

Species that are only found in a specific geographic area are _______.

a)

Introduced species

b)

Local species

c)

Endemic

d)

Biodiversity hot spot

109.
The process shown here is called __.
a)
biomagnification
b)
eutrophication
c)
invasive species
d)
mass extinction
110.

the breaking of habitats into smaller pieces is called...

a)

habitat division

b)

habitat pollution

c)

habitat corruption

d)

habitat fragmentation

111.

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and the Convention on Biological Diversity are examples of

a)

organizations that promote poaching.

b)

international organisation on climate change.

c)

international treaties to protect biodiversity.

d)

laws to increase the number of species

112.

Biologists put extra effort into protecting these because they contain ~60% of the world's species

a)

National parks

b)

Biodiversity Hotspots

c)

Tropical rainforests

d)

Conservation stations

113.

The species that plays a critical role in maintaining the ecosystem structure is?

a)

Flagship species

b)

Umbrella species

c)

Keystone Species

d)

Leading species

114.

Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring?

a)

Evolution

b)

Variation

c)

Adaptation

d)

Natural Selection

115.

The 3 different types of biodiversity (in IB ESS) are;

a)

Genes, Species, Habitats

b)

Genes, Species, Ecosystems

c)

Species, Habitats, Communities

d)

Biosphere, Genes, Habitats

116.

What is the name of a common biodiversity index?

a)

Living

b)

Carr

c)

Elton

d)

Simpson

117.

What is THE most major cause of extinction today?

a)

habitat destruction by humans

b)

poaching

c)

disease

d)

hunting

118.
Lichens only grow on rocks/trees when the air is clean. This is makes them a(n)
a)
indicator species
b)
endangered species
c)
keystone species
d)
native species
119.
Biodiversity hotspot can be described as what
a)
An area that has very high biodiversity
b)
An area that has been completely depleted of 95% of its biodiversity
c)
An area with high biodiversity of unique species and is threatened because of biodiversity loss.
d)
An area very important to people because it provides a service and is an economic boost to the local economy.
120.
Connect habitat fragments enabling once-isolated populations to interbreed
a)
Wildlife tunnels
b)
Wildlife over passes
c)
wildlife corridors
d)
wildlife corss walks
121.

Costa Rica set aside over ¼ of its land area for national parks and biological preserves. What method of preserving biodiversity does this best illustrate?

a)

Botanical Gardens and Seed Banks

b)

Habitat Approach

c)

Biodiversity Hotspot Focus

d)

Captive Breeding

122.

Which of the following makes a species prone to extinction?

Select ALL that apply

a)

Narrow geographical range,

b)

Narrow niche, specific requirements for habitat

c)

Large gene pool

d)

large body, small population size

123.

Why do regions of high geographic relief (elevation differences) often also have higher biodiversity than flat areas?

a)

There are more places to hide

b)

More available sunlight

c)

They often comprise more than one type of habitat

d)

From the base of a mountain to the peak, it generally is a pioneer community

124.

Intergovernmental organizations are...

a)

funded privately

b)

responsible for local conservation

c)

are single country based with business and non profits funding it

d)

international organizations

125.

Identify some of the beneficial traits of an Non-Governmental Organization. (Select all that apply.)

a)

Can act fast, do not require votes and legislation

b)

Advertise on popular media through donations

c)

Funded by the national budget through everyone's taxes

d)

Implement international treaties

126.

What major impact can fragmentation of habitat have on an endangered species?

a)

It tends to make food resources scarce for the existing population

b)

It results in large migrations of organisms out of their typical habitat

c)

It tends to increase the likelihood of invasive species due to lack of space

d)

It tends to lead to a lower genetic diversity due to isolation

127.

Which of the following represents an ecosystem with high species abundance, but low species diversity?

a)

An island with many rare birds and insects

b)

An old growth forest and its inhabitants

c)

A farm field with thousands of sunflowers

d)

A grassland with various grasses and flowers

128.

Look at the diagram about two possible shapes of protected areas. Which one is better?

a)

A

b)

B

129.

