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Must Know Facts to Rock the Earth Science Regents

Total questions: 216

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What characteristics of a surface will ABSORB light?

a)

dark and rough

b)

dark and smooth

c)

light and rough

d)

light and smooth

2.

What characteristics of a surface will REFLECT light?

a)

dark and rough

b)

dark and smooth

c)

light and rough

d)

light and smooth

3.

How old is the universe?

a)

4.6 billion years old

b)

8 billion years old

c)

13.8 billion years old

d)

250,000 years old

4.

How old is Earth, the Sun, and our Solar System?

a)

4.6 billion years old

b)

8 billion years old

c)

13.8 billion years old

d)

250,000 years old

5.

What is the name and the shape of the galaxy our Solar System is located in?

a)

Sirius A, spiral

b)

Andromeda; elliptical

c)

Milky Way; round

d)

Milky Way; spiral

6.

How did our Solar System form?

a)

precipitation over millions of years

b)

the outgassing from volcanic eruptions

c)

contraction of a giant cloud of gas and debris

d)

compaction and cementation of materials

7.

What do stars form from?

a)

black holes

b)

nebulas

c)

nuclear fusion

d)

supernovas

8.

What is the shape of EARTH?

a)

oval

b)

triangle

c)

oblate sphere

d)

perfect circle

9.

What is the shape of Earth's ORBIT?

a)

perfect circle

b)

slightly elliptical

c)

oval-like

d)

highly eccentric

10.

Earth's rotation rate is...

a)

1 degree per day

b)

15 degrees per day

c)

1 degree per hour

d)

15 degrees per hour

11.

Earth's rate of revolution is...

a)

1 degree per day

b)

15 degrees per day

c)

1 degree per hour

d)

15 degrees per hour

12.

One piece of evidence that Earth ROTATES (spins on its axis) is...

a)

different constellations seen at different times of the year

b)

the cyclic rise and fall of tides

c)

the Coriolis Effect

d)

changing seasons

13.

One piece of evidence that Earth ROTATES (spins on its axis) is...

a)

different constellations seen at different times of the year

b)

the cyclic rise and fall of tides

c)

the apparent change in direction of swing of a Foucault Pendulum

d)

changing seasons

14.

The best evidence that Earth REVOLVES (circles the Sun in an orbit) is...

a)

different constellations seen at different times of the year

b)

the cyclic rise and fall of tides

c)

Foucault Pendulum

d)

Coriolis Effect

15.

What is the degree of the tilt of Earth's axis?

a)

15 degrees

b)

360 degrees

c)

23.5 degrees

d)

41 degrees

16.

What causes the seasons?

a)

the changing distance of Earth from the Sun

b)

the changing distance of the Moon from Earth

c)

the tilt of Earth's axis as it revolves around the Sun

d)

the changing intensity of the Sun as it revolves around Earth

17.

What are the Terrestrial Planets?

a)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

c)

Mercury, Jupiter, Venus, Earth

d)

Jupiter, Venus, Earth, Saturn

18.

What are the Jovian Planets?

a)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

b)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

c)

Mercury, Jupiter, Venus, Earth

d)

Jupiter, Venus, Earth, Saturn

19.

What characteristic of the planets in our Solar System INCREASES as a planet's distance from the Sun increases?

a)

period of rotation

b)

period of revolution

c)

eccentricity

d)

mass

20.

When a planet is "Perihelion" (CLOSEST to the star in its orbit), its velocity is

a)

fastest

b)

slowest

21.

When a planet is "Perihelion" (CLOSEST to the star in its orbit), the gravitational pull of the star is

a)

strongest

b)

weakest

22.

When a planet is "Aphelion" (FARTHEST from the star in its orbit), the velocity of the star is

a)

fastest

b)

slowest

23.

When a planet is "Aphelion" (FARTHEST from the star in its orbit), the gravitational pull of the star is

a)

strongest

b)

weakest

24.

Proof that our universe is EXPANDING is...

a)

blue shift of light from distant galaxies

b)

red shift of light from distant galaxies

c)

cosmic background radiation

d)

Foucault Pendulum

25.

What model has the Sun at the center of the Solar System?

a)

heliocentric

b)

geocentric

26.

