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Physical Science Chemistry Practice Final B

Total questions: 212

Worksheet time: 3hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Look at the picture. What is Lindsay doing that demonstrates safe or unsafe lab behavior?

a)

Drinking chemicals in the lab

b)

Hair is tied back, wearing goggles, and wearing safety apron

c)

Hair is not tied back around open flame

d)

Horseplaying in the lab

e)

While heating, test tube is pointed away from self and others

2.

Look at the picture. What is Sarah doing that demonstrates safe or unsafe lab behavior?

a)

Drinking chemicals in the lab

b)

Hair is tied back, wearing goggles, and wearing safety apron

c)

Hair is not tied back around open flame

d)

Horseplaying in the lab

e)

While heating, test tube is pointed away from self and others

3.

Look at the picture. What is Savannah doing that demonstrates safe or unsafe lab behavior?

a)

Drinking chemicals in the lab

b)

Hair is tied back, wearing goggles, and wearing safety apron

c)

Hair is not tied back around open flame

d)

Horseplaying in the lab

e)

While heating, test tube is pointed away from self and others

4.

Look at the picture. What is Will doing that demonstrates safe or unsafe lab behavior?

a)

Drinking chemicals in the lab

b)

Hair is tied back, wearing goggles, and wearing safety apron

c)

Hair is not tied back around open flame

d)

Horseplaying in the lab

e)

While heating, test tube is pointed away from self and others

5.

Look at the picture. What is Fredy doing that demonstrates safe or unsafe lab behavior?

a)

Drinking chemicals in the lab

b)

Hair is tied back, wearing goggles, and wearing safety apron

c)

Hair is not tied back around open flame

d)

Horseplaying in the lab

e)

Drinking from lab glassware during a lab

6.

Look at the picture. What is Evan doing that demonstrates safe or unsafe lab behavior?

a)

Drinking chemicals in the lab

b)

Hair is tied back, wearing goggles, and wearing safety apron

c)

Hair is not tied back around open flame

d)

Horseplaying in the lab

e)

Drinking from lab glassware during a lab

7.

What is a compound?

a)

A type of matter with fixed composition

b)

Two or more substances that can be separated

c)

A mixture that is not even throughout

d)

Two or more elements chemically combined together

8.

What is a substance?

a)

A type of matter with fixed composition

b)

Two or more substances that can be separated

c)

A mixture that is not even throughout

d)

Two or more elements chemically combined together

9.

What is an element?

a)

A substance made of atoms that are all alike

b)

Two or more substances that can be separated

c)

A mixture that is not even throughout

d)

Two or more elements chemically combined together

10.

What is a mixture?

a)

A substance made of atoms that are all alike

b)

Two or more substances that can be separated

c)

A mixture that is not even throughout

d)

Two or more elements chemically combined together

11.

What is a homogeneous mixture?

a)

A substance made of atoms that are all alike

b)

A mixture that is even throughout

c)

A mixture that is not even throughout

d)

Two or more elements chemically combined together

12.

What is a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

A substance made of atoms that are all alike

b)

A mixture that is even throughout

c)

A mixture that is not even throughout

d)

Two or more elements chemically combined together

13.

Which of the following is an example of a compound?

a)

NaCl (table salt)

b)

Hydrogen (H2)

c)

Tossed salad (lettuce, tomato, cucumber)

d)

Brass (pennies)

14.

Which of the following is an example of an element?

a)

NaCl (table salt)

b)

Hydrogen (H2)

c)

Tossed salad (lettuce, tomato, cucumber)

d)

Brass (pennies)

15.

Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?

a)

NaCl (table salt)

b)

Hydrogen (H2)

c)

Tossed salad (lettuce, tomato, cucumber)

d)

Brass (pennies)

16.

Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

NaCl (table salt)

b)

Hydrogen (H2)

c)

Tossed salad (lettuce, tomato, cucumber)

d)

Brass (pennies)

17.

What atomic structure does the letter A point to?

a)

electron

b)

electron cloud

c)

proton

d)

neutron

e)

nucleus

18.

What atomic structure does the letter B point to?

a)

electron

b)

electron cloud

c)

proton

d)

neutron

e)

nucleus

19.

