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Final Review As Marine

Total questions: 213

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A condition in an experiment that can be controlled or changed

a)

hypothesis

b)

variable

c)

Independent variable

d)

Dependent variable

2.

A group within an experiment or study that receives exactly the same treatment as the experimental groups with the exception of the variable being tested

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Control Variable

d)

Control Group

3.

A result or observation that deviates from what is normal or expected. In experimental results, it normally refers to one repeated result that does not fit the pattern of the others

a)

reliale

b)

anomaly

c)

prediction

d)

hypothesis

4.

A variable that could affect the dependent variable. In laboratory experiments these are the variables that must be controlled. In field experiments they are normally just measured and recorded

a)

independent variable

b)

dependent variable

c)

control variable

d)

confounding variable

5.

A well-substantiated explanation of an aspect of the natural world that has been repeatedly tested and confirmed through observation and experimentation

a)

theory

b)

refute

c)

hypothesis

d)

variable

6.

Amy wanted to test the effect of phosphorus concentration on algal blooms. She decided to create 5 water environments, 1 with concentration of P equal to the lake during summer, 1 with 5 ppm less that normal conditions, 1 with 10 ppm less than normal conditions, 1 with 5 ppm more than normal and 1 with 10 ppm more than normal. She gave each container 10 liters of water in a tank, placed them in the sun outside.

Identify the control group.

a)

Phosphorus levels

b)

Algal Blooms

c)

10 L of water in each tank in the sun

d)

Water environment with concentration equal to the lake during summer

7.

An explanation of an observation that can be tested through experimentation

a)

theory

b)

refute

c)

hypothesis

d)

data

8.

Descriptive data about a variable, for example colour or behaviour

a)

Quantitative Data

b)

Qualitative Data

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Observation

9.

Identify the dependent variable.

The effect of temperature on the growth of algae.

a)

temperature

b)

algae type

c)

algae growth

d)

heat

10.

Identify the independent variable

Phytoplankton will grow more rapidly with high light levels.

a)

Amount of Phytoplankton

b)

Light levels

c)

Amount of Water

d)

Type of Phytoplankton

11.

Logical interpretation based on prior knowledge or experience

a)

inference

b)

observation

c)

prediction

d)

hypothesis

12.

Numerical data that give the quantity, amount or range of a variable, for example concentration of oxygen or number of eggs laid

a)

Quantitative Data

b)

Qualitative Data

c)

Prediction

d)

Graphs

13.

Process of gathering info about events or processes in an orderly way: uses ALL senses

a)

inference

b)

observation

c)

hypothesis

d)

anomaly

14.

Results that can be replicated by other people

a)

prediction

b)

quantitative data

c)

reliable

d)

anomaly

15.

Statement of the expected results in an experiment based on the hypothesis being tested

a)

prediction

b)

hypothesis

c)

theory

d)

refute

16.

Submitting evidence that shows that a hypothesis is not correct

a)

theory

b)

refute

c)

hypothesis

d)

independent variable

17.

Variable being changed in an experiment

a)

hypothesis

b)

variable

c)

independent variable

d)

dependent variable

18.

Variable being measured in an experiment

a)

hypothesis

b)

variable

c)

independent variable

d)

dependent variable

19.

Variables that are not being tested but that must be kept the same in case they affect the experiment

a)

Independent Variable

b)

hypothesis

c)

control variable

d)

control group

20.

What type of data is listed below.

Fire corals have a bright yellow-green and brown skeletal covering and are widely distributed in tropical and subtropical waters.

a)

Qualitativa Data

b)

Quantitative Data

c)

Useless Data

d)

Fire Corals are our friends

21.

A Chemical That Provides What Is Needed For Organisms To Live And Grow

a)

Reservoir

b)

Nutrient

c)

Abiotic

d)

Run-off

22.

What is each individual coral organism known as?

a)

Colony

b)

Polyp

c)

Anemone

d)

Cnidaria

23.

The classification of the species within living organisms from domain to species.

a)

Taxonomic hierarchy

b)

Binomial nomenclature

c)

Dichotomous key

d)

Kingdoms

24.