What model has the Earth at the center of the Solar System?

a)

heliocentric

b)

geocentric

27.

What model has the Earth at the center of the Solar System?

a)

heliocentric

b)

geocentric

28.

ONE seismograph can determine

a)

the exact location of an earthquake

b)

the distance a location is from the epicenter

29.

How many seismographs are required to determine the precise LOCATION of an earthquake?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

30.

Name the major "agents of erosion"

a)

running water, gravity, wind, glaciers, and wave action

b)

convection, conduction, and radiation

c)

divergent, convergent, and transform

31.

What is the primary force that drives agents of erosion is..

a)

the Sun

b)

gravity

c)

weathering

d)

streams

32.

landslides, mudflows, and rockfalls are caused by

a)

gravity

b)

glaciers

c)

running water

d)

wind

33.

barrier islands, beaches, and sandbars are depositional features of

a)

wind

b)

wave action

c)

gravity

d)

glaciers

34.

drumlins, moraines, kettle lakes, striations, and U-shaped valleys are depositional features of

a)

running water

b)

gravity

c)

glaciers

d)

wind

35.

floodplains, levees, deltas, meanders, and oxbow lakes are depositional features of

a)

running water

b)

gravity

c)

glaciers

d)

wind

36.

What is the shape of a valley formed by a glacier?

a)

U

b)

V

37.

What is the shape of a valley formed by a glacier?

a)

U

b)

V

38.

What is the shape of a valley formed by a riVer?

a)

U

b)

V

39.

A stream's velocity (speed) depends on...

a)

particle size and weather

b)

gradient of slope and volume of water

c)

time of day and angle of the sun

40.

As stream velocity INCREASES, the size of the particles that can be transported

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

41.

The particles that settle out (fall to the bottom of the river or ocean fastest) are

a)

smaller, less dense, and flat

b)

larger, more dense, and round

42.

OUTSIDE of a meander bend

a)

FASTER water velocity

EROSION occurring

DEEPER

b)

SLOWER water velocity

DEPOSITION occurring

SHALLOW

43.

INSIDE of a meander bend

a)

FASTER water velocity

EROSION occurring

DEEPER

b)

SLOWER water velocity

DEPOSITION occurring

SHALLOW

44.

The area drained by a river and its tributaries is called a

a)

delta

b)

meander

c)

levee

d)

watershed

45.

Sand dunes are a depositional feature of which erosional agent?

a)

wave action

b)

wind

c)

glaciers

46.

Deposits from a glacier are

a)

sorted

b)

unsorted

47.

An outwash plain is created by ___________ and the sediments are __________.

a)

rain, unsorted

b)

glacial meltwater, sorted

c)

flooding, sorted

d)

tsunamis, unsorted

48.

water and wind deposits are

a)

sorted and layered

b)

unsorted and not layers

49.

What mineral reacts with acid?

a)

galena

b)

halite

c)

calcite

d)

talc

50.

Which TWO rocks react with acid?

a)

granite and scoria

b)

limestone and marble

c)

gneiss and sandstone

d)

slate and quartzite

51.

If the air pressure "code" on a station model is LESS than 500, add a ___before the number and a decimal before the last digit.

a)

9

b)

10

52.

If the air pressure "code" on a station model is MORE than 500, add a ___before the number and a decimal before the last digit.

a)

9

b)

10

53.

Sorted particles of different sizes that take up the same volume have EQUAL

a)

permeability

b)

capillarity

c)

infiltration rates

d)

porosity

54.

As particle size INCREASES, ___________ also INCREASES

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

capillary action

55.

As particle size INCREASES, ___________ DECREASES

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

capillary action

56.

Capillarity is when...

a)

water moves down into the soil

b)

water moves up against the force of gravity

c)

water evaporates

d)

water runs off a surface

57.

The process by which stars create energy in their cores is called

a)

cosmic background radiation

b)

redshift

c)

blue shift

d)

nuclear fusion

58.

What is the formula for nuclear fusion?

a)

H + H = He + ENERGY

b)

He + He = H + ENERGY

c)

C + Si = ENERGY

59.

What is the most abundant gas in the universe?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

60.