What atomic structure does the letter C point to?

a)

electron

b)

electron cloud

c)

proton

d)

neutron

e)

nucleus

20.

What atomic structure does the letter D point to?

a)

electron

b)

electron cloud

c)

proton

d)

neutron

e)

nucleus

21.

What atomic structure does the letter E point to?

a)

electron

b)

electron cloud

c)

proton

d)

neutron

e)

nucleus

22.

What is the charge of a proton?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

23.

What is the charge of an electron?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

24.

What is the charge of a neutron?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

25.

What is the A pointing to?

a)

element name

b)

element symbol

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

26.

What is the B pointing to?

a)

element name

b)

element symbol

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

27.

What is the C pointing to?

a)

element name

b)

element symbol

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

28.

What is the D pointing to?

a)

element name

b)

element symbol

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

29.

On a periodic table, what is a group?

a)

element that is not shiny, malleable, ductile, and is a bad conductor of heat and electricity

b)

electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

c)

vertical column with the same number of valence electrons

d)

horizontal row with the same number of atomic orbitals

30.

On a periodic table, what is a period?

a)

element that is not shiny, malleable, ductile, and is a bad conductor of heat and electricity

b)

electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

c)

vertical column with the same number of valence electrons

d)

horizontal row with the same number of atomic orbitals

31.

On a periodic table, what is a nonmetal?

a)

element that is not shiny, malleable, ductile, and is a bad conductor of heat and electricity

b)

electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

c)

vertical column with the same number of valence electrons

d)

horizontal row with the same number of atomic orbitals

32.

On a periodic table, what is a metal?

a)

element that is shiny, malleable, ductile, and is a good conductor of heat and electricity

b)

electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

c)

element that shares some properties with metals and some with nonmetals

d)

horizontal row with the same number of atomic orbitals

33.

On a periodic table, what is a metalloid?

a)

element that is shiny, malleable, ductile, and is a good conductor of heat and electricity

b)

electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

c)

element that shares some properties with metals and some with nonmetals

d)

horizontal row with the same number of atomic orbitals

34.

What is a valence electron?

a)

element that is shiny, malleable, ductile, and is a good conductor of heat and electricity

b)

electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

c)

element that shares some properties with metals and some with nonmetals

d)

horizontal row with the same number of atomic orbitals

35.

What is an ionic bond?

a)

bond in which electrons are shared equally

b)

bond in which electrons are not shared equally

c)

bond in which electrons are transferred

d)

a measure of how good an atom is at attracting electrons

36.

What is a polar covalent bond?

a)

bond in which electrons are shared equally

b)

bond in which electrons are not shared equally

c)

bond in which electrons are transferred

d)

a measure of how good an atom is at attracting electrons

37.

What is a nonpolar covalent bond?

a)

bond in which electrons are shared equally

b)

bond in which electrons are not shared equally

c)

bond in which electrons are transferred

d)

a measure of how good an atom is at attracting electrons

38.

What is a electronegativity?

a)

bond in which electrons are shared equally

b)

bond in which electrons are not shared equally

c)

bond in which electrons are transferred

d)

a measure of how good an atom is at attracting electrons

39.

Use electronegativity values to determine what type of bond Li & O will form.

a)

ionic bond

b)

polar covalent bond

c)

nonpolar covalent

40.

Use electronegativity values to determine what type of bond C & O will form.

a)

ionic bond

b)

polar covalent bond

c)

nonpolar covalent

41.

Use electronegativity values to determine what type of bond H & H will form.

a)

ionic bond

b)

polar covalent bond

c)

nonpolar covalent

42.

What is the name of the polyatomic ionic compound NaOH?

a)

Calcium hydroxide

b)

Calcium oxide

c)

Sodium hydroxide

d)

Sodium oxide

43.

What is the name of the covalent compound CO2?

a)

Carbon oxide

b)

Monocarbon dioxide

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Monocarbon oxide

44.

What is the name of the binary ionic compound LiO?

a)

Lithium oxide

b)

lithium hydroxide

c)

Lithium nitride

d)

lithium fluoride

45.