Using the graph below which statement is correct.

a)

Swamps and marshes, estuaries and tropical rainforests have an NPP of 9,000 kilocalories m-2 yr-1.

b)

Boreal and deciduous temperate forests have a NPP range of 3,500 - 6,000 kilocalories m-2 yr-1.

c)

Grasslands have an NPP of 2,000 kilocalories m-2 yr-1.

d)

All of the responses are correct.

130.

If gross primary productivity in a wetland is 3 kg C/m^2/year and respiration is 1.5 kg C/m^2/year, what is the net primary productivity of the wetland?

a)

Impossible to determine from the given information

b)

3 kg C/m^2/year

c)

1.5 kg C/m^2/year

d)

2 kg C/m^2/year

e)

4.5 kg C/m^2/year

131.

The average efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels is approximately

a)

1 percent

b)

4 percent

c)

40 percent

d)

50 percent

e)

10 percent

132.

What is an example of an area that is likely to undergo primary succession?

a)

Glaciers melt and leave exposed rock

b)

Plants die from drought and decompose

c)

Land is bulldozed and soil remains

133.

Which of the following is the correct order of ecological succession?

a)

grass - shrubs - lichens - trees

b)

lichens - shrubs - grasses - trees

c)

lichens - grasses - shrubs - trees

d)

grasses - lichens - shrubs - trees

134.

In general, as you move from the equator to the poles, what happens to biodiversity>

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains the same

135.

Why is biodiversity in an ecosystem so important?

a)

Because it can help humans where to determine good places to increase development of natural income.

b)

Because places that have a healthy biodiversity are unaffected by major disturbances.

c)

High biodiversity increases resilience to withstand major changes and tipping points

d)

Because having a high biodiversity allows for fewer opportunities of competition for similar resources.

136.

When energy or matter flows and changes location but does NOT change its state (matter) or type (energy), this is called a(n) ____.

a)

transfer

b)

transformation

c)

process

d)

output

137.

The majority of all systems in nature are ___.

a)

open systems

b)

closed systems

c)

isolated systems

d)

stores

138.

___ exchange matter and energy with their surroundings.

a)

Open systems

b)

Closed systems

c)

Isolated systems

139.

Who wrote the book Silent Spring, considered by many to have been key in the banning of DDT and the formation of the US Environmental Protection Agency?

(a)  

140.

What term would be used to denote the value something has because it exists, rather than due to what it does or how it can be used by humans?

(a)  

141.

Which EVS would argue that humans must sustainably manage the global system through taxes, regulation and legislation.

(a)  

142.

Which EVS would prioritise biorights and emphasise local level solutions based on self-restraint and education.

(a)  

143.

Which of the following positions could be consistent with an ecocentric worldview?

a)

Deep ecologists

b)

Cornucopian

c)

Biocentrists

d)

Stewardship

e)

Self-sufficiency

144.

The use of genetically modified organisms in agriculture would suggest which viewpoint?

a)

Technocentric

b)

Ecocentric

c)

Anthropocentric

145.

Educational campaigning to reduce meat consumption would suggest which viewpoint?

a)

Technocentric

b)

Ecocentric

c)

Anthropocentric

146.

Legislation to impose fishing quotas would suggest which viewpoint?

a)

Technocentric

b)

Ecocentric

c)

Anthropocentric

147.

Density-dependent factors, such as contagious disease or parasites, act as a ____________ feedback mechanism by bringing the population size back to equilibrium.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

148.
The area of the map shaded in green represents which of the following terrestrial biome
a)
Coniferous Forrest
b)
Deciduous Forrest 
c)
Desert
d)
Tundra
149.

Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?

a)

Less than 1%

b)

2-10%

c)

30%

d)

50%

150.

What is this picture describing?

a)

It is describing how two organisms cannot occupy the same niche in the same place at the same time through the competitive exclusion principle.

b)

It is illustrating the intercompetitive inclusion principle.

c)

It is describing the amount of time it takes for bacteria to reach exponential growth.

d)

It is illustrating the mutualistic relationship between two organisms when they live in the same niche.

151.

Which law of thermodynamics explains the shape of an ecological pyramid of energy?

a)

1st law

b)

2nd law

c)

3rd law

152.

Select the inputs to photosynthesis.