The 3 main greenhouse gases are

a)

water vapor, carbon dioxide, and methane

b)

oxygen, hydrogen, and helium

c)

water vapor, hydrogen, and helium

d)

oxygen, carbon dioxide, and methane

61.

Which statement is true?

a)

short-wave (UV and visible light) radiation is absorbed by Earth; long wave (infrared) radiation is re-radiated back into space

b)

long-wave (infrared) radiation is absorbed by Earth; short-wave (UV and visible light) radiation is re-radiated back into space

62.

What Moon Phase occurs when the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)

Third Quarter

63.

What Moon Phase occurs when the Earth is between the Moon and the Sun?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)

Third Quarter

64.

What Moon Phase occurs directly AFTER the First Quarter moon phase?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

Waxing Gibbous

d)

Waning Gibbous

65.

What direction does the Moon move in its orbit?

a)

clockwise

b)

counter-clockwise

66.

Which Moon Phase occurs right BEFORE the New Moon Phase?

a)

Full Moon

b)

Waning Crescent

c)

Waxing Crescent

d)

Third Quarter

67.

How long does it take for the Moon to go through one complete cycle of phases as viewed from Earth?

a)

60 days

b)

1 year

c)

2 weeks

d)

29.5 days

68.

What is the Moon's "period of revolution"?

a)

27.3 days

b)

1 year

c)

2 weeks

d)

29.5 days

69.

Why do we always see the same side of the Moon?

a)

The Moon's period of rotation and the Moon's period of revolution are the same.

b)

The Earth's period of rotation and the Earth's period of revolution are the same.

c)

The Moon's period of rotation and the Earth's period of rotation are the same.

70.

Which Moon Phase could result in a SOLAR eclipse?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)

Third Quarter

71.

Which Moon Phase could result in a LUNAR eclipse?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)

Third Quarter

72.

Why don't eclipses happen every month?

a)

They do happen every month.

b)

The Moon's period of rotation is equal to its period of revolution.

c)

The Moon's orbital plane is tilted 5 degrees compared to Earth's--so all three objects (Sun/Moon/Earth) don't always align.

73.

What causes tides to occur on Earth?

a)

The pull of Earth's inner core.

b)

The gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun.

c)

Earth's changing orbital velocity.

d)

The changing seasons.

74.

Why does the Moon's gravitational pull have a much bigger impact on tides than the Sun?

a)

The Moon is much closer to Earth.

b)

The Moon is bigger than the Sun.

c)

The other planets block the Sun's gravity.

75.

Which TWO Moon Phases result in the HIGHEST range between high tides and low tides (Spring Tides)?

a)

First Quarter and Third Quarter

(Moon is perpendicular to Earth)

b)

New Moon and Full Moon

(Earth/Moon/Sun are aligned)

76.

Which TWO Moon Phases result in the LOWEST range between high tides and low tides (Neap Tides)?

a)

First Quarter and Third Quarter

(Moon is perpendicular to Earth)

b)

New Moon and Full Moon

(Earth/Moon/Sun are aligned)

77.

___________ are identified based on their well-defined physical and chemical properties.

a)

Weather

b)

Tectonic Plates

c)

Minerals

d)

Storm Surges

78.

What percentage of the Moon is always receiving light from the Sun?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

79.

Which side of the Moon is illuminated (lit up) when the Moon is waxing (gaining light)?

a)

right side

b)

left side

80.

Which side of the Moon is illuminated (lit up) when the Moon is waning (losing light)?

a)

right side

b)

left side

81.

What are the most common elements in most minerals?

a)

carbon and oxygen

b)

oxygen and silicon

c)

iron and hydrogen

d)

silicon and nitrogen

82.

The physical properties of minerals is determined by

a)

its luster

b)

its color

c)

the internal arrangement of the atoms inside it

d)

its hardness

83.

Rocks are classified on the basis of

a)

how old they are

b)

how they were formed

c)

how large they are

d)

how colorful they are

84.

Which type of rock is formed by melting, cooling and solidification of magma?

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

85.

Which type of rock is formed by heat and pressure

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

86.

Which type of rock is formed by the compaction and cementation of rock or shell fragments?

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

87.

