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IA 2 Review

Total questions: 211

Worksheet time: 2hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(a)   was a supercontinent that existed during the late Paleozoic and early Mesozoic eras.

2.

(a)   plate boundary is also a constructive plate boundary.

3.

Which theory supports sea-floor spreading?

a)

Dragging Theory

b)

Convection Current Theory

c)

Fold Mounting Building

d)

Plate Tectonics

4.

Which process creates volcanic island arcs?

a)

seafloor spreading

b)

fold-mounting building

c)

subduction

d)

faulting

5.

A theory which states that continents have moved slowly to their current locations.

a)

Plate Tectonics

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Seafloor Spreading

6.
A ______ is a section of the lithosphere that slowly moves over the asthenosphere, carrying large slabs of continental and oceanic crust.
a)
wedge
b)
plate
c)
chunk
d)
fault
7.
What is the name of the single landmass that began to break apart 200 million years ago?
a)
Panthalassa
b)
Laurasia
c)
Gondwanna
d)
Pangaea
8.
The movement of fluid, caused by differences in temperature, that transfers heat from one part of the fluid to another is _____________.
a)
Convection current
b)
Seismic waves
c)
Sea-floor spreading
d)
Conduction current
9.
The process by which molten material adds new oceanic crust to the ocean floor is called ___________.
a)
Divergent boundary
b)
Sea-floor spreading
c)
Convergent boundary
d)
Renovating 
10.
What is an undersea mountain chain where new ocean floor is produced?
a)
Rift valley
b)
Deep-ocean trench
c)
Mid-ocean ridge
d)
Transform bounda
11.
What is the process by which oceanic crust sinks beneath a deep-ocean trench and back into the mantle at a convergent plate boundary?
a)
Subduction
b)
Induction
c)
Abduction 
d)
Reduction
12.
A ______ is a section of the lithosphere that slowly moves over the asthenosphere, carrying large slabs of continental and oceanic crust.
a)
wedge
b)
plate
c)
chunk
d)
fault
13.
A __________ is a deep valley along the ocean floor beneath which oceanic crust slowly sinks toward the mantle.
a)
deep-ocean trench
b)
rift valley
c)
sea-floor spreading
d)
mid-ocean ridge
14.
A _____________ is when two plates move past each other in opposite directions.
a)
emergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
convergent boundary
15.
What is the difference between the lithosphere and asthenosphere that makes up the mantle?
a)
The lithosphere is ismade of dense solid meal whle the asthenosphere is made of liquid molten metal
b)
The lithosphere is a mixture of gasses while the asthenosphere is made of solid rock
c)
The lithosphere is molten rock that moves while the asthenosphere is ridid and thin
d)
The lithosphere is made of solid rock while the asthenosphere is more flexible hot rock that moves.
16.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

17.
The image shows the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region of high tectonic activity. What evidence supports the theory that the tectonic activity of the region is due to the subduction of tectonic plates?
a)
The region is bound by many oceanic trenches.
b)
North America seems to be colliding with Asia at the north of the ring.
c)
The Asia-Pacific region is dotted by many small and large islands
d)
The landmasses look like they would fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle.
18.

Stress in earth science is part of what topic?

a)

Tectonic Forces

b)

Tectonic Processes

c)

Plate Boundaries

d)

Convection Currents

19.

The movement of the tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

convection currents in the Asthenosphere

c)

the gravity of the iron-nickel core.

d)

the Moho discontinuity.

20.

In some areas of the world, like California and Japan, earthquakes are a common occurrence. How can this best be explained?

a)

The strong ocean currents are undermining both areas causing earthquakes.

b)

Both areas are located near the edge of the Pacific Ocean, the unstable sand causes earthquakes.

c)

Both areas are subjected to strong ocean wind and waves that causes earthquakes.

d)

Both areas are on the boundary of active plates, the motion of the plates causes earthquakes.

21.
What geological forces might be responsible for this range of mountains?
a)
diverging tectonic plates
b)
erosion of the land by the ocean
c)
converging tectonic plates
d)
deposition of sediments by the ocean
22.
What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?
a)
Rift Valley
b)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
c)
Island Arc
d)
Flat land
23.

What causes the movement of the tectonics plates on Earth's surface?

a)

Thermal Convection of the mantle

b)

Thermohaline circulation

c)

Hadley Cell

d)

Upwelling

24.

What are the two types of crust

a)

continental and oceanic

b)

lower and upper

c)

ocean and upper

d)

pizza and subway

25.

The movement of the tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

the gravity of the iron-nickel core.

c)

convection currents in the Asthenosphere

d)

the Moho discontinuity.

26.