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

Glucose

d)

O2

e)

Sunlight

153.
If the Senagal Gum Acacia contains 3,000 kilocalories, how many of those calories will the lion get?
a)
1
b)
300
c)
3,000
d)
30
154.

Which of the following is the correct formula for respiration?

a)

R=NPP + GPP

b)

R=NPP-GPP

c)

R=GPP-NPP

d)

R=GPP/NPP

155.

The GPP of a certain producer is 5,000 gC/m2yr and the NPP is 4,000 gC/m2yr. What is the repsiratory energy needed by the autotrophs?

a)

cannot be determined from the information given

b)

1,000 gC/m2yr

c)

9,000 gC/m2yr

d)

-1,000 gC/m2yr

156.

Which of the following are stores in the Carbon Cycle?

a)

soil

b)

oceans

c)

organisms

d)

fossil fuels

e)

atmosphere

157.
How nitrogen is "fixed" into useable form for plants
a)
only through action of bacteria
b)
only through lightning
c)
through action of bacteria & lightning
d)
through photosynthesis
158.
Nitrogen fixing bacteria, lives in nodules on the root of a plant called
a)
Broccoli
b)
Legumes
c)
Beats
d)
Carrots
159.

In some developing countries poverty causes illness and contributes to poor standards of education. In the absence of knowledge of family planning methods and hygiene, this contributes to population growth and illness, adding further to the causes of poverty; “a vicious circle of poverty.”

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

160.

What is the best description for this image

a)

static equilibrium

b)

steady state equilibrium

c)

tipping point

d)

unstable equilibrium

161.
The diagram represents different levels of a marine food pyramid. Between which two levels is the least amount of energy transferred
a)
R and Q
b)
S and R
c)
T and S
d)
U and T
162.

A tipping point is part of a system that kick starts self-perpetuating positive feedback loops that push the systems to a new state of equilibrium. If tipping points are reached in the natural environment, which one of the following could happen?

a)

The climate may become unsuitable for human existence.

b)

Land and seas’ food production capacity could be compromised as coral reefs disappear

c)

Complete community changes in the Arctic

d)

All of the above are possible impacts if tipping points are reached in the natural environment

163.

After random sampling, 200 penguins are captured, tagged and released. A month later, 180 untagged and 20 tagged penguins are captured. Use the Lincoln Index to estimate the total penguin population.

a)

200

b)

1000

c)

1500

d)

2000

164.

After random sampling, 500 piranha are captured, tagged and released from an aquarium. A month later, 10 piranha of which 2 are tagged are captured. Use the Lincoln Index to estimate the total population of piranhas.

a)

4500

b)

3000

c)

2500

d)

1500

165.

Calculate the Diversity Index Number

Species #

A 40

B 20

C 15

D 8

E 22

a)

.5

b)

1.5

c)

4.09

d)

5.1

166.

GPP - R

This formula calculates what?

a)

Trophic Levels- how many species can be found at each

b)

NPP- overall efficiency of the plants in the ecosystem (energy passed on)

c)

Amount of energy available to all Apex Predators and Decomposers

d)

None of the above

167.

According to the graph, what is causing the deer population to decrease

a)

They got sick

b)

The wolf population is decreasing

c)

The wolf population increased

d)

They ran out of food

168.

in 1995 Wolves were reintroduced to Yellowstone National Park. Which answer below most accurately describes a possible trophic cascade the could result from the reintroduction of wolves?

a)

wolves reintroduced-> deer population increased -> tree and vegetation cover decreased

b)

wolves reintroduced-> beaver population decreased -> tree and vegetation cover increased

c)

wolves reintroduced-> deer population decreased -> tree and vegetation cover increased -> beaver population increased

d)

wolves reintroduced-> deer population decreased -> beaver population decreased -> songbird population increased

169.

Which is true of the location above?

a)

It has low species richness

b)

It has low species evenness

c)

It has high species evenness

d)

It has both low species evenness and richness

e)

None of these

170.

the portion of niche fulfilled due to competition or other species interactions

a)

realized niche

b)

fundamental niche

c)

ecological niche

d)

niche niche

e)

pizza pizza

171.