If an igneous rock has "coarse" (large) crystals and formed intrusively, the rock cooled..

a)

fast

b)

slowly

88.

If an igneous rock has "fine" (small) or NO crystals and formed extrusively, the rock cooled..

a)

fast

b)

slowly

89.

Which type of rock can have these textures: coarse interlocking crystals; fine interlocking crystals; glassy; vesicular?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

90.

Which type of rock can have these textures: foliated; banding; mineral alignment; non-foliated?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

91.

Which type of rock can have these textures: clastic, crystalline, bioclastic; fossils?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

92.

Fossils are found mostly in which type of rock?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

93.

When molten (melted) igneous rock INTRUDES into other rock layers it is called...

a)

contact metamorphism

b)

regional metamorphism

94.

When large areas of rock undergo extreme heat and pressure, it is called...

a)

contact metamorphism

b)

regional metamorphism

95.

How do we know about Earth's interior layers?

a)

study of the behavior of seismic waves

b)

drilling down to Earth's core

c)

studying spectral light from stars in the galaxy

d)

measuring the temperature of each layer

96.

Which seismic wave always arrives first (fastest wave)?

a)

P-wave

b)

S-wave

97.

The Earth formed into layers because...

a)

it is close to the Sun

b)

Earth has water

c)

gravity pulled more dense layers to the core and less dense layers rose to the top

98.

The closer and larger two objects are, the __________ the force of gravity

a)

greater

b)

less

99.

Plate tectonics (the movement of pieces of Earth's crust) is caused by...

a)

volcanic eruptions

b)

convention currents in the asthenosphere

c)

heat from the inner core

d)

earthquake activity

100.

The convection currents that cause Earth's tectonic plates to move are located in which layer of Earth?

a)

crust

b)

inner core

c)

asthenosphere

d)

stiffer mantle

101.

Divergent plate boundaries move _______ and form ____________.

a)

apart, rifts or ridges

b)

together, trenches and volcanic mountain ranges

c)

in opposite directions, causing earthquakes

102.

Convergent plate boundaries move _______ and form ____________.

a)

apart, rifts or ridges

b)

together, trenches and volcanic mountain ranges

c)

in opposite directions, causing earthquakes

103.

Transform plate boundaries move _______ and form ____________.

a)

apart, rifts or ridges

b)

together, trenches and volcanic mountain ranges

c)

in opposite directions, causing earthquakes

104.

Continental crust is ______ and ____ dense than oceanic crust.

a)

thinner and more

b)

thicker and less

105.

Oceanic crust is ______ and ____ dense than continental crust.

a)

thinner and more

b)

thicker and less

106.

Oceanic crust is made of _________ and is ___________.

a)

basalt, mafic

b)

granite, felsic

c)

basalt, felsic

d)

granite, mafic

107.

Continental crust is made of _________ and is ___________.

a)

basalt, mafic

b)

granite, felsic

c)

basalt, felsic

d)

granite, mafic

108.

When one tectonic plate sinks under another, forming a trench, it is called...

a)

radiation

b)

evaporation

c)

infiltration

d)

subduction

109.

When rocks are broken down from exposure to the hydrosphere, biosphere, and atmosphere, it is called...

a)

weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

110.

When sediments are moved or transported, the process is called...

a)

weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

111.

When sediments are dropped, forming landscape features, the process is called...

a)

weathering

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

112.

Moist, warm climates cause...

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

113.

Moist, cold climates cause...

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

114.

Soil forms as a result of...

a)

weathering and biologic activity

b)

infiltration and runoff

c)

precipitation and germination

d)

conduction and convection

115.

As particle size decreases, weathering rate increases---WHY?

a)

surface area increases

b)

surface area decreases

116.

Closer isolines mean that the gradient is...

a)

steeper

b)

more gentle

117.

"Resistant" rock layers...

a)

erode easily

b)


stick out because they fight off erosion

118.

In undisturbed rock layers, the bottom layer is the...

a)

oldest

b)

youngest

119.

Faults, folds, and intrusions are ___________ than the rock layer they are found in (on top of).

a)

younger

b)

older

120.