What is the formula for the ionic compound sodium chloride?

a)

Na2Cl

b)

Na2Cl3

c)

NaCl

d)

NC

46.

What is the formula for the polyatomic ionic compound potassium cyanide?

a)

KCN

b)

PCN

c)

KC

d)

PN

47.

What is the formula for the covalent compound dihydrogen monoxide?

a)

HO

b)

HO2

c)

H2O2

d)

H2O

48.

In a chemical reaction, what is a reactant?

a)

the new substances formed

b)

the starting substance that reacts

c)

a chemical equation with the same number and type of elements on both sides of the equation

d)

the mass of reactants is the same as the mass of products

49.

In a chemical reaction, what is a product?

a)

the new substances formed

b)

the starting substance that reacts

c)

a chemical equation with the same number and type of elements on both sides of the equation

d)

the mass of reactants is the same as the mass of products

50.

In a chemical reaction, what is a balanced equation?

a)

the new substances formed

b)

the starting substance that reacts

c)

a chemical equation with the same number and type of elements on both sides of the equation

d)

the mass of reactants is the same as the mass of products

51.

What is the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

the new substances formed

b)

the starting substance that reacts

c)

a chemical equation with the same number and type of elements on both sides of the equation

d)

the mass of reactants is the same as the mass of products

52.

What numbers go in the blanks to balance the equation?

__CH4 + __O2 → __ CO2 + __H2O

a)

1, 2, 1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

3, 6, 9, 12

d)

1, 13, 53, 1

53.

What numbers go in the blanks to balance the equation?

__Fe2O3 + __C → __ Fe + __CO2

a)

1, 2, 1, 2

b)

2, 3, 4, 3

c)

3, 6, 9, 12

d)

2, 1, 2, 1

54.

What numbers go in the blanks to balance the equation?

__SnO2 + __H2 → __ Sn + __H2O

a)

1, 2, 1, 2

b)

1, 3, 3, 1

c)

1, 16, 16, 1

d)

2, 5, 4, 7

55.

What type of reaction is C10H8 + 12O2 → 10CO2 +4H2O?

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

56.

What type of reaction is CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2?

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

57.

What type of reaction is Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu?

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

58.

What type of reaction is NaCl + AgNO3 → NaNO3 + AgCl?

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

59.

What type of reaction is NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O?

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

e)

combustion

60.

What is the collision model?

a)

substance that speeds up a chemical reaction

b)

substance that slows down a chemical reaction

c)

states that particles must collide in order to react

61.

What is a catalyst?

a)

substance that speeds up a chemical reaction

b)

substance that slows down a chemical reaction

c)

states that particles must collide in order to react

62.

What is an inhibitor?

a)

substance that speeds up a chemical reaction

b)

substance that slows down a chemical reaction

c)

states that particles must collide in order to react

63.

If you decrease the temperature of a reaction, what will happen to the reaction rate?

a)

rate will increase

b)

rate will decrease

c)

rate will stay the same

d)

unknown

64.

If you increase concentration of a reaction, what will happen to the reaction rate?

a)

rate will increase

b)

rate will decrease

c)

rate will stay the same

d)

unknown

65.

If you decrease the volume of a reaction, what will happen to the reaction rate?

a)

rate will increase

b)

rate will decrease

c)

rate will stay the same

d)

unknown

66.

If you increase the surface area of a reaction, what will happen to the reaction rate?

a)

rate will increase

b)

rate will decrease

c)

rate will stay the same

d)

unknown

67.

What is a solution?

a)

The amount of solute that can be dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a specific temperature

b)

The substance being dissolved

c)

The substance doing the dissolving

d)

A solute and solvent mixed together

68.

What is a solute?

a)

The amount of solute that can be dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a specific temperature

b)

The substance being dissolved

c)

The substance doing the dissolving

d)

A solute and solvent mixed together

69.

What is a solvent?

a)

The amount of solute that can be dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a specific temperature

b)

The substance being dissolved

c)

The substance doing the dissolving

d)

A solute and solvent mixed together

70.