An example of a K-strategist (-selected) species is

a)

a cockroach

b)

a housefly

c)

a rabbit

d)

an elephant

e)

none of these

172.

An example of a r-strategist (-selected) species is

a)

an elephant

b)

a human

c)

a whale

d)

an eagle

e)

a dandelion

173.

This community has

a)

low species richness

b)

high species evenness

c)

an unequal distribution of species

d)

no biodiversity

e)

none of these

174.

full potential range of conditions if there were no competition

a)

realized niche

b)

fundamental niche

c)

ecological niche

d)

niche niche

e)

pizza pizza

175.

What biome has grasses and scattered trees, lions, hyenas, giraffes, and zebras, hot, rainy summers, and cool, dry winters?

a)

Desert

b)

Temperate forest

c)

Tropical rainforest

d)

Savanna

176.

Estimate the carrying capacity.

a)

100 deer

b)

80 deer

c)

60 deer

d)

40 deer

177.

What does the term carrying capacity describe?

a)

The maximum number of birth rates for a population.

b)

The ability of a population to accept new immigrants.

c)

The ratio of birth rates to death rates in a population.

d)

The population size that the environment can sustain.

178.

There is strong evidence that two species of

cliff-dwelling birds have nested in the same

environment and fed in the same water for

thousands of years, with each having stable

population sizes. Based on this information,

which of the following statements is the best

conclusion?

a)

The two birds compete for food.

b)

One species will displace the other.

c)

The two birds have different ecological niches that allow coexistence.

d)

One species eats a more diverse diet than the other does.

179.
This population would be characterized as which kind of species?
a)
r-selected
b)
S-selected
c)
K-selected
d)
C-selected
180.

According to biologists, what percentage of species have become or are expected to become extinct between 1900 and 2100?

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

60%

181.

Students in a science class visited four local ecosystems. The students observed the species present in each ecosystem and recorded their observations in the table.

Based on these observations, which ecosystem is likely to be the LEAST sustainable?

a)

A. Ecosystem 1, because it has the fewest species.

b)

B. Ecosystem 2, because it includes both aquatic and terrestrial species.

c)

C. Ecosystem 3, because it has few predators.

d)

D. Ecosystem 4, because it supports many animals.

182.

Primary succession occurs when pioneer species move into an area that has no plants. Which organisms are common pioneer species?

a)

A. Conifer trees and tall grasses with roots that loosen the soil

b)

B. Mosses and lichens that can grow on rocky surfaces.

c)

C. Grasses and weeds that arrive as seeds carried by the wind and then germinate in rich soil.

d)

D. Vines and shrubs that help prevent the erosion of shallow soil.

183.
When a specific population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Density Independent limiting factors start to occur resulting in the population going farther above carrying capacity.
b)
Density Dependent limiting factors start to occur resulting in the population going back below carrying capacity.
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
184.
Excessive amounts of rain caused a flood in the southwest United States that resulted in substantial amounts of deaths in the rabbit population? This situation is an example of a density _____________ limiting factor.
a)
density-independent
b)
density-dependent
c)
density- too high
d)
density- too low
185.

According to this diagram, plants use nitrogen to make ________

a)

bacteria

b)

proteins

c)

animals

d)

decomposers

186.

Which nitrogen cycle process is occurring when plant roots absorb ammonium ions and nitrate ions for use in making molecules such as DNA, amino acids, and proteins?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

e)

assimilation

187.

Which nitrogen cycle process is occurring when bacteria convert ammonium to nitrite and then into nitrate?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

e)

assimilation

188.

Which of these nitrogen cycle processes converts atmospheric nitrogen to a soil form of nitrogen that is usable by plants?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

e)

assimilation

189.
Organisms that break down dead plants & animals and release nitrogen back into atmosphere...
a)
bacteria
b)
plants
c)
animals
d)
producers
190.