What makes a good index fossil for dating rocks?

a)

short-lived and found over a wide area

b)

long-lived and found over a wide area

c)

short-lived and found only in a small area

d)

long-lived and found only in a small area.

121.

Unconformities represent...

a)

a gap in the rock record that was wiped away by erosion

b)

layers of undisturbed rock

c)

tilted, folded, and faulted rock layers

d)

intrusions

122.

What is an unconformity?

a)

a rock made from contact metamorphism

b)

a buried erosional surface

c)

a depositional feature of glaciers

123.

Why are radiactive isotopes so useful in dating rocks and fossils?

a)

their decay rate remains the same

b)

their decay rate changes

124.

What is the half-life of Carbon-14?

a)

5,700 years

b)

4.6 billion years

c)

1.3 billion years

d)

49 billion years

125.

What radioactive isotope is used to date "recent" organic remains (younger than 70,000 years)?

a)

Rubidium-87

b)

Uranium-238

c)

Carbon-14

d)

Potassium-40

126.

Most life forms of the geologic past have become...

a)

smarter

b)

more adaptable

c)

extinct

127.

Which can hold more water vapor--warm air or cool air?

a)

warm

b)

cool

128.

As altitude increases in the Troposphere, air pressure...

a)

increases

b)

decreases

129.

Wind is named for...

a)

the direction is comes from

b)

the direction it is moving toward

130.

Wind is caused by...

a)

differences in temperature

b)

differences in relative humidity

c)

differences in air pressure

d)

differences in dewpoint

131.

Wind speed is greatest on a weather map when isobars are...

a)

far apart

b)

close together

132.

The CLOSER air temperature is to dewpoint, the chance of precipitation

a)

increases

b)

decreases

133.

Clouds form when...

a)

cool, dry air sinks and contracts

b)

warm, moist air rises, expands, cools and condenses

134.

Air in a "low pressure" system is...

a)

warm and dry

b)

warm and moist

c)

cool and dry

d)

cool and moist

135.

Air in a "high pressure" system is...

a)

warm and dry

b)

warm and moist

c)

cool and dry

d)

cool and moist

136.

The weather in a "low pressure" system is...

a)

cloudy, precipitation, stormy, warmer temperatures

b)

clear skies, cool, dry air, sunny

137.

The weather in a "high pressure" system is...

a)

cloudy, precipitation, stormy, warmer temperatures

b)

clear skies, cool, dry air, sunny

138.

Most low pressure systems in the United States move toward the...

a)

southwest

b)

northeast

139.

Which diagram shows a "cold front" (cold air advancing on warm air)?

a)

b)

140.

Which diagram shows a "warm front" (warm air rising up and over cold air)?

a)

b)

141.

Hurricanes lose strength as they...

a)

move over land or cool water

b)

move over warm waters

c)

increase evaporation

d)

reduce wind speed

142.

Where do Atlantic Ocean hurricanes form?

a)

over cool waters near Greenland

b)

over warm waters near the west coast of Africa

c)

on the west coast of the United States

d)

in cool waters near Antarctica

143.

The area where two air masses meet is called a...

a)

trench

b)

front

c)

delta

d)

moraine

144.

air masses are classified by...

a)

density and location

b)

temperature and origin

c)

temperature and moisture content

d)

moisture content and size

145.

An mT air mass is...

a)

moist and warm

b)

moist and cool

c)

dry and warm

d)

dry and cool

146.

An cP air mass is...

a)

moist and warm

b)

moist and cool

c)

dry and warm

d)

dry and cool

147.

What is the source region for an mT air mass?

a)

central Canada

b)

Pacific Ocean

c)

Texas

d)

Gulf of Mexico

148.

What is the source region for an cP air mass?

a)

central Canada

b)

Pacific Ocean

c)

Texas

d)

Gulf of Mexico

149.

Weather systems in the U.S. usually move ...

a)

east to west

b)

north to south

c)

south to north

d)

west to east

150.

What instrument measures air pressure?

a)

psychrometer

b)

barometer

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

151.

What instrument measures wind speed?

a)

psychrometer

b)

barometer

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

152.

What instrument measures temperature?

a)

psychrometer

b)

barometer

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

153.

What instrument is used to determine dewpoint & relative humidity?

a)

psychrometer

b)

barometer

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

154.