What is solubility?

a)

The amount of solute that can be dissolved in a specific amount of solvent at a specific temperature

b)

The substance being dissolved

c)

The substance doing the dissolving

d)

A solute and solvent mixed together

71.

What is volume?

a)

The distance around a 3D object

b)

The amount of space that matter takes up

c)

The amount of space on the surface of a 3D object

72.

_______________is the amount of matter in an object.

a)

mass

b)

volume

c)

weight

73.

Unit of length

a)

Liter

b)

Meter

c)

Gram

74.
Basic unit of Mass
a)
Meter
b)
Liter
c)
Gram
75.
What is the factor that an experimenter changes on purpose?
a)
Dependent Variable
b)
Independent Variable
c)
Constant
d)
Control
76.
What is a factor that is measured for change in an experiment?
a)
control
b)
constant
c)
independent variable
d)
dependent variable
77.
The part of the experiment that does not contain the independent variable. Used for comparison.
a)
Control Group
b)
Experimental Group
c)
Results
d)
Data
78.
What are all the things that are kept the same in an experiment?
a)
controls
b)
data
c)
constants
d)
independent variables
79.
What is the effect of salt water on the average of the height of the 3 tallest blades of grass?
What is the independent variable in the above question?
a)
salt water
b)
height
c)
average
d)
effect
80.
There are two types of data. Which type of data involves numbers that are obtained by counting or measuring?
a)
quantitative
b)
qualitative
81.
A series of steps used by scientists to solve a problem or answer a question. 
a)
scientific method
b)
recipe
c)
metric system
82.
If I study for my scientific methods quiz, then I will have a better test score. What is the DEPENDENT VARIABLE?
a)
Test score
b)
Studying
c)
Independent variable
83.
Mia sets up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp.  Identify the INDEPENDENT VARIABLE:
a)
distance traveled by the ball
b)
mass of the ball
84.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

A hypothesis is the right answer to an experiment.

b)

A hypothesis is the wrong answer to an experiment.

c)

A hypothesis is an educated guess about what you think will happen.

85.
What step does every scientific experiment begin with?
a)
hypothesis
b)
question/problem
c)
procedures
d)
conclusion
86.
Which of the following would be considered QUANTITATIVE data?
a)
Color
b)
Smell
c)
6.84 cm
d)
texture
87.

How close a measurement is to the accepted value is called..

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Significant

d)

Estimate

88.
When a measurement is repeatable and consistent it is said to have...
a)
High precision
b)
Low precision
c)
High accuracy
d)
Low accuracy
89.

What does this bullseye demonstrate?

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

90.

What does this bullseye demonstrate?

a)

High Accuracy & High Precision

b)

High Accuracy & Low Precision

c)

Low Accuracy & High Precision

d)

Low Accuracy & Low Precision

91.

Students measured length during a science experiment and got 12 cm. But the actual measurement was 14.25 cm. What was the percent error?

a)

15.79%

b)

18.75%

c)

2.25%

d)

18%

92.
The deer population is estimated to be 17,600 in northern Illinois, but an actual count was 21,300. What is the percent error?
a)
21%
b)
17.37%
c)
17.4%
d)
21.02%
93.
The attendance for the basketball game was estimated to be 15,000 people but 12,500 people attended. What was the percent error?
a)
16.67%
b)
20%
c)
2500%
d)
80%
94.

Comparing the two numbers written in scientific notation, which number is larger 6.0 X 10 -3 or 6.0 X 10 -2

a)

6.0 X 10 -3

b)

6.0 X 10 -2

c)

both have the same value

95.

A zero percent error in a lab is accomplished by...

a)

having a really good measuring device

b)

making sure all the steps in a procedure are being followed

c)

getting the exact result as the expected result in a lab

d)

rounding numbers to zero

96.