Ice forms a crystal lattice structure due to ___ bonds.

a)

hydrogen

b)

covalent

c)

ionic

25.

Electrons involved in chemical bonding.

a)

valence

b)

ionic

c)

covalent

d)

metallic

26.

A hypothesis cannot become a theory.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What is the difference between an experimental group & a control group?

a)

The independent variable is manipulated in the experimental group

b)

The experimental group receives the placebo

c)

The dependent variable is manipulated in the control group

d)

The independent variable is manipulated in the control group

28.
A[n] ___________ tide occurs when the sun, Earth, and the moon are nearly in a line. 
a)
spring
b)
high
c)
low
d)
neap
29.

Which features can lead to the formation of volcanoes? (Check ALL that apply!!)

a)

Transform Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Convergent Boundary

d)

Hot Spots

30.

Relationship in which the host and symbiont are both benefitting

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

31.

Relationship in which the host and symbiont are both benefitting

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

32.

A tapeworm lives in the intestine of a cat absorbing nutrients through its skin. A tapeworm and a cat have this type of relationship.

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

competition

33.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
34.
How do living organisms return carbon to the atmosphere in the carbon cycle?
a)
respiration and photosynthesis
b)
 decomposition and respiration
35.
What does not produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
36.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
37.
The efficiency of energy transfer from a lower trophic level to the next highest level is roughly
a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
100%
d)
1000%
38.
The arrows in a food chain or web represents what?
a)
They point to the organism that is being eaten.
b)
It shows how sunlight flows within an ecosystem.
c)
They show what direction the energy is flowing between organisms. 
d)
They represent how water is transferred within a habitat.
39.
Organisms that do not decompose can be buried and become what?
a)
water
b)
nutrients
c)
air
d)
fossil fuels
40.

If a primary consumer has 650 kcals of energy available to them in the producers they eat, how many kcals of energy (on average) make it into the primary consumer trophic level?

a)

6.5

b)

65000

c)

650

d)

65

41.

What is 20% of 50?

a)

40

b)

5

c)

10

d)

20

42.
Biomass refers to
a)
Chemical Energy
b)
Light Energy
c)
Rank in the feeding heirarchy
d)
Amount of living tissue in an ecosystem
43.

When would you make a line graph?

a)

number of lemurs in Forests A, B, and C

b)

number of lemurs in forest areas 0, 5, 10, and 15 miles from an urban city

44.

A lion that eats a zebra that eats grass is a

a)

primary consumer

b)

secondary consumer

c)

tertiary consumer

d)

quaternary consumer

45.

Which of the following is an example of a community?

a)

An individual giant kelp

b)

A kelp forest, plus all of the physical factors affecting it

c)

All physical factors affecting a kelp forest

d)

A kelp forest plus all organisms living in it

e)

Several giant kelp individuals living in one particular area

46.

True or False: Photosynthesis only occurs in the sunlit portion of the ocean (the photic zone) but respiration occurs at all depths.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

47.

Plankton that photosynthesizes:

a)

Phytoplankton

b)

Zooplankton

48.

The diagram provided shows a marine food chain. In this food chain, the zooplankton are

a)

primary producers.

b)

primary consumers.

c)

secondary consumers.

d)

tertiary consumers.

49.

What happens as you move higher in the energy pyramid?

a)

more organisms

b)

fewer organisms

c)

number of organisms does not change

d)

organisms die

50.
What does a Primary Consumer eat?
a)
Tertiary Consumers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Producers
51.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
52.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
53.
Look at the image
What substances and organelle work together to absorb sunlight to perform photosynthesis in this example?
a)
cell wall and chloroplast
b)
mitochondria and water
c)
vacuole and carbon dioxide
d)
chloroplast and chlorophyll
54.
In this energy pyramid, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
55.

All food webs and food chains begin with _________________.

a)

primary consumer

b)

producers

c)

secondary consumers

d)

tertiary consumers

56.

In an ecological pyramid, which type of organism always has the least amount of energy available?

a)

Producers

b)

Herbivores

c)

Carnivores

d)

Apex Predator

57.