Continental drift theory suggests that a single supercontinent called Pangaea existed millions of years ago. What do you mean by the Greek word "Pangaea"?

a)

all lands

b)

both lands

c)

same lands

27.

How did Wegener arrive at the idea of "Continental Drift Theory"?

a)

He presented evidences which are continents are near to each other, share different languages and culture and having the same beliefs.

b)

He presented evidence which are continents have unities in trading system, same rules or laws which they impost and they share same oceans to have resources.

c)

He presented evidences which are continents fit together like a jigsaw puzzle, there are some identical fossils in the different continent and they share common geological features.

28.
In the Atlantic ocean, where is the youngest seafloor located?
a)
Towards the edges, near the eastern and western continents
b)
Towards the middle of the ocean
c)
Towards the north and south poles
d)
Young seafloor is located randomly throughout the ocean
29.

Seafloor spreading occurs because ____.

a)

new material is being added to the asthenosphere

b)

earthquakes break apart the ocean floor

c)

sediments accumulate at the area of spreading

d)

molten material beneath Earth's crust rises to the surface

30.

Which of the following supports the theory of seafloor spreading? (Choose ONE)

a)

Correlation of rock layers

b)

Continents fitting together like puzzle pieces

c)

Magnetic Reversal recorded in the rocks on both sides of the mid-ocean ridge

d)

Continuous Mountain Chains

31.
True or False : Sea-floor Spreading adds new material to the ocean floor?
a)
True
b)
False
32.

What 3 kinds of evidence were used to prove that the seafloor spread?

a)

Rock formations, age of rocks, WWII shipwrecks

b)

Age of rocks, magnetic seafloor stripes, WWII ship logs

c)

Rock formations, magnetic seafloor stripes, age of rocks

33.
What are Mid-Ocean Ridges?
a)
A chain of underwater waterfalls 
b)
A chain of underwater volcanos
c)
A chain of underwater mountains
d)
A chain of underwater rocks
34.

How do scientists figure out the age of the seafloor?

a)

They research it from ancient sea maps that trading vessels would use in the 1700s

b)

They use the moon phases and eclipses to calculate the age

c)

They use seismographs and the depth as well as location of earthquakes to calculate the age

d)

They take drill ships to many locations in the oceans and collect, then date, rock samples.

35.

The mid-ocean ridge occurs along a

a)

convergent boundary where new crust is formed

b)

transform boundary where crust is subducted

c)

divergent boundary where sea floor spreading takes place

d)

divergent boundary where subduction takes place

36.

Type of fold: downfolds or troughs

a)

anticlines

b)

synclines

c)

monoclines

d)

benchmarks

37.
The oldest layer of an anticline is located ___
a)
on an incline
b)
within a syncline
c)
in the center of the fold
d)
on the bottom of the fold
38.

It is the home of many active volcanoes.

a)

Ring of Fire

b)

Earthquake Belt

c)

Subduction Zone

d)

Ocean Ridge

39.

It is the way how seismic wave gives information about the Earth’s inner structure.

a)

through analyzing the behavior of wave in different medium

b)

by measuring the damage caused by a wave 

c)

in mapping epicenters of earthquakes and volcanic activities

d)

thru releasing manmade wave and analyzing its magnitude

40.

The hanging wall is moving upward:

a)

Strike slip fault

b)

Normal fault

c)

Reverse fault

d)

None of the above

41.

Degradation process:

a)

Weathering

b)

Mass Wasting

c)

Erosion and Transportation

d)

All of the above

42.

Aggradation process happens when the deposit is found mostly in:

a)

fluvial

b)

eolian

c)

glacial

d)

all of the above

43.

Physical weathering:

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

carbonation

c)

geomorphic agents like plant roots

d)

Lichens removing mineral content

44.

important in iron-rich

rocks – reddish coloration like rust:

a)

oxidation

b)

carbonation

c)

hydrolysis

d)

exfoliation

45.

Characteristics of intrusive igneous rock:

a)

Rapid cooling

b)

glassy texture

c)

coarsed grain

d)

Fine grain

46.

What type of forces are associated with Folding?

a)

Erosional Forces

b)

Compressional Forces

c)

Tensional Forces

d)

Shearing Forces

47.

Which landform is being formed in this diagram?

a)

Island arc volcano

b)

Ocean trench

c)

Rift valley

d)

Folded mountains

48.

Seismic waves are vibrations generated by earthquakes. Which type of seismic wave travels through the Earth's surface?

a)

Body Waves

b)

Surface Waves

c)

Tidal Waves

d)

Transverse Waves

49.

Which of the following statements are true about the theories of continental drift and plate tectonics?