Students worked in teams to measure the length of an object. Their results are listed below. The actual length of the object was 7.0 cm. Select the best choice that represents their data in terms of accuracy and precision

GROUP RESULTS

5.00 cm

5.01 cm

5.02cm

4.99 cm

5.00 cm

4.99 cm

a)

both accurate and precise

b)

only accurate

c)

only precise

d)

not accurate and not precise

97.
What measurement are we finding when we use a graduated cylinder?
a)
mass
b)
volume
c)
length
d)
weight 
98.
What tool can you use to find out how the mass of a pencil compares to the mass of a pen?
a)
balance
b)
meter stick
c)
thermometer
d)
measuring tape
99.
What is the name of Group 1?
a)
Alkali Metals
b)
Alkali Earth Metals
c)
Transition Metals
d)
Halogens
100.
What is the name of Group 2?
a)
Alkali Metals
b)
Alkali Earth Metals
c)
Transition Metals
d)
Halogens
101.
What is the name of Groups 3-12?
a)
Alkali Metals
b)
Alkali Earth Metals
c)
Transition Metals
d)
Halogens
102.
What is the name of Groups 17?
a)
Alkali Metals
b)
Alkali Earth Metals
c)
Transition Metals
d)
Halogens
103.
What is the name of Groups 18?
a)
Alkali Metals
b)
Alkali Earth Metals
c)
Halogens
d)
Noble Gases
104.
Where are the metals on the Periodic Table?
a)
To the left
b)
In the upper right hand corner
c)
On the zigzag line
d)
At the bottom
105.
Where are the metals on the Periodic Table?
a)
To the left
b)
In the upper right hand corner
c)
On the zigzag line
d)
At the bottom
106.
Where are the nonmetals on the Periodic Table?
a)
To the left
b)
In the upper right hand corner
c)
On the zigzag line
d)
At the bottom
107.
Where are the metalloids on the Periodic Table?
a)
To the left
b)
In the upper right hand corner
c)
On the zigzag line
d)
At the bottom
108.
What is the name for the bottom two rows of the table that have been removed?
a)
Alkali Metals
b)
Alkali Earth Metals
c)
Transition Metals
d)
Lanthanides and Actinides
109.
Which atom has the largest atomic radius?
a)
potassium
b)
rubidium 
c)
francium
d)
cesium
110.

Which of the following would be most similar to Phosphorus? (select all that apply)

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Sulfur

c)

Silicon

d)

Germanium

e)

Antimony

111.

Which of these elements are a Non-Metal?

a)

Copper

b)

Gold

c)

Oxygen

112.

Some metals are m (a)   , which means the can be hammered into different shapes.

113.

Non-metals are insulators, this means electricity ______ flow through them.

a)

can

b)

cannot

114.
Brittle
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
115.
How do metals differ from nonmetals?
a)
metals are shiny, nonmetals are dull
b)
metals are good insulators, nonmetals are good conductors
c)
metals are powdery
d)
nonmetals are shiny
116.
What are the three major categories of the periodic table?
a)
Alpha, Beta & Gamma
b)
Metals, Non-Metals and Metalloids
c)
Metals, Semi-metals and Metalloids
d)
Non-Metals, Semi-Metals and Metalloids
117.
Which of the following is a good conductor of heat?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
118.

A positively charged particle found in the nucleus is called a

a)

neutron.

b)

proton.

c)

electron.

d)

positron.

119.

Electrons can best be described as having a

a)

large size, positive charge.

b)

very small size, positive charge.

c)

large size, negative charge.

d)

very small size, negative charge.

120.

Electrons are subatomic particles that exist

a)

inside the nucleus.

b)

in simultaneous dimensions.

c)

in parallel universes.

d)

outside the nucleus.

121.

Which of these has a positive charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

protons and neutrons

122.

Which of these has the least mass at almost 0 amu?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

protons and neutrons

123.

Which answer below is correct?

a)

A is negative; B is positive; C is neutral

b)

A is neutral; B is positive; C is negative

c)

A is positive; B is neutral; C is negative

d)

A is negative; B is neutral; C is positive

124.

Which statement is true?

a)

A proton is the same size as an electron but smaller than a neutron.

b)

An electron is the same size as a proton and bigger than a neutron.

c)

A neutron is the same size as a proton and much bigger than an electron.

d)

A neutron is the same size as a proton but much smaller than an electron.

125.

Which of the following is a chemical property?

a)

Crystal formation

b)

Ductility

c)

Colour

d)

Reaction to heat

126.