If there are 100 Kcal of energy available in the producers, how much energy would be available in the primary consumers?

a)

10 Kcal

b)

1 Kcal

c)

100 Kcal

d)

1000 Kcal

58.

One living thing that uses bacteria fueled by the energy of chemosynthesis includes:

a)

giant tube worms

b)

snails

c)

sea slugs

d)

eels

59.

18H2S + 6CO2 + 3O2 → C6H12O6 (glucose) + 12H2O + 18S

This equation is showing:

a)

respiration

b)

chemosynthesis

c)

photosynthesis

d)

respiration

60.

Which environment(s) is most likely to have chemosynthesis occur? Choose all that are correct.

a)
b)
c)
d)
61.

The main difference between photosynthesis and chemosynthesis is:

a)

Photosynthesis gives off carbon doxide, while chemosynthesis gives off oxygen

b)

photosynthesis happens in the dark, while chemosynthesis happens in light

c)

photosynthesis uses chemicals (hydrogen sulfide) to make food, while chemosynthesis uses light

d)

chemosynthesis uses chemicals (hydrogen sulfide) to make food, while photosynthesis uses sunlight

62.

Which of the following is NOT true for both photosynthesis and chemosynthesis?

a)

They both use carbon dioxide

b)

they both use sunlight

c)

They both produce sugars

63.

Chemosynthesis occurs at hydrothermal vents, which can be found at

a)

convergent boundaries

b)

divergent boundaries

64.
Glucose (sugar) is an example of a
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
65.
Which subunits make up the structure of all proteins?
a)
glucose
b)
amino acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
fatty acids
66.

Carbohydrates are made up of

a)

amino acids

b)

sugars

c)

lipds

d)

proteins

67.

Bones, shells, and coral skeletons are composed of molecules containing

a)

nitrogen

b)

calcium

c)

magnesium

68.

Which two nutrients are both used to make DNA?

a)

calcium and nitrogen

b)

phosphorus and nitrogen

c)

calcium and phosphorus

d)

magnesium and calcium

69.

Which is important in the production of chlorophyll?

a)

magnesium

b)

calcium

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

70.

A Chemical That Provides What Is Needed For Organisms To Live And Grow

a)

Reservoir

b)

Nutrient

c)

Abiotic

d)

Run-off

71.

Bacteria And Fungi That Break Down Dead Organic Matter And Release The Nutrients Back into The Environment

a)

Upwelling

b)

Nutrient Cycles

c)

Assimilation

d)

Decomposers

72.

Part of The Abiotic Phase Of The Nutrient Cycle Where Nutrients Can Remain For Long Periods Of Time

a)

Reservoir

b)

Abiotic

c)

Leaching

d)

Infiltration

73.

The Flow Of Water From Land Caused By Precipitation

a)

Source

b)

Run-Off

c)

Diazotroph

d)

Marine Snow

74.

The Movement And Exchange Of Elements That Are Essential To Life

a)

Upwelling

b)

Infiltration

c)

Nutrient cycles

d)

Dissociation

75.

Living Parts Of An Ecosystem, Which Includes The Organisms And Their Effects On Each Other

a)

Abiotic

b)

Biotic

c)

Marine snow

d)

Saprophytic

76.

Movement Of Cold, Nurtient-Rich Water From Deep In The Ocean To The Surface

a)

Upwelling

b)

Assimilation

c)

Abiotic

d)

Sink

77.

The Environment's Geological, Physical And Chemical Features, The Non-Living Part Of an Ecosystem

a)

Diazotroph

b)

Source

c)

Sink

d)

Abiotic

78.

Conversion Of A Nutrient Into A Usable Form That Can Be Incorporated Into The Tissue Of An Organism

a)

Marine snow

b)

Residence time

c)

Assimilation

d)

Leaching

79.

The Average Time That A Particle Spends In A Particular System

a)

Residence time

b)

Source

c)

Dissociation

d)

Infiltration

80.

Part Of The Water Cycle Where Water Soaks Into The Soil From Ground Level And moves Underground

a)

Leaching

b)

Source

c)

Sink

d)

Infiltration

81.