I. The continents continue to move even today.

II. Plate tectonics is a refinement of continental drift theory.

III. Tectonic activities are confined to continental boundaries.

IV. The movement of continents is caused by the constant shifting and sliding of tectonic plates.

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I, II, and III

d)

I, II, and IV

50.

Which animal fossil helped support the theory of continental drift?

a)

Glossopteris

b)

Glossosaurus

c)

Mesosauraus

d)

Teriphthanus

51.

Paleontologists infer that the earth is approximately how many years old?

a)

4.5 billion years old

b)

4.5 million years old

c)

450 billion years old

d)

450 million years old

52.

The “calendar” for events in Earth history. It subdivides all time into units of abstract time called eons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.

a)

Gregorian calendar

b)

Geologic time scale

c)

Precambrian

d)

Time period

53.

The “calendar” for events in Earth history. It subdivides all time into units of abstract time called eons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages.

a)

Gregorian calendar

b)

Geologic time scale

c)

Precambrian

d)

Time period

54.

Fossils provide evidence of __________.

a)

how life and the environment has remained stable over time

b)

how the climate and weather has remained stable over time

c)

how life and the environmental conditions have changed over time

d)

how animals adapt to their changing environment

55.

It is the Earliest Age of Earth's Geologic History and the longest as it includes approximately 80-90% of Earths Entire History.

a)

precambrian

b)

paleozoic

c)

mesozoic

d)

cenozoic

56.

Which of the following is an example of a hazard associated with earthquake?

a)

eutrophication

b)

ground shaking

c)

flooding

d)

pyroclastic density currents

57.

What is the main reason why the Philippines has suffered from numerous geologic processes and calamities?

a)

its economic status

b)

its location (Ring of fire)

c)

Philippines is 3rd a world country

d)

something to do with human population

58.

Which of the following hazards undermine the foundations and supports of buildings, bridges, pipelines, and roads, causing them to sink into the ground, collapse, or dissolve?

a)

eutrophication

b)

ground shaking

c)

liquefaction

d)

pyroclastic density currents

59.

What causes an earthquake?

a)

glacier

b)

very large storm

c)

landslide

d)

a movement along fault

60.

What natural hazard has the effects of reshaping new land, debris avalanche, destroyed forests, and death to many animals?

a)

volcanic eruption

b)

earthquake

c)

hurricane

d)

tsunami

61.

What refers to the sliding down of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain or cliff?

a)

ground shaking

b)

landslides

c)

liquefaction

d)

tsunami

62.
Paleontologists infer that the earth is approximately how many years old?
a)
4.5 million years
b)
450 million years
c)
450 billion years
d)
4.5 billion years
63.

Dinosaurs, small mammals, and birds are found in this time period.

a)

Precambrian

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Mesozoic

d)

Cenozoic

64.

What are fossils that are abundant, easily recognizable, short lived, and widespread called?

a)

Preserved fossils

b)

Index fossils

c)

Imprints

d)

Radioactive dating

65.

When classifying time using the Geologic Time Scale which unit is the largest unit of time?

a)

Period

b)

Eon

c)

Epoch

d)

Era

66.

What Epoch of the Geological Time scale are we currently in?

a)

Holocene

b)

Paleocene

c)

Hadean

d)

Jurassic

67.

During which time segment of the Geologic Time Scale did life first appear?

a)

Cenozoic Era

b)

Mesozoic Era

c)

Paleozoic Era

d)

Precambrian Time

68.

During which time segment of the Geologic Time Scale did life first appear?

a)

Cenozoic Era

b)

Mesozoic Era

c)

Paleozoic Era

d)

Precambrian Time

69.

The law in science that states newer rock layers are formed on top of older layers is called:

a)

Law of Inertia

b)

Newton's Law

c)

Law of Superposition

d)

Law of the land

70.

The act of putting events in chronological order without using actual dates or ages is called:

a)

age guessing

b)

actual dating

c)

relative dating

d)

blind dating

71.

In which time period are we currently living in?

a)

Precambrian Era

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

72.

In what time period did Pangaea, the super continent, appear?

a)

Precambrian Era

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Mesozoic Era

d)

Cenozoic Era

73.

What does "relative age" tell about a rock layer or fossil?

a)

The "exact age of a fossil determined by radiometric dating or the half life of radioactive elements.

b)

Easily recognizable

c)

Live a short time

d)

The age of one rock layer or fossil compared to another. (example: one is older or younger than the other)

74.

What evidence do scientists use to determine the age of the earth?

a)

Absolute and relative dating of rocks and fossils, and the fossil record.

b)

4.6 billion years old

c)

relative age

d)

The rocks are probably the same age.

75.

If the same index fossils are found in different rock strata miles apart, what is probably true about the rock layers?

a)

Rock layers are pretty.

b)

The rocks are different age.

c)

Fossils

d)

The rocks are probably the same age.

76.

Preserved remains of plants and animals from the remote past are called _____.

a)

Plants

b)

Fossils

c)

Animals

d)

Insects

77.

The end of life for a group of organisms, usually a species, is called a _____.

a)

Trouble

b)

Evaporation

c)

Mass extinction

d)

Evolution

78.

Appearance of placental mammals (marsupials, insectivores, creodonts)

a)

Paleocene epoch

b)

Eocene epoch

c)

Oligocene epoch

d)

Miocene epoch

79.

Dinosaurs of the Mesozoic era abruptly became extinct

a)

Triassic Period

b)

Jurassic Period

c)

Cretaceous Period

d)

Permian period

80.

A marked adaptive radiation among dinosaurs. (diversified into carnivorous and herbivorous forms)

a)

Triassic Period

b)

Jurassic Period

c)

Cretaceous Period

d)

Permian period

81.

The end of life for a group of organisms, usually a species, is called a ___________.

a)

wipeout

b)

mass extinction

c)

meteorite

d)

dying off

82.

Fossils are abundantly found in these types of rocks:

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Metamorphic

c)

Igneous

d)

Chris

83.

An index fossil meets all of the criteria except:

a)

Unique

b)

found across a few areas on Earth

c)

located in one rock layer

d)

lived for a brief period of time

84.

What does relative age tell us about a rock layer or fossil?

a)

The age of one rock layer or fossil compared to another.

b)

The relative age of a fossil determined by radiometric dating

c)

Younger rock layers sit on top of older rock layers

d)

Older rock layers sit on top of younger rock layers

85.

It is a type of force which pushes the crust inwards

a)

Tensional

b)

Compressional

86.

It refers to a type of stress which is usually seen in transform boundaries.

a)

Tensional

b)

Shear

87.

It is a type of fault that are produced by compressional forces which causes the hanging wall to move ip relative to the firewall.

a)

Reverse

b)

Strike and slip

88.

What are endogenic processes in geology?

a)

Geological phenomena originating from external factors

b)

Geological phenomena originating from within the Earth's interior

c)

Geological phenomena caused by meteorites

d)

Geological phenomena related to weathering

89.

Which endogenic process is characterized by the eruption of molten rock onto the Earth's surface?

a)

Earthquakes

b)

Mountain building

c)

Volcanism

d)

Geothermal activity

90.

What is the driving force behind volcanism?

a)

wind

b)

rainfall

c)

accumulation of molten rock pressure

d)

solar radiation

91.

How are rift valleys primarily formed?

a)

By volcanic eruptions

b)

By the collision of tectonic plates

c)

By the divergence of tectonic plates

d)

By the subduction of tectonic plates

92.

What is the driving force behind geothermal activity?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Natural gas deposits

c)

Earth's internal heat from radioactive decay

d)

Ocean currents

93.

Which of the following is NOT an endogenic process?

a)

Formation of mid-ocean ridges

b)

Crustal deformation

c)

Soil erosion

d)

Volcanism

94.

What type of stress can cause rocks to fold into anticlines and synclines?

a)

Magnetic stress

b)

Tectonic stress

c)

Solar stress

d)

Atmospheric stress

95.

Alfred Wegener used __________ to prove that Pangea once existed ?

a)

graham crackers and frosting

b)

math

c)

a metal detector

d)

fossils

96.

What happens to a tectonic plate once it subducts under another?

a)

It merges with the other plate to make a thicker plate

b)

It melts back into the mantle

c)

It creates a mountain.

d)

It creates an island chain.

97.

Deformation and fold mountain building can occur along transform faults where:

a)

a. Motion along the fault is very slow

b)

b. Motion along the fault is relatively fast

c)

c. The fault curves, causing the rocks on either side to extend

d)

d. The fault curves, causing the rocks on either side of the fault to compress

98.

Which of the following statements about rock deformation is false?

a)

a. deep crustal rocks are more likely to deform ductility than shallow crustal rocks

b)

b. hotter rocks are more likely to deform ductility than cooler rocks

c)

c. most sedimentary rocks are more deformable than igneous rocks

d)

d. rocks under low confining pressure are more likely to deform ductility than rocks under high confining pressure

99.

Which of the following will not make a fossil?

a)

Animal footprints

b)

Loose animal bones

c)

Plant impression 

d)

Decomposed organic matter

100.

Which of the following statements about rock deformation is false?

a)

deep crustal rocks are more likely to deform ductility than shallow crustal rocks

b)

hotter rocks are more likely to deform ductility than cooler rocks

c)

most sedimentary rocks are more deformable than igneous rocks

d)

rocks under low confining pressure are more likely to deform ductility than rocks under high confining pressure

101.