Which of the following is a physical property?

a)

Ability to burn

b)

Reaction with acids

c)

Flash point

d)

Solubility

127.

Classify the following example of matter:

Oxygen gas ( O2O_2 ) 

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous mixture

d)

Heterogeneous mixture

128.
Which of the following can only be observed when it is changing composition?
a)
chemical property
b)
physical property
129.

1.Particles cannot change position in a ________

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

130.
This picture represents which of the following?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
131.
A mixture in which different materials can be identified easily
a)
element
b)
heterogeneous mixture
c)
homogeneous mixture
d)
solution
132.

This state of matter has a constant volume, but fits the space of the container holding it.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

133.

Atoms or molecules in this state of matter have the lowest energy.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

134.

Heating a solid to a high temperature will usually result in this phase change.

a)

Condensation

b)

Melting

c)

Sublimation

d)

Evaporation

135.
Type of intermolecular force present in HF.
a)
dipole dipole
b)
dispersion
c)
H-bond
d)
ionic
136.
Intermolecular forces are the forces
a)
within molecules
b)
between molecules
137.

Ethanol and water have different boiling point. What would be the suitable separation technique for a mixture of both substances?

a)

Distillation

b)

Chromatography paper

c)

Sieving

138.

Dirt

a)

Heterogeneous

b)

Homogeneous

139.

The pigment responsible for the colour of spinach leaves are several substances. How can you separate them?

a)

sieving

b)

decanting

c)

paper chromatography

140.
Air
a)
Heterogeneous
b)
Homogeneous
141.

Are made from a combination of 2 or more elements in a constant ratio...

a)

Atom

b)

Mixture

c)

Compounds

d)

Elements

142.
Another name for a homogeneous mixture is 
a)
an element.
b)
a solution.
c)
a compound.
143.

Type of mixture that DOESN'T HAVE the same composition in every part.

a)

Homogeneous

b)

Heterogeneous

144.
Kool-Aid - Powder, sugar, and water
Identify the solvent 
a)
water
b)
powder
c)
sugar
d)
powder and sugar
145.
Combination of two or more pure substances that are not chemically combined
a)
compound          
b)
atom
c)
mixture 
d)
element
146.
Conduct electricity when melted or dissolved in water.
a)
ionic compounds
b)
molecular compounds
147.
Formed when a non-metal shares electrons with another non-metal.
a)
ionic compound
b)
molecular compound
148.
Formed when positively charged metal ions attract negatively charged non-metal ions.
a)
ionic compounds
b)
molecular compounds
149.
An atom, or a group of atoms that has an electrical charge, either positive or negative.
a)
electron
b)
ion
c)
nucleus
d)
orbital
150.
Which of the following forms an ionic compound?
a)
a metal and another metal
b)
a non-metal and another non-metal
c)
a metal and a non-metal
d)
a covalent bond
151.
NaCl is a(n) 
a)
ionic compound
b)
molecular compound
152.
MgO is a(n)
a)
ionic compound
b)
molecular compound
153.
CH4 is a(n)
a)
ionic compound
b)
molecular compound
154.
Which of the following is an ionic compound?
a)
CCl4
b)
CO
c)
MgO
d)
CH4
155.
Which of the following is a molecular compound?
a)
CaO
b)
NaCl
c)
CaCl2
d)
CH4
156.
MgCl2
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
c)
Polyatomic Ion
d)
Metallic 
157.
Which following is a nonmetal?
a)
Se
b)
Mn
c)
Na
d)
Be
158.
What is the best name for the positively charged ion?
a)
cation
b)
anion
c)
metal
d)
nonmetal
159.
Molecular compounds contain
a)
1 metal and 1 nonmetal
b)
only metals
c)
only nonmetals
d)
more than 2 elements (either metal or nonmetal)
160.
If magnesium binds with oxygen, what compound forms? (use your periodic table)
a)
MgO
b)
Mg₂O
c)
Mg₂O₂
d)
MgO₂
161.
Which of the following forms an ionic compound?
a)
a metal and another metal
b)
a non-metal and another non-metal
c)
a metal and a non-metal
d)
a covalent bond
162.
PH3 is a(n)
a)
ionic compound
b)
molecular compound
163.