Process During Which Water-Soluble Nutrients Are removed From The Soil And Dissolve In Water That Is Flowing To The Sea

a)

Leaching

b)

Source

c)

Dissociation

d)

Sink

82.

Particles Of Organic Material That Fall From Surface Waters To The Deeper Ocean

a)

Dissociation

b)

Marine snow

c)

Diazotroph

d)

Saprophytic

83.

Decomposers That Feed On Dead Organic Matter

a)

Diazotroph

b)

Sink

c)

Saprophytic

d)

Source

84.

Area Where There Is A Net Loss

a)

Infiltration

b)

Sink

c)

Diazotroph

d)

Dissociation

85.

Reversible Chemical Change Where The Molecule Of A Single Compound Separate Into Two Or More Other Substances

a)

Saprophytic

b)

Source

c)

Diazotroph

d)

Dissociation

86.

An Area Where There Is A Net Gain Of Material

a)

Sink

b)

Source

c)

Residence time

d)

Diazotroph

87.

An Organism That Is Able To Grow Without External Sources Of Fixed Nitrogen Because It Is Able To Fix Nitrogen Gas Into Substances

a)

Diazotroph

b)

Saprophytic

c)

Marine snow

d)

Decomposers

88.
A[n] ___________ tide occurs when the sun, Earth, and the moon are nearly in a line. 
a)
spring
b)
high
c)
low
d)
neap
89.
What type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
full moon tide
b)
new moon tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
90.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
91.

What tidal pattern creates one high and one low tide per day?

a)

Diurnal

b)

Semi-diurnal

c)

Mixed

92.

Tides are caused by the difference in the gravitational force of the ________ and ________ across the ________.

a)

earth, sun, moon

b)

sun, mars, jupiter

c)

sun, moon, earth

d)

tide, water, sun

93.

The tidal force exerted by the ______ is stronger that the tidal force exerted by the _______.

a)

earth, ocean

b)

sun, moon

c)

moon, stars

d)

moon, sun

94.

The moon is mainly responsible for the tides on Earth because it is _________ _________.

a)

much closer

b)

far away

c)

behind the sun

95.

Which tide would be caused by the positions of the sun and moon in the picture?

a)

High Tide

b)

Low Tide

c)

Spring Tide

d)

Neap Tide

96.

Which tide would be caused by the positions of the sun and moon in the picture?

a)

High Tide

b)

Low Tide

c)

Spring Tide

d)

Neap Tide

97.

Check three of the following physical factors that affect tidal range.

a)

the temperature

b)

the size of the body of water

c)

the weather conditions

d)

the shape of the coastline

98.

What is the main "salt" in the ocean?

a)

Magnesium Sulfate

b)

Sodium Chloride

c)

Calcium Carbonate

99.

What is the MAIN way that salts are added to the oceans?

a)

Mid-Ocean Ridges

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Fish waste

d)

River input

100.

How is salinity usually expressed?

a)

As parts per hundred (%)

b)

As parts per thousand (‰)

c)

As parts per million

101.

solute + solvent =

a)

solution

b)

equation

102.

What will happen to density as temperature decreases?

a)
Density increases
b)
Density decreases
103.
As salinity  increases
a)
Density increases
b)
Density decreases
104.

Which of the following can INCREASE salinity?

a)

Melting of sea ice

b)

Evaporation

c)

Precipitation

d)

Runoff

105.
True or False Salinity increases as ocean depth increases.
a)
True
b)
False
106.
Does salt water have a higher or lower viscosity than fresh water?
a)
Higher
b)
Lower
107.
Will a basic solution contain a higher percentage of H+ ions or OH- ions?
a)
H+
b)
OH-
108.
A strong acid could have which of the following pH values?
a)
6
b)
2
c)
7
d)
10
109.
What is the MAIN factor that affects how well gases dissolve in seawater?
a)
Pressure
b)
Temperature
c)
Salinity
110.
Which gas dissolves easier in sea water?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon Dioxide
111.
Which gas will DECREASE at lower depths?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon Dioxide
112.
What is the density formula?
a)
Volume / mass
b)
Volume x mass
c)
Mass / volume
d)
Salinity x mass
113.
What is the name of the layer between the surface and the deep ocean where salinity increases significantly?
a)
Halocline
b)
Pycnocline
c)
Thermocline
d)
Middle Earth
114.
What is a thermocline?
a)
Region of significant density change
b)
Region of significant temperature change
c)
Region of significant salinity change
115.
How do thermoclines in tropical areas compare to polar regions?
a)
Steeper temperature change
b)
Less steep temerature change
c)
Thermoclines not present in tropics
116.

What is shown by the BLUE line in the image?

a)

Pycnocline

b)

Thermocline

c)

Halocline

117.

Which mechanism can give the MOST accurate pH reading?

a)

Litmus paper

b)

pH probe

c)

Universal Indicator

118.
About what percentage of the ocean is considered the "deep" zone?
a)
0.06
b)
0.4
c)
0.02
d)
0.8
119.

What is the saltiest body on water on Earth?

a)

Pacific Ocean

b)

Mississippi River

c)

Dead Sea

d)

Don Juan Pond

120.

A solution with a high percentage of OH- ions could be described as....

a)

A strong acid

b)

A weak acid

c)

A weak base

d)

A strong base

121.

What is the main "salt" in Don Juan Pond?

a)

Magnesium Sulfate

b)

Sodium Chloride

c)

Calcium Carbonate

122.

Tides are caused by (pick 2)

a)

gravity

b)

the movement of the earth

c)

wind

d)

convection currents

123.

What is the name of the outermost solid layer of Earth that includes the crust and upper mantle?

a)

hydrosphere

b)

lithosphere

c)

asthenosphere

d)

outer core

124.

The mid-ocean ridges are recognized as: *

a)

subduction zones

b)

transform plate boundaries

c)

divergent plate boundaries

d)

convergent plate boundaries

125.

Where is ocean sediment thickest? *

a)

over continental margins

b)

overactive ocean ridges

126.

Which type of sediment is most subject to erosion?

a)

Boulder

b)

pebble

c)

sand

d)

silt

e)

clay

127.

What sediment size is most likely to settle FIRST after an avalanche?

a)

Gravel

b)

silt

c)

sand

d)

mud

128.

Which of the following organisms can make their own food internally through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis?

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

129.
What process do the bacteria in vents use to produce energy?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Chemosynthesis
c)
Fermentation
d)
Cellular Respiration
130.

What percentage of energy is passed on to each trophic level?

a)
10%
b)
50%
c)
90%
d)
100%
131.
Water getting into cracks, freezing, and breaking the rocks or pavement apart
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
132.
Put the sediments in order from smallest sized particles to largest
a)
clay, silt, sand, gravel
b)
silt, clay, gravel, sand
c)
gravel, sand, silt, clay
133.

The average density of continental crust is 2.8 g/cm3 and the average density of oceanic crusts is 3.2 g/cm3. If these two plates came together, what would happen?

a)

The two plates would push apart and form a rift zone.

b)

The oceanic plate would rise up over the continental plate.

c)

The oceanic plate would sink under the continental plate.

d)

The two plates would meet head on and rise up to form mountains.

134.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
135.

Why do the fisherman of Peru and South America not welcome a strong El Nino?

a)

El Nino poisons the fish

b)

El Nino causes strong winds and currents which move fish westward

c)

El Nino bring cold water to the surface which kills the base of the food chain

d)

El Nino shuts off upwelling and nutrients needed for the marine food chain do not rise to the surface

136.

If the highest tide of the day is 4.9 feet, and the lowest tide of the day is 1.2 feet, what is the tidal range for that day?

a)

1.2 ft

b)

4.9 ft

c)

7.1 ft

d)

3.7 ft

137.

The symbiotic relationship between the coral and its zooxanthellae is:

a)

Mutualistic

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Parasitic

d)

It's not symbiotic - it's actually a predator/prey relationship!

138.

The symbiotic relationship between the Riftia HTV tube worm and its chemoautotrophic bacteria that live within it is:

a)

Mutualistic

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Parasitic

d)

It's not symbiotic - it's actually a predator/prey relationship!

139.

Which of the following processes cause an oxygen minimum zone at a depth of 500 meters?

a)

Decomposition

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Wind disturbance

140.

Why doesn't ice form in the deep ocean?

a)

Water salinity is too high

b)

Pressure prevents ice from forming

c)

Cold water will begin to float before it freezes (becomes less dense when freezing)

d)

Hydrothermal vents keep the deep sea too warm

141.

What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a food web?

a)

energy path

b)

food chain

c)

trophic level

d)

food pyramid

142.

What are the three kinds of ecological pyramids?

a)

producer, consumer, and decomposer

b)

energy, nutrient, and trophic

c)

energy, biomass, and numbers

d)

biotic, abiotic, and nutrient

143.

Which of the following organisms are producers in hydrothermal vent communities?

a)

bacteria

b)

algae

c)

fungi

d)

moss

e)

none of these

144.

Which of the following are problems that tide pool organisms must deal with at low tide?

a)

Low dissolved oxygen

b)

High salinity

c)

Wave action

d)

High temperatures

145.

Which type of plate boundaries can lead to the formation of volcanoes?

a)

Transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

146.

Hydrothermal vents can form at which boundary type(s):

a)

Transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

147.

What is the first step in hydrothermal vent formation?

a)

Cold water seeps through Earth's crust

b)

Chemosynthetic bacteria colonize the vent

c)

Hot water dissolves minerals in the crust

d)

Magma heats water

148.

Why are hydrothermal vents considered EXTREME environments?

a)

High pressure

b)

High pH

c)

No light

d)

Presence of caustic chemicals

149.

Which best describes how plates are moving at a transform boundary?

a)

Plates move past each other sideways

b)

Plates move towards each other

c)

Plates move away from each other

150.

Which of the following plate boundaries is involved in trench formation?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

151.

Which of the following are pieces of evidence for plate tectonics?

a)

Fossil species found across different continents

b)

The continents roughly fit together like a puzzle

c)

Magnetic striping on the ocean floor moving away from mid-ocean ridges

d)

Shoreline erosion occurs everywhere on the planet

152.

Which type of plate boundary is most likely to form a tsunami?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

153.

How is the water in a hydrothermal vent heated?

a)

Magma

b)

Friction

c)

Convection

d)

Lava

154.

What type of sediment is most often found on a muddy shoreline?

a)

Coarse sand

b)

Silt

c)

Gravel

d)

Boulders

155.

What word describes a partially enclosed, tidal, coastal body of water where freshwater from a river meets the salt water of the ocean?

a)

Delta

b)

Estuary

c)

Bay

d)

Lagoon

156.

4, 5, 2, 8, 3, 5, 4. Which number is most likely anomalous?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

8

d)

4

157.

0.89, 1, 0.87, 1.01, 0.56, 0.94. Which number is most likely anomalous?

a)

0.56

b)

0.87

c)

0.89

d)

0.94

158.

Which of the following is an example of qualitative data:

a)

6 red fish, and 8 black fish

b)

An orange roughy that's 25 years old

c)

8 billion metric tons of bycatch

d)

The bycatch consisted of dolphins, turtles, and jellyfish

159.

Which of the following is an example of quantitative data:

a)

red grouper and black drum

b)

one red grouper per minute

c)

The Cliffs of Dover are made up of calcium carbonate

d)

The bycatch consisted of dolphins, turtles, and jellyfish

160.

The independent, or also called manipulated variable goes on the:

a)

X axis

b)

Y axis

161.

The dependent, or also called the responding variable goes on the:

a)

X axis

b)

Y axis

162.

The test group is the only group to receive the:

a)

IV

b)

DV

163.

Ice forms a crystal lattice structure due to ___ bonds.

a)

hydrogen

b)

covalent

c)

ionic

164.

What is the proper way to plot points on a graph?

a)

Dots with circles around them

b)

Dots

c)

Xs

d)

Xs with circles around them

165.

What word describes an organism's role in an ecosystem?

a)

Productivity

b)

Community

c)

Niche

d)

Function

166.