We cannot accurately measure time in years with stratigraphy for several reasons. Which of the following is FALSE.

a)

 sediments accumulate at different rates in different sedimentary environments

b)

low temperatures and high confining pressures

c)

high temperatures and low confining pressures 

d)

high temperatures and high confining pressures

102.

 Which of the following hazards undermine the foundations and supports of buildings, bridges, pipelines, and roads, causing them to sink into the ground, collapse, or dissolve?

a)

eutrophication

b)

ground shaking

c)

liquefaction

d)

pyroclastic density currents

103.

Wavy bands of light and dark minerals visible to gneiss bedrock probably formed from the

a)

Cementing together of individual mineral grains

b)

Cooling and crystallization of magma

c)

Evaporation of an ancient ocean

d)

Heat and pressure during metamorphism

104.

___________ is any waste that is a risk to the health of humans or other living things.

a)

hazardous waste

b)

politics

c)

sewage

d)

water runoff

105.

A dark brown, crumbly material made from decomposed matter is called _____________.

a)

compost

b)

brown sugar

c)

saw dust

d)

non-biodegradable

106.

A ____________ is a waste disposal facility where wastes are put in the ground and covered each day with a layer of dirt, plastic, or both.

a)

landfill

b)

incinerator

c)

compost heap

d)

aquifer

107.

Solid waste includes all of the following except;

a)

newspaper and soda bottles

b)

food scraps and yard clippings

c)

ozone and carbon dioxide

d)

junk mail and milk cartons

108.

If your shirt is partly cotton and partly polyester, what part is biodegradable?

a)

cotton

b)

polyester

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

109.

Microorganisms are unable to break down plastics because plastics

a)

are made from oil

b)

are too abundant

c)

are made of unknown elements

d)

do not occur in nature

110.

Municipal solid waste is approximately what percentage of all solid waste?

a)

2%

b)

20%

c)

60%

d)

90%

111.

Leachate is a substance that

a)

is produced in a compost pile

b)

is a byproduct of bacterial digestion

c)

is produced by incinerators

d)

contains dissolved toxic chemicals

112.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of incinerating waste?

a)

It reduces the material sent to landfills

b)

It produces energy in the form of heat

c)

It can be used to produce electricity

d)

It neutralizes all of the toxic materials

113.

Manufacturers could reduce waste and conserve resources by making products that

a)

use more materials

b)

are more durable

c)

are difficult

d)

are disposable

114.

Which of the following is one way to reduce an over-supply of recyclable materials?

a)

build more recycling plants

b)

increase the types of recyclable materials

c)

increase the demand for products made from recycled materials

d)

put the excess materials in landfills

115.

Most of the municipal solid waste in the United States is

a)

stored in landfills

b)

recycled

c)

incinerated

d)

none of the above

116.

Which among the following is not a classification of Solid wastes?

a)

Muncipal waste

b)

Household waste

c)

Industrial waste

d)

Hazardous wastes

117.

Biomedical wastes comes under the classification of

a)

Muncipal waste or urban waste

b)

Household waste

c)

Industrial waste

d)

Hazardous wastes

118.

3R comprises of

a)

Reduce, Resist & Recycle

b)

Reduce, Reuse & Replenish

c)

Reduce, Reuse & Reject

d)

Reduce, Reuse & Recycle

119.
All of the following are methods of solid waste disposal EXCEPT:
a)
landfills
b)
open dumping 
c)
incineration
d)
recovery 
120.
A process in which mixed garbage is burned at very high temperatures is:
a)
recovery
b)
incineration
c)
leachate
d)
source reduction 
121.
Which item should you NOT put in your compost pile?
a)
food scraps
b)
autumn leaves
c)
wood chips
d)
plastic
122.
Why are non-biodegradable plastics a problem in the environment?
a)
They do not decompose or break down naturally
b)
They leak toxic chemicals
c)
They are filling up lakes and ponds
d)
They contain poisons for wildlife
123.
What is the collection of materials that can be broken down and reprocessed to make new items?
a)
composting
b)
incineration
c)
leachate
d)
recycling 
124.
In what category of waste do paint, household cleaners, medical waste, and solvents belong?
a)
hazardous
b)
compost
c)
municipal solid
d)
industrial
125.

Which one is not a benefit of recycling ?

a)

It reduces pollution .

b)

It conserves natural resources.

c)

It saves energy.

d)

It may cause diseases.

126.

What is the purpose of a leachate collection system in landfills?

a)

To provide a habitat for local wildlife.

b)

To collect and manage leachate to prevent environmental contamination.

c)

To increase the volume of waste in the landfill.

d)

To enhance the aesthetic appeal of the landfill.

127.

What is the role of cover material in landfill management?

a)

Cover material is primarily for aesthetic purposes.

b)

Cover material helps control odors, pests, and fires, stabilizes waste, and promotes decomposition.

c)

Cover material is used to increase landfill size.

d)

Cover material prevents all types of waste from decomposing.

128.

Which one of the following is NOT a method for handling non-biodegradable solid waste?

a)

burning

b)

burying

c)

recycling

d)

composting

129.
Rainwater falling on a dump dissolves chemicals from the wastes, forming a liquid called _________________ that could pollute rivers, streams, and groundwater.
a)
liquid waste
b)
trash effluent
c)
leachate
d)
runoff
130.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of incinerating waste?

a)

It reduces the material sent to landfills

b)

It produces energy in the form of heat

c)

It can be used to produce electricity

d)

It neutralizes all of the toxic materials

131.

using a product or material that was intended to be discarded.

a)

Reconfigure

b)

Recycle

c)

Reduce

d)

Reuse

132.

What is the process of converting organic waste into a valuable soil amendment called?

a)

1. Incineration

b)

2. Land filing

c)

3. Composting

d)

4. Shredding

133.

A liquid that has passed through compacted solid waste

a)

oil

b)

leachate

c)

fertilizer

d)

battery acid

134.

The solid waste from hospital is classified as:

a)

  1. Hazardous

  2. 

b)

  1. Non-hazardous

  2. 

c)

  1. Compostable

d)

More than one of the above.

135.

Which of the following is false

a)

Energy is not needed for recycling

b)

Recycling encourages responsibility to sort out garbage

c)

Recycling reduces costs of processing solid waste

d)

You can get profits from selling recycled materials

136.

Select the three (3) types of fossil fuels.

a)

Coal

b)

Crude Oil

c)

Castor Oil

d)

Natural Gas

137.

Which two (2) colours can we find coal in?

a)

Red

b)

Brown

c)

Black

d)

Yellow

138.

What does viscosity mean?

a)

Thickness of Liquid

b)

Acidity of Liquid

c)

Temperature of Liquid

d)

Colour of Liquid

139.

Natural gas is mainly made up of which gas?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Methane

d)

Ozone

140.

Select the three (3) options below that crude oil can be used to make.

a)

Petrol

b)

Plastic

c)

Diesel

d)

Olive Oil

141.

Fossil fuels are my up of which two elements?

a)

Carbon and Nitrogen

b)

Carbon and Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen and Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen and Nitrogen

142.

What are two environmental problems directly caused by burning fossil fuels?

a)

Global Warming

b)

Flooding

c)

Acid Rain

d)

Soil Erosion

143.

Solar Energy is obtained from which source?

a)

Moving Water

b)

Sun

c)

Wind

d)

Underground Heat

144.

Hydroelectric Energy is obtained from which source?

a)

Sun

b)

Wind

c)

Moving Water

d)

Underground Heat

145.

Geothermal Energy is obtain from which source?

a)

Wind

b)

Underground Heat

c)

Wind

d)

Moving Water

146.

Coal, oil, and natural gas are fossil fuels.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

147.

Fossil fuels are presently the world’s primary energy source.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

148.

Mining is the process of extracting coal, oil, and natural gas from the ground.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

149.

Lignite is the highest-grade coal.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

150.

Fossil fuels are formed in an oxygen-rich environment.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

151.

Oil is an organic material mostly made from algae.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

152.

Natural gas is produced from sedimentary rock formation by forcing chemicals, water, and sand down a well under high pressure.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

153.

Anthracite coal has the lowest fixed carbon content compared to other types of coal.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

154.

Low pressures and temperature facilitate the formation of fossil fuel.

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

155.

Natural gas is the Earth’s cleanest fossil fuel

a)

FACT

b)

BLUFF

156.

In the recent past, humans have been looking for and trying out alternative sources of renewable energy to reduce dependence on fossil fuels. How can the energy from volcanoes be tapped for human use?

a)

The lava can be used for cooking.

b)

The energy from the magma can be used to heat water.

c)

Geothermal energy can be used to generate electricity.

d)

Geothermal energy can be tapped to produce steam used for heating showers.

157.

Which refers to the process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the earth surface?

a)

Hydrothermal energy

b)

Geothermal energy

c)

Solar energy

d)

Wave energy

158.

Where does geothermal energy come from?

a)

wind

b)

river

c)

sunlight

d)

heat from the earth

159.

What does it mean when we say that geothermal energy is sustainable?

a)

That it generates greenhouse gases

b)

That it will not be used up.

c)

That there is a limited supply.

d)

That it may cause global warming.

160.

What is the main disadvantage to building geothermal energy plants?

a)

pollution

b)

cost

c)

nuclear fallout

d)

global warming

161.

What potential environmental issue can occur when building a geothermal energy plant?

a)

the burning of fossil fuels

b)

water pollution from the chemicals

c)

toxic gases can be released when drilling

d)

all of the above

162.

What natural disaster could be potentially caused by geothermal power plants?

a)

earthquakes

b)

forest fire

c)

tornado

d)

flood

163.

Why is it that not all countries can benefit from geothermal energy?

a)

not all countries have enough water

b)

not all countries have volcanic activity

c)

geothermal plants produce a lot of pollution

d)

very few countries can afford to build geothermal plants

164.

Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of a geothermal plant?

I. It does not rely on imported fuel.

II. It uses the kinetic energy of running water.

III. It helps release sulfur dioxide back to the atmosphere.

IV. Compared to a coal-powered plant, a geothermal plant is less polluting to the environment.

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

I and II

d)

IV

165.

Which is NOT a geothermal steam field in the Philippines?

a)

Makban Geothermal Complex

b)

Tiwi Geothermal Complex

c)

Malitbog Geothermal Power Station

d)

Larderello Geothermal Steam Field

166.

Volcanic Energy is related to which type of energy?

a)

hydrothermal energy

b)

geothermal energy

c)

nuclear energy

d)

solar energy

167.

About 18% of the energy in the Philippines is harnessed using volcanic energy. Which of the following characteristics makes the country a good location in harnessing volcanic energy

a)

it has a lot of rainforests

b)

it is near the equator

c)

it is near the Pacific Ocean

d)

it has a lot of volcanoes

168.

Which of the following places in the Philippines can produce geothermal energy?

a)

Aurora, Baler

b)

Mak-Ban, Laguna

c)

Coron, Palawan

d)

Carmen, Bohol Island

169.

From the Greek word "geo" means Earth, thermal means (a)   .

170.

Which of the following best describes geothermal energy?

a)

It is the energy from the sun

b)

It is the heat coming from the body

c)

It is the heat or thermal energy that is stored deep within the Earth

d)

It is a non-renewable source of energy

171.

Which of the following is/are importance of geothermal energy?

a)

generates electricity

b)

great help for plantation

c)

provides heating for homes

d)

generates electricity and provides heating for homes

172.

Why is the Philippines considered as one of the world's top producer of geothermal energy?

a)

The Philippine archipelago is rich in natural resources

b)

The Philippine archipelago lies along the Pacific Ring of Fire

c)

The Philippine archipelago is rich in geothermal energy

d)

The Philippine archipelago lies along near the equator

173.

In which areas we can find the high geothermal energy?

a)

more volcano activities

b)

more beaches

c)

more plantations

d)

more factories

174.

Use the heat coming from close to the Earth’s surface to heat water or provide heat for buildings

a)

Geothermal Power Plants

b)

Geothermal Turbine

c)

Geothermal Heat Pumps

d)

Nuclear Turbine

175.

Heat from deep inside the Earth is used to produce steam to generate electricity

a)

Geothermal Power Plant

b)

Geothermal Turbine

c)

Geothermal Heat Pumps

d)

Nuclear Turbine

176.
Light does not reach the bottom of the ocean, yet certain species live there. Which best explains how species on the bottom of the ocean get energy to live?
a)
Algae and bacteria produce energy through photosynthesis.
b)
Hydrothermal vents produce energy through chemical reactions.
c)
Dead plants and animals produce energy through decomposition.
d)
Light comes from the core of the earth.
177.
Scientists have found strange new life-forms called “tubeworms” on the deep ocean bottom. Which most likely provides energy for the tubeworms?
a)
algae
b)
small fish
c)
photosynthesis
d)
hydrothermal vents
178.
Which ocean zone contains hydrothermal vents?
a)
Deep zone (abyss)
b)
Surface zone (sunlight)
c)
Shallow zone (twilight)
d)
Midnight zone
179.
Deep ocean technology has discovered organisms in hydrothermal vents that do not rely on sunlight to survive. What do these organisms use as their energy source?
a)
chemosynthesis
b)
electrical charge
c)
hydropower
d)
thermal heat
180.
Which is most likely to be the energy source for organisms living in hydrothermal vents?
a)
oxygen
b)
sunlight
c)
methane or sulfur
d)
carbon dioxide
181.
Which contributes most in supporting life on the deep ocean floor?
a)
cold water temperatures
b)
extreme water pressure
c)
hydrothermal vents
d)
lack of predators
182.
a)
Benthic & Aphotic zone
b)
Benthic & Photic zone
c)
Neritic & Aphotic zone
d)
Oceanic & Photic zone
183.

Which of the following statements about a closed system is not true?

a)

The resources used are regenerated.

b)

The amount of matter within a closed system is fixed.

c)

The waste produced cannot really be disposed.

184.

Which of the following refers to the sequence of transfers of matter and energy in the form of food from organism to organism in a single path?

a)

Food web

b)

Food cycle

c)

Fodd chain

185.

Which of the following is just a part of a sub system?

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Cryosphere

d)

Hydrosphere

186.

Which of the following gases contributes to the 21% of the earth's atmosphere?

a)

Argon

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Oxygen

187.

How do the biosphere and the atmosphere interact?

a)

Air contains water.

b)

Volcanic ash can enter the atmosphere.

c)

Living things need air to survive.

188.

Which of the following is not a photosynthetic organism?

a)

Algae

b)

Molds

c)

Cyanobacteria

d)

Plants

189.

Which of the following is not true about chemo-synthetic organisms?

a)

They use energy from sunlight to perform chemosythesis.

b)

They use of energy released by inorganic chemical reactions to produce food.

c)

They use energy from hydrothermal vents or methane seeps.

190.

What percentage of the Earth is covered with water?

a)

50%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

80%

191.

How do the geosphere and the hydrosphere interact?

a)

The geosphere stores parts of the hydrosphere.

b)

The geosphere erodes (shapes) the hydrosphere.

c)

The hydrosphere stores parts of the geosphere.

192.

How do the geosphere and the biosphere interact?

a)

Soil contains living parts.

b)

Water rains onto the geosphere.

c)

Bacteria is in the air.

193.

How do the biosphere and the hydrosphere interact?

a)

Air contains water.

b)

Living things need water to survive.

c)

Volcanic ash can enter the atmosphere.

d)

These two spheres do not interact.

194.

Which of the following represents nonpoint-source pollution?

a)

polluted wastewater from a chemical plant

b)

leaking oil tanker

c)

runoff from city streets

195.

Polluted groundwater is difficult to clean because

a)

pollutants cling to the materials that make up the aquifer and contaminate the clean water.

b)

the recycling process of groundwater can take hundreds of years.

c)

both of theses answers

196.

Most of the pollutants in the ocean come from

a)

commercial boats and personal watercraft.

b)

spills from oil tankers.

c)

activities on land.

197.

When neighborhood residents noticed a large number of dead fish in a local creek, they traced the problem to a nearby gas station. It turned out that a tank of gasoline had developed a leak. This is an example of

a)

point-source pollution.

b)

thermal pollution

c)

nonpoint-source pollution

198.

The effects of water pollution on ecosystems

a)

are always immediate and highly lethal

b)

result mostly from point-source pollution sources.

c)

can magnify over time within food chains.

199.

A true statement about aquifers is that

a)

their water levels remain stable because they recharge so rapidly

b)

they are hard to purify because the water collects in sand and rocks

c)

they are formed by underground rivers and leakage from deep lakes.

200.

Water pollution that washes into storm sewers from many places, such as parking lots and lawns, is known as ____________.

a)

point-source

b)

nonpoint-source

c)

pathogens

201.

Pollution discharged from a single source is called _________ pollution.

a)

organic

b)

pathogens

c)

point source

202.
When is the best time of day to water your lawn?
a)
Early morning or late evening
b)
In the afternoon
c)
All day long
d)
At night
203.

Which of these ways to wash the car saves the most water?

a)

Wash it in the driveway with the garden hose

b)

Let the hose run on it for days

c)

Take it through a car wash that recycles water

d)

Make your little brother wash it

204.
 True or False: It isn't important to save water because there is so much of it on Earth
a)
True
b)
False
205.
Which of these activities wastes the MOST water per day in the average home? 
a)
Running the tap while washing dishes 
b)
Using a garbage disposal
c)
A leaky toilet 
d)
Long showers 
206.
Why do we need to conserve water?
a)
It is an unlimited resource. 
b)
It is a limited resource. 
c)
There is a lot of water. 
d)
There is no need to conserve water.
207.
Why is clean water important?
a)
All life on Earth depends on clean water to live and grow.
b)
We need clean water for recreational activities.
c)
We need bodies of water for transportation
d)
We need water to regulate the temperature on Earth.
208.

How can we get to the groundwater so we can use it to drink and grow plants?

a)

We can't! The water is too deep.

b)

We can dig or drill a pipe into the aquifer.

209.

What percentage of the world's water is found in the Oceans?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

97%

e)

99%

210.

Any area that is a combination of land and water.

a)

Wetland

b)

Estuary

c)

Salt marsh

d)

Mudflat

211.

Many people who live on the Coastal Plain depend on what 2 things?

a)

sea

b)

weather

c)

bay

d)

plants

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