When metals bond with non-metals they form what type of bonds

a)

molecular

b)

ionic

c)

cooperative

d)

lewis

164.
Name this compound: 
KF
a)
Potassium fluoride
b)
Potassium fluorite
c)
Fluorine potasside 
d)
Potassium fluorate
165.
The chemical formula of carbon tetrachloride is
a)
CCl
b)
C₄Cl
c)
CCl₄
d)
C(IV)Cl
166.
carbon monoxide
a)
CO
b)
CO2
c)
C2O
d)
COH
167.

What is the name of PBr3

a)

phosphorus tribromide

b)

phosphorus bromide

c)

phosphorus (III) bromide

d)

phosphorus bromine

168.

What is the name of KOH

a)

potassium oxygen hydrogen

b)

potassium monoxygen monohydride

c)

potassium hydroxide

d)

potassium hydride

169.

LiBr is called

a)

lithium bromine

b)

lithium (I) bromine

c)

lithium bromide

d)

lithuim (I) bromide

170.

What is the name for SiCl4?

a)

silicon tetrachloride

b)

silicon quadchloride

c)

monosilicon tetrachloride

d)

silicon chloride

171.

A binary compound is composed of two ..........................

a)

elements

b)

compounds

c)

mixtures

172.
Chemical reactions occur when _________ are broken and new bonds are formed.
a)
mixtures
b)
osteoclasts
c)
physical bonds
d)
chemical bonds
173.

Why must chemical equations be balanced?

a)

So that the equation doesn't explode

b)

The reaction won't happen until it is balanced

c)

Based on the Law of Conservation of Matter, matter cannot be created or destroyed.

d)

Based on the Law of Conservation of Energy, energy cannot be created or destroyed.e

174.

The products of a reaction have the same ________as the reactants.

a)

molecule

b)

atoms

c)

subscripts

d)

coefficients

175.
How many atoms of aluminum are on each side of the following equation: 4Al + 3O2 --> 2Al2 O3
a)
2
b)
6
c)
1
d)
4
176.
The substances listed on the right side of a chemical equation are the
a)
Yields
b)
Reactants
c)
Products
d)
Precipitates
177.
How many HCl molecules do you need to balance this equation? 
Mg +  __HCl --->  MgCl2 + H2
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
178.
Which number should go in the blank?
_ H2 + O2 -> 2 H2O
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
0
179.

Which type of chemical reaction has two or more reactants to make one product?

a)

combustion

b)

single displacement

c)

double displacement

d)

synthesis

e)

decomposition

180.

Identify the following chemical reaction.

Pb + FeSO4 ----> PbSO4 + Fe

a)

Synthesis (or combination)

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single displacement

d)

Double displacement

181.

Combustion reactions will always involve

a)

Oxygen and a solid

b)

Liquid nitrogen and heat

c)

Oxygen and heat/energy

d)

CO and H2O

182.

What type of reaction involves the breaking down of a substance into simpler substances?

a)

Single Displacement Reaction

b)

Double Displacement Reaction

c)

Synthesis Reaction

d)

Decomposition Reaction

183.
Which of the following symbols is not a correct indication of the phase of a substance in a reaction? 
a)
(s)=solid
b)
(g)=grams
c)
(l)=liquid
d)
(aq)= aqueous
184.
What is the molar mass of Mg3N2?
a)
191.6 g/mol
b)
76.64 g/mol
c)
38.32 g/mol
d)
100.95 g/mol
185.
What is the mass of one mole of Al2(SO4)3?
a)
75.04 g
b)
342.14 g 
c)
75.04 mol
d)
342.14 mol
186.
How many moles of carbon atoms are there in 5g of carbon?
a)
60 mol
b)
17 mol
c)
0.42 mol
d)
7 mol
187.
How many molecules are present in 69.0 moles of SrO?
a)
4.16x1025molecules
b)
8.72x1021molecules
c)
7,149.78 molecules
d)
6,893.32 molecules
188.
How many molecules are present in 25 g of NaBr?
a)
102.96 molecules
b)
0.24 molecules
c)
1.45x1023 molecules
d)
2.34 x 1020molecules
189.