What is the main reservoir of nitrogen?

a)

Water bodies

b)

Plants

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Soil

191.
The _____________ is the largest cell and extends from the equator to between 30 and 400 North and South.
a)
Hadley Cell
b)
Polar Cell
c)
Ferrel Cell
192.
In these latitudes the cooler air from the poles meets the warmer air from the tropics, causing air to rise. 
a)
Polar Cells
b)
Ferrel Cells
c)
Hadley Cells
193.
The rising air in the Hadley cell at the equator forms an area of _____ pressure at the surface.
a)
high
b)
low
194.
Working in the direction from the North Pole to the equator, what is the correct sequence for the three cells.
a)
Hadley cell, Polar cell, Ferrel cell
b)
Polar cell, Hadley cell, Ferrel cell
c)
Polar cell, Ferrel cell, Hadley cell
d)
Hadley cell, Ferrell cell, Polar cell
195.

The climatograph in the picture provided most likely belongs to which of the following biomes

a)

temperate deciduous forest

b)

tundra

c)

taiga

d)

tropical rain forest

196.

Ecological Footprint is measured in:

a)

Kilowatts

b)

Carbon Units

c)

Global Hectares

d)

Square Miles

197.

The capacity of ecosystems to regenerate what people demand from those surfaces.

a)

Sustainability

b)

Ecological Footprint

c)

Global Hectares

d)

Biocapacity

198.

If a country has a Ecological Reserve, that means it

a)

has a Higher Ecological Footprint than Biocapacity

b)

is not living sustainably within its country's limits

c)

Has a higher Biocapacity than Ecological Footprint

d)

Also has an Ecological Deficit

199.

If a country has an Ecological Deficit that mean it

a)

is living sustainably

b)

Has lots of forests

c)

has a higher Biocapacity than Ecological Footprint

d)

has a higher Ecological Footprint than Biodiversity

200.

All the available resources and services that are available in the environment.

a)

Natural Capital

b)

Renewable Resources

c)

Environmental Capacity

d)

Carrying Capacity

201.

What is a biodiversity hotspot?

a)

an area with high biodiversity, and low Simpson scale index scores

b)

an area with low biodiversity, extinction rate & endemism

c)

an area with low biodiversity, but high endemism

d)

an area with high biodiversity and large numbers of endemic species, yet is threatened

202.

Which of the following examples would result in an inversion of a pyramid of numbers?

a)

a tree with thousands of spiders

b)

a forest of trees with a small herd of deer

c)

a tree with a spotted owl

d)

a forest of trees with a pack of wolves

203.

What is biomass?

a)

the total dry weight of organisms in an ecosystem

b)

the total weight of organisms in an ecosystem

c)

the total dry weight of producers in an ecosystem

d)

the total weight of animals in an ecosystem

204.

If only 10% of an organism's energy is available for the next trophic level, what happens with the other 90% of the energy?

a)

It is destroyed after it is used up

b)

It is used for life processes like movement, creating offspring producing waste or lost as body heat

c)

It is used to grow plants

d)

It is lost completely as body heat

205.
An endangered species is
a)
One whose numbers are so small that it is at risk of extinction
b)
One whose not been spotted after many years.
c)
One whose numbers are abundant.
206.

When you consume an organism, you only receive 10% of the energy, but how much of the toxins do you receive?

a)

All of the toxins

b)

10% toxins

c)

1% toxins

d)

None of the toxins

207.

Which of the following statements defines a pyramid of productivity?

a)

A graphical representation of the amount of energy that is generated and available as food for the next trophic level. Expressed as a whole number.

b)

A graphical representation of the amount of energy that is generated and available as food for the next trophic level. Expressed as J m-2 yr-1.

c)

A graphical representation of the amount of energy that is generated and available as food for the next trophic level. Expressed as J m-2.

d)

All of the statements given here can be used to define a pyramid of productivity.

208.

What do you call the process in which there is an increase in the concentration of a pollutant in an organism as it absorbs or ingests it from its environment.

a)

Bioaccumulation

b)

Biology

c)

Biomagnification

d)

Biodiversity

209.

What do you call the increase in the concentration of the pollutant as it moves up through the food chain

a)

Bioaccumulation

b)

Biology

c)

Biomagnification

d)

Biodiversity

210.

Which of the following statement(s) is an accurate fact about DDT?

a)

DDT is a POP.

b)

It is fat soluble and therefore does not leave the body through urination or sweating.

c)

Was and is sometimes still used for malaria control

d)

All these statements are facts about DDT.

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