A scientist is determining the effect of temperature on feeding rates of snails. Which variables should be held constant?

a)

Salinity

b)

Temperature

c)

pH

d)

The species of snail used

167.

What is one main anthropogenic (from humans) source of nitrogen in the ocean?

a)

Pig farm runoff

b)

Burning fossil fuels

c)

Upwelling

d)

Fertilizer runoff

168.

What gas causes ocean acidification?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Helium

d)

Oxygen

169.

Which processes below cause the release of energy as heat from a food chain?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Respiration

c)

Excretion

d)

Metabolism

170.

Tides are caused by (pick 2)

a)

gravity

b)

the movement of the earth

c)

wind

d)

convection currents

171.

The sun and moon both affect ocean tides. When they are a right angle to each other they create __________ tides.

a)

high

b)

low

c)

spring

d)

neap

172.

A ____________ is a very large ocean wave moving at high speeds.

a)

surf waves

b)

tsunami

c)

surge wave

d)

breaker

173.

There are two phases. Which is the warm phase?

a)

El nino

b)

La nina

174.

Cold water near the poles _______, and warm water near the equator _______, creating a great cycle of movement *

a)

sinks; rises

b)

rises; sinks

175.

Normally, strong trade winds push _______ equatorial waters westward across the Pacific. *

a)

warm

b)

cold

176.

In an El Niño year (ENSO Warm Phase), trade winds diminish and reverse, which makes warm equatorial water flow back east, more storms & rain in E Pacific, and less upwelling, Droughts in W Pacific. *

a)

false

b)

true

177.

La Niña - ENSO Cool Phase (colder than normal) (check all that apply): *

a)

stronge tradewinds

b)

weaker tradewinds

c)

Increased upwelling in eastern Pacific

d)

Increased upwelling in western Pacific

e)

Warm pool stays in western Pacific

178.

What is the name of the outermost solid layer of Earth that includes the crust and upper mantle?

a)

hydrosphere

b)

lithosphere

c)

asthenosphere

d)

outer core

179.

What do these things have in common: Paleomagnetism, seafloor spreading, Pangaea, Pacific hotspots, transform faults... *

a)

They are all used to study earthquakes.

b)

Predicts earthquake activity and warn people of imminent danger.

c)

They were discovered in the Challenger expedition.

d)

They are all associated with plate tectonics.

180.

The mid-ocean ridges are recognized as: *

a)

subduction zones

b)

transform plate boundaries

c)

divergent plate boundaries

d)

convergent plate boundaries

181.

What type of plate boundary is the Mariana Trench located?

a)

convergent

b)

transform

c)

divergent

182.

Where is ocean sediment thickest? *

a)

over continental margins

b)

overactive ocean ridges

183.

Which type of sediment is most subject to erosion?

a)

Boulder

b)

pebble

c)

sand

d)

silt

e)

clay

184.

What sediment size is most likely to settle FIRST after an avalanche?

a)

Gravel

b)

silt

c)

sand

d)

mud

185.

Which of the following organisms can make their own food internally through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis?

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

186.
What process do the bacteria in vents use to produce energy?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Chemosynthesis
c)
Fermentation
d)
Cellular Respiration
187.

What percentage of energy is passed on to each trophic level?

a)
10%
b)
50%
c)
90%
d)
100%
188.

The rate of production of new biomass through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis

a)

Secondary productivity

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Primary productivity

d)

Trophic Level

189.

The process of settling down of particles of a solid in a liquid is

a)

Decantation

b)

Filtration

c)

Sedimentation

d)

Sublimation

190.
Water getting into cracks, freezing, and breaking the rocks or pavement apart
a)
Weathering
b)
Erosion
c)
Deposition
191.
Put the sediments in order from smallest sized particles to largest
a)
clay, silt, sand, gravel
b)
silt, clay, gravel, sand
c)
gravel, sand, silt, clay
192.

Weathering and erosion both act on the surface of Earth. In what way is weathering similar to erosion?

a)

both are caused by freezing water

b)

wind and water are agents of both

c)

both move rocks

193.

The average density of continental crust is 2.8 g/cm3 and the average density of oceanic crusts is 3.2 g/cm3. If these two plates came together, what would happen?

a)

The two plates would push apart and form a rift zone.

b)

The oceanic plate would rise up over the continental plate.

c)

The oceanic plate would sink under the continental plate.

d)

The two plates would meet head on and rise up to form mountains.

194.
What causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to curve to the right?
a)
Earth's orbit around the Sun
b)
Earth's spinning on its axis
c)
Earth's magnetic field
d)
Earth's force of gravity
195.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
196.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
197.

Why do the fisherman of Peru and South America not welcome a strong El Nino?

a)

El Nino poisons the fish

b)

El Nino causes strong winds and currents which move fish westward

c)

El Nino bring cold water to the surface which kills the base of the food chain

d)

El Nino shuts off upwelling and nutrients needed for the marine food chain do not rise to the surface

198.

This tide has the smallest tidal range:

a)

Neap

b)

Spring

199.

If the highest tide of the day is 4.9 feet, and the lowest tide of the day is 1.2 feet, what is the tidal range for that day?

a)

1.2 ft

b)

4.9 ft

c)

7.1 ft

d)

3.7 ft

200.

A study of the stomach contents of ringed seals found that they included a variety of invertebrate prey: 73

crabs, 55 clams, 47 snails, 32 amphipods and 18 northern krill. Calculate to the nearest whole number, the mean of invertebrates in the seals’ stomachs.

a)

41

b)

45

c)

52

d)

56

201.

A sampling method involving counting of species in frame quadrats placed adjacent to the transect Is?

a)

Mark-release-capture

b)

Line transect

c)

Continuous sampling

d)

Belt transect

e)

Hypothesis

202.

A method to estimate the population size of mobile species is?

a)

Mark-release-capture

b)

Line transect

c)

Continuous sampling

d)

Belt transect

e)

Hypothesis

203.

In the coral - zooxanthellae symbiotic relationship, the zooxanthellae benefits by:

a)

An increased exposure to oxygen needed for photosynthesis

b)

Living in a safe place free of predation

c)

Increased resistance to thermoclines & haloclines

d)

Increased rates of photosynthesis due to living in shallow waters

204.

The symbiotic relationship between the coral and its zooxanthellae is:

a)

Mutualistic

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Parasitic

d)

It's not symbiotic - it's actually a predator/prey relationship!

205.

The symbiotic relationship between the Riftia HTV tube worm and its chemoautotrophic bacteria that live within it is:

a)

Mutualistic

b)

Commensalistic

c)

Parasitic

d)

It's not symbiotic - it's actually a predator/prey relationship!

206.

Which of the following does NOT have anything to do with the formation of currents?

a)

Coriolis effect

b)

Salinity

c)

Productivity

d)

Wind

207.

Which of the following processes cause an oxygen minimum zone at a depth of 500 meters?

a)

Decomposition

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Wind disturbance

208.

Why do warm water currents tend to move along the surface of the ocean?

a)

They have a higher salinity, which makes them less dense

b)

Their temperature makes them less dense, and therefore float

c)

Their temperature makes them more dense, and therefore float

d)

Trick question, warm water currents form deep in the ocean

209.

Hydrothermal vents can form at which boundary type(s):

a)

Transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

210.

What is the first step in hydrothermal vent formation?

a)

Seawater, by pressure, squeezes into oceanic lithosphere

b)

Seawater, by osmosis, moves into oceanic lithosphere

c)

Hot water dissolves minerals in the crust

d)

Cold mineral rich water touches cold ocean water causing minerals precipitate out

211.

How does molecular motion/spacing change as a gas becomes a liquid?

a)

Molecules speed up and spread out

b)

Molecules slow down and get closer together

c)

Molecules speed up and get closer together

d)

Molecules slow down and spread out

212.

Which of the following molecules is NOT a covalent molecule?

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

Salt

213.

Why doesn't ice form in the deep ocean?

a)

Water salinity is too high

b)

Pressure prevents ice from forming

c)

Cold water will begin to float before it freezes (becomes less dense when freezing)

d)

Hydrothermal vents keep the deep sea too warm

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