Which type of reaction is:

4 (NH4)3PO4 + 3 Pb(NO3)4 → 12 NH4NO3 + Pb3(PO4)4

a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Displacement
d)
Double Displacement
190.

What happens to the equilibrium if we add methane (CH4)?

a)

It shifts left, towards the reactants

b)

It shifts right, towards the products

c)

It does not shift

191.

What happens to the equilibrium if we remove carbon monoxide (CO)?

a)

It shifts left, towards the reactants

b)

It shifts right, towards the products

c)

It does not shift

192.

What happens when sulfur trioxide (SO3) is added?

a)

The reaction shifts left, towards the reactants

b)

The reaction shifts right, towards the products

c)

The reaction does not shift

193.
Why does a catalyst increase the rate of reaction?
a)
it produces extra energy for the reactants
b)
it increases the speed of the reactant particles
c)
it increases the frequency of particle collisions
d)
it reduces the activation energy of the reaction 
194.
Which of the following increase the reaction rate?
a)
less surface area
b)
lower temperature
c)
an inhibitor
d)
increased concentration
195.
Why don't all collisions between particles cause a reaction?
a)
the particles also need to collide with a catalyst
b)
not all the particles collide with enough energy
c)
not all the particles collide at a high enough temperature
d)
the particles need to collide with each other twice
196.
Which factors increase the rate of a reaction.
a)
increasing temperature
b)
increasing concentration
c)
increasing surface area
d)
all of these
197.

A substance is found to have the following characteristics:


Very bitter taste

Feels slippery to the touch

Produces OH- ions when dissolved in water


In what category would the substance be classified?

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

enzyme

d)

fatty acid

198.

HNO2

a)

a base

b)

a salt

c)

an acid

d)

an ionic compound

199.
Releases hydrogen in an aqueous solution.
a)
base
b)
strong base
c)
acid
d)
weak base
200.

Bases have a pH of

a)

7

b)

Less than 7

c)

More than 7

201.

Which of the following pH values represents a base?

a)

2.1

b)

4.6

c)

6.8

d)

8.1

202.

Ocean water is only slightly basic. What might its pH value be?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

12

d)

2

203.

If two objects have different temperatures when they come in contact, heat will flow from the warmer object to the cooler one UNTIL ____________

a)

one reaches a temperature of zero

b)

they both have an equal temperature

c)

one runs out of energy

204.

For a skillet, used for cooking, do you want a high or low specific heat

a)

High, so that it will need more energy to heat up

b)

Low, so that it will change temperature quickly

205.
A reaction is performed in a beaker with a temperature probe recording the temperature changes of the reaction.  If the temperature began at 15.0 degrees Celsius and ended at 27.5 degrees Celsius. Is the reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Exothermic
b)
Endothermic
206.
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every kilogram is called____?
a)
Thermal Energy
b)
Specific Heat
c)
Temperature
d)
Kinetic Energy
207.

A metal cube at temperature of 70°C is immersed in water at temperature of 20°C. The metal _______ heat while the water __________ heat.

a)

gains, loses

b)

loses, gains

208.
The SI unit of heat and energy is the __________.
a)
calorie
b)
heat
c)
joule
d)
watt
209.

What does "q" mean?

a)

A measure of heat energy

b)

A change in heat energy

c)

A measure of kinetic energy

d)

A change in temperature

210.

What does ΔT\Delta T  represent?

a)

tf −tit_{f\ }-t_i  

b)

ti −tft_{i\ }-t_f  

c)

t - celsius

d)

celsius - t

211.

When is your answer negative?

a)

When the sample is cooled or loses heat energy.

b)

When the sample heats up or gains heat energy.

c)

When the sample absorbs heat energy.

212.
If 200 grams of water is to be heated from 24.0° C to  100.0° C to make a cup of tea, what is the mass and what is the change in temperature?
a)
m=100g,  ∆t= 224 C
b)
m=200g,  ∆t=124 C
c)
m=100g,  ∆t=24 C
d)
m=200g,  ∆t=76 C

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