What instrument measures wind direction?

a)

psychrometer

b)

wind vane

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

155.

What instrument measures the amount of precipitation?

a)

rain gauge

b)

wind vane

c)

thermometer

d)

anemometer

156.

The circulation of wind around a low-pressure system is...

a)

clockwise and outward

b)

clockwise and inward

c)

counter-clockwise and outward

d)

counter-clockwise and inward

157.

The circulation of wind around a high-pressure system is...

a)

clockwise and outward

b)

clockwise and inward

c)

counter-clockwise and outward

d)

counter-clockwise and inward

158.

A rising barometric pressure means that weather will...

a)

improve

b)

become worse

159.

A falling barometric pressure means that weather will...

a)

improve

b)

become worse

160.

The altitude of Polaris is equal to the observer's...

a)

longitude

b)

zenith

c)

latitude

d)

street address

161.

Another name for Polaris is...

a)

the North Star

b)

the South Star

c)

the East Star

d)

the West Star

162.

Polaris is located directly above the...

a)

North Pole

b)

South Pole

c)

Equator

d)

Antarctica

163.

The latitude of Syracuse, New York is approximately 43˚N. What is the altitude that Polaris would be viewed in Syracuse?

a)

41˚

b)

43˚

c)

90˚

d)

0

164.

Can Polaris be seen in the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

YES

b)

NO

165.

What direction do we look to see solar noon in NY?

a)

North

b)

South

c)

East

d)

West

166.

The intensity of sunlight varies with the _______ of the Sun.

a)

direction

b)

angle

c)

distance

167.

The Sun is most intense at an angle of ___ degrees.

a)

0

b)

45

c)

50

d)

90

168.

Shadows get longer as the sun gets _______ in the sky.

a)

higher

b)

lower

169.

What time of day does a person in NY see the longest shadow?

a)

9am

b)

solar noon

c)

6am

d)

2pm

170.

What time of day does a person in NY see the shortest shadow?

a)

9am

b)

solar noon

c)

6am

d)

2pm

171.

What is the date of the Summer Solstice?

a)

March 21

b)

September 23

c)

June 21

d)

December 21

172.

What is the date of the Winter Solstice?

a)

March 21

b)

September 23

c)

June 21

d)

December 21

173.

What are the dates of the Spring and Fall Equinoxes?

a)

March 21

and

September 23

b)

June 21

and

December 21

174.

Where does the Sun rise and set on June 21st?

a)

rises East and sets West

b)

rises NE and sets NW

c)

rises SE and sets SW

175.

Where does the Sun rise and set on December 21st?

a)

rises East and sets West

b)

rises NE and sets NW

c)

rises SE and sets SW

176.

Where does the Sun rise and set on the Equinox dates (March 21 and September 23)?

a)

rises East and sets West

b)

rises NE and sets NW

c)

rises SE and sets SW

177.

What season is this in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

178.

What season is this in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

winter

b)

spring

c)

summer

179.

Where do the Sun's vertical rays (90˚angle) hit on June 21st?

a)

Tropic of Cancer (23.5˚N)

b)

Tropic of Capricorn (23.5˚S)

c)

Equator (0˚)

180.

Where do the Sun's vertical rays (90˚angle) hit on December 21st?

a)

Tropic of Cancer (23.5˚N)

b)

Tropic of Capricorn (23.5˚S)

c)

Equator (0˚)

181.

Where do the Sun's vertical rays (90˚angle) hit on the Equinox dates (March21/September 23)?

a)

Tropic of Cancer (23.5˚N)

b)

Tropic of Capricorn (23.5˚S)

c)

Equator (0˚)

182.

On which date is the Sun at its highest altitude of the year (most daylight hours)?

a)

June 21

b)

March 21/Sept 23

c)

December 21

183.

On which date is the Sun at its lowest altitude of the year (most nighttime hours)?

a)

June 21

b)

March 21/Sept 23

c)

December 21

184.

How many daylight hours is received North of the Arctic Circle on June 21st?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

0

185.

How many daylight hours is received at the Equator all year long?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

0

186.

How many daylight hours is received North of the Arctic Circle on December 21?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

0

187.

How many daylight hours does every location on Earth receive on the Equinox dates?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

0

188.

How many daylight hours does New York State receive on June 21?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

15

189.

How many daylight hours does New York State receive on December 21?

a)

9

b)

12

c)

15

190.

How many days of the year is the Sun at zenith in New York State?

a)

365

b)

24

c)

10

d)

0

191.

The Earth absorbs mostly...

a)

short-wave radiation (visible light and UV)

b)

long-wave radiation

(infrared)

192.

The Earth re-radiates mostly...

a)

short-wave radiation (visible light and UV)

b)

long-wave radiation

(infrared)

193.

What prvents the escape of long-wave radiation, causing Earth's temperatures to rise?

a)

deposition

b)

Greenhouse gases

c)

plate boundaries

d)

red-shifting of light

194.

What are the three main Greenhouse Gases?

a)

oxygen, methane, water vapor

b)

carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water vapor

c)

carbon dioxide, methane, water vapor

d)

carbon dioxide, methane, nitrogen

195.

"marine" climate (close to a large body of water) have...

a)

cooler winters and warmer summers

b)

cooler summers and warmer winters

c)

cooler winters and cooler summers

d)

warmer winters and warmer summesr

196.

"continental" climate (inland locations) have...

a)

cooler winters and warmer summers

b)

cooler summers and warmer winters

c)

cooler winters and cooler summers

d)

warmer winters and warmer summesr

197.

Which side of a mountain has a moist, cool climate?

a)

windward

b)

leeward

198.

Which side of a mountain has an arid (dry), warm climate?

a)

windward

b)

leeward

199.

Latitude lines....

a)

measure locations North or South of the equator and are parallel

b)

measure locations east or west of the Prime Meridian and connect at the Poles

200.

Longitude lines....

a)

measure locations North or South of the equator and are parallel

b)

measure locations east or west of the Prime Meridian and connect at the Poles

201.

What are time zones based on?

a)

Earth's motion of revolution

b)

Earth's motion of rotation

c)

climate patterns

d)

eclipses

202.

What does "WEEL" stand for in relation to time zones?

a)

West = Earlier;

East = Later

b)

Water = Evaporation;

Equator = Latitude

c)

Weathering, Erosion;

Equator; Latitude

203.

What is location of the Equator?

a)

90˚N

b)

90˚S

c)

0˚ latitude

d)

0˚ longitude

204.

What is location of the Prime Meridian?

a)

90˚N

b)

90˚S

c)

0˚ latitude

d)

0˚ longitude

205.

For every 15˚ of longitude, there is a ___ hour time difference.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

15

d)

24

206.

Why does land heat up faster than water on a hot summer day?

a)

water has a lower specific heat

b)

land has a lower specific heat

207.

What do contour lines look like when they cross a stream?

a)

they bend in a "v" shape downhill and flow the opposite direct

b)

they bend in a "v" shape uphill and flow the opposite direction

c)

they look the same

208.

What is a "contour interval"?

a)

the measure of how high a peak is

b)

the difference in elevation between each contour line

c)

the measure of the depth of a depression

d)

the side view of a landscape feature

209.

How can you tell if there is a depression (hole) on a contour map?

a)

there will be concentric circles

b)

there will be concentric circles with hachure marks

c)

the contour lines will intersect

d)

the contour lines will point upstream

210.

What is a "topographic profile?"

a)

a hole or depression

b)

a mountain or hill

c)

a side view of a landscape

d)

a series of countour lines

211.

The YOUNGEST bedrock is found...

a)

far away from mid-ocean ridges

b)

at the center of mid-ocean ridges

c)

in oceanic trenches

d)

at transform boundaries

212.

The further you get from a mid-ocean ridge, the ________ the rock is.

a)

older

b)

younger

213.

What sphere of Earth covers approximately 70% of Earth's surface?

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Biosphere

214.

What is the decay product of Carbon-14?

a)

Argon 40

b)

Pb 206

c)

Rb-87

d)

Nitrogen-14

215.

After one half-life, how much of the radioactive (parent) isotope remains?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25

216.

After 2 half-lives, how much of the radioactive (parent) isotope remains?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

12.5%