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Fall Physical Science Review

Total questions: 220

Worksheet time: 3hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A_____ is a possible explanation for a problem using what you know and what you observe.

a)

Theory

b)

Conclusion

c)

Thesis

d)

Hypothesis

2.

A(n) _____ occurs when what the scientist expects changes how the results are viewed.

a)

Bias

b)

Conclusion

c)

Error

d)

Fallacy

3.

A(n) _____ represents an idea, event, or object in order to help people better understand it.

a)

Experiment

b)

Lab

c)

Model

d)

Journal

4.

Graphing data can help you recognize______.

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Bias

c)

Patterns

d)

Inferences

5.

The application of scientific knowledge to benefit people is ______.

a)

Technology

b)

Society

c)

Ethics

d)

Economics

6.

The amount of space occupied by an object is its ______.

a)

Mass

b)

Capacity

c)

Length

d)

Volume

7.

A testable prediction is a(n)_____.

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Exercise

c)

Experiment

d)

Variable

8.

A standard for comparison that helps to ensure that the experimental result is caused by the condition being tested is the _____.

a)

Control

b)

Independent Variable

c)

Constants

d)

Dependent Variable

9.

An organized process used to gather observations and test a hypothesis is a(n) ____.

a)

Problem

b)

Experiment

c)

Exercise

d)

Constant

10.

A statement that describes what happens in nature is a _____.

a)

Scientific Law

b)

Scientific Hypothesis

c)

Scientific Theory

d)

Scientific Breakthrough

11.

An explanation of an event that is based on repeated observations and experiments is a _____.

a)

Problem

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Theory

d)

Variable

12.

An idea, event, or object that can be used to represent something you are trying to explain is a ___.

a)

Model

b)

Constant

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Variable

13.

In an experiment to determine if the popping of popcorn is affected by the temperature at which stored, counting the popped kernels is an example of a(n)_____.

a)

Conclusion

b)

Control

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Observation

14.

A measurement standard is defined as ______.

a)

A system of prefixes

b)

the distance between two points

c)

A quantity people agree to use for comparison

d)

the interval between two events

15.

A beaker contains 0.32 L of water. The beaker’s volume is _____ mL.

a)

3.2

b)

0.032

c)

32

d)

320

16.

The correct symbol for the SI unit of temperature is _____.

a)

K

b)

K°

c)

C

d)

C°

17.

In a graph, the variable on the horizontal axis is the _____.

a)

Variable with the longest range

b)

Variable with the least range

c)

Independent variable

d)

Dependent variable

18.

The type of graph that would be used to show how some fixed quantity is broken down into parts.

a)

Line graph

b)

Circle graph

c)

Bar graph

d)

Table

19.

In a graph showing how the temperature of a material changes over time, temperature change is the _____.

a)

Dependent Variable

b)

Independent Variable

c)

Variable with the smallest range

d)

Variable with the largest range

20.

Of the following, the only unit that cannot be used to express volume is _____.

a)

kg

b)

L

c)

cm3

d)

mL

21.

The best unit to measure the distance a car travels after being released from a ramp.

a)

meter

b)

gram

c)

second

d)

ampere

22.

The best unit to measure the mass of a chemical added to a beaker..

a)

Meter

b)

Gram

c)

Second

d)

Ampere

23.

The best unit to measure the time it takes for a dropped object to hit the ground.

a)

Meter

b)

Gram

c)

Second

d)

Ampere

24.

What is the SI unit for length?

a)

Meter

b)

Kelvin

c)

g / cm3

d)

Kilogram

e)

Second

25.

What is the SI unit for mass?

a)

Meter

b)

Kelvin

c)

g / cm3

d)

Kilogram

e)

Second

26.

What is the SI unit for density?

a)

Meter

b)

Kelvin

c)

g / cm3

d)

Kilogram

e)

Second

27.

What is the dependent variable?

a)

Month

b)

Profit or Loss

c)

There isn't one

d)

Not enough information

28.

What is the independent variable?

a)

Month

b)

Profit or Loss

c)

There isn't one

d)

Not enough information

29.

Which month had the most profit?

a)

January

b)

May

c)

September

d)

December

30.

Which month had the greatest loss (lowest profit)?

a)

January

b)

May

c)

September

d)

December

31.

What kind of graph should this be?

a)

Line

b)

Bar

c)

Pie Chart

d)

It shouldn't be a graph

32.

According to the graph, what percentage of water is used in the shower?

a)

16.8

b)

26.7

c)

21.7

d)

15.7

33.

According to the graph, what percentage of water is used in the toilet?

a)

16.8

b)

26.7

c)

21.7

d)

15.7

34.
This is the group that we will compare our experimental group to. This group stays "normal."
a)
Control Group
b)
Experimental Group
c)
 Normal Group
d)
Weird Group
35.
This variable in an experiment is the one being changed by the scientist. 
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
data
d)
control group
36.
Testing a hypothesis often involves a(n):
a)
answer
b)
experiment
c)
problem
d)
safety check
37.
If you increase the amount of spinach you eat, then you will increase the iron in your blood. 
What's the dependent variable?
a)
increase the amount of iron in your blood
b)
spinach you eat
38.
If I read this question carefully, then I will answer it correctly. What is the independent variable?
a)
I hope so
b)
Yes
c)
Reading or not reading carefully
d)
Likelihood of a correct answer
39.
A scientist performs an experiment to see if acids have an effect on the health of a particular type of plant. Three sets of plants were treated with acidic solutions of known pH while the control set was treated with a solution of neutral pH 7.Which is the best conclusion for this experiment?
a)
Acid has no effect on the health of this type of plant.
b)
B. High acidity is helpful to this type of plant.
c)
C. Low acidity is harmful to this type of plant.
d)
High acidity is harmful to this type of plant.
40.
An experiment is performed on plants to see how different liquids affect plant growth. Each plant in the experiment is given a different liquid; water, apple juice, or milk. Each plant has the same amount of soil, sunlight, and listens to the same music. In this investigation, the independent variable is ...
a)
The type of plant
b)
The amount of sunlight
c)
The type of music
d)
The type of liquid
41.
Convert 300 meters to centimeters:
a)
3000 cm
b)
0.3 cm
c)
30,000 cm
d)
3 cn
42.
490,000 g =____ kg
a)
490
b)
49
c)
4,900
d)
0.49
43.
The base unit to measure mass is called...
a)
liters
b)
meters
c)
grams
44.

64,158 ml = ___________________ daL

a)

0.0064158

b)

6.4158

c)

64.158

d)

641.58

45.

Which metric unit would be the most appropriate to measure the mass of a horse?

a)

Grams

b)

Pounds

c)

Milligrams

d)

Kilograms

46.

Which metric unit would be the most appropriate to measure the mass of a paperclip.

a)

Kilograms

b)

Liters

c)

Centimeters

d)

Milligrams

47.

Force that opposes the motion of objects that move through the air.

a)

air resistance

b)

force

c)

gravity

d)

inertia

48.

A force that is directed toward the center of a curved or circular path

a)

centripetal force

b)

inertia

c)

gravity

d)

net force

49.

A push or a pull exerted on an object

a)

force

b)

field

c)

weight

d)

friction

50.

Force that opposes the sliding motion between two touching surfaces

a)

friction

b)

net force

c)

field

d)

air resistance

51.

Attractive force between two objects that depends on the masses of the objects and the distance between them

a)

gravity

b)

net force

c)

weight

d)

air resistance

52.

Tendency of an object to resist any change in its motion.

a)

inertia

b)

gravity

c)

free fall

d)

terminal velocity

53.

States that an object moving at a constant velocity keeps moving at that velocity unless an unbalanced force acts on it.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Law of Conservation of Momentum

54.

The maximum speed an object will reach when falling through a substance, such as air.

a)

terminal velocity

b)

air resistance

c)

weight

d)

centripetal force

55.

Gravitational force exerted on an object.

a)

weight

b)

free fall

c)

gravity

d)

terminal velocity

56.
What is the net force?
a)
5.5 N left
b)
5.5 N right
c)
2.5 N left
d)
2.5 N right
57.

Using the gravity of earth at 9.81 m/s2 , how much does a person with a mass of 35 kg weigh in Newton's?

a)

0.28 N

b)

343 N

c)

3.57 N

d)

212 N

58.

A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2. what was the force?

a)

25 Newtons

b)

20 Newtons

c)

200 Newtons

d)

10 Newtons

59.
What is the net force?
a)
20 N 
b)
0 N 
c)
400 N 
d)
40 N 
60.
What is the net force?
a)
30 N 
b)
25 N 
c)
5 N 
d)
55 N 
61.

How does inertia change as mass increases?

a)

Inertia would increase

b)

Inertia would Decrease

c)

Mass has no effect on inertia

d)

It would depend on the acceleration

62.

What states that "every object in the universe attracts every other object"?

a)

Law of Universal Gravitation

b)

Newton's First Law of Motion

c)

Law of Universal Attraction

d)

Inertia & gravity

63.

Why does a feather fall slower than a brick?

a)

Because it is lighter

b)

Because it is heavier

c)

Because it is less dense

d)

Because it has more air resistance and a lower terminal velocity

64.
Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are...
a)
mass and distance 
b)
mass and matter
c)
distance and weight 
d)
weight and mass
65.
If I double the mass of one object, but don't change anything else... WHat happens to the gravitational force between two objects?
a)
Doubles
b)
Quadruples
c)
Cut in Half
d)
4x Smaller
66.

This car is turning, but there’s a puddle of water in the road. Which diagram best shows how the puddle will affect the path of the car after it hits the puddle?

a)
b)
c)
d)
67.
You swing a bucket of water attached to a string in a circle above your head. What keeps the water in the bucket?
a)
Friction
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Gravity
d)
Inertia
68.

What is the centripetal force acting on a satellite orbiting the Earth?

a)

Tension

b)

Inertia

c)

Gravity

d)

Acceleration

69.

Why do astronauts appear to be weightless in space?

a)

They are weightless, no gravity in space

b)

They are in a state of constant free-fall

c)

They aren't totally weightless, just in micro-gravity

d)

Space is made up by NASA, so astronauts are just in a gravity blocking bunker

70.
An archer shoots an arrow. The action force is the bowstring against the arrow, the reaction force is...
a)
Air resistance against the bow
b)
the arrow's push against the bowstring
c)
the grip of the archer's hand on the bow
71.
A rocket pushes exhaust 10, 000 N. Without any other forces acting on the rocket, how much force does the rocket go forward?
a)
15,000 N
b)
1,000 N
c)
10, 000 N
72.

If the rocket has a mass of 5 kg, the gasses have a mass of 0.5 kg and there is 1,500 N of force being exerted, what is the acceleration of the rocket?

a)

750 m/s2

b)

300 m/s2

c)

3,000 m/s2

d)

7,500 m/s2

73.

If the rocket has a mass of 5 kg, the gasses have a mass of 0.5 kg and there is 1,500 N of force being exerted, why does the rocket accelerate less?

a)

The fins slow it down

b)

The gasses have significantly less mass

c)

Because its the action force not the reaction force

d)

The gasses are assisted by gravity

74.

If the rocket has a mass of 5 kg, the gasses have a mass of 0.5 kg and there is 1,500 N of force being exerted, what is the acceleration of the gas?

a)

750 m/s2

b)

149.5 m/s2

c)

3,000 m/s2

d)

7,500 m/s2

75.

Which of the following occurs when we increase an object's mass?

a)

A decrease in the object's momentum

b)

An overall decrease in the object' gravitational pull

c)

The object's inertia will increase

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

76.

According to Newton’s Second Law, which of the following three factors are related?

a)

Force, Mass, and Acceleration

b)

Force, Momentum, and Velocity

c)

Force, Speed, and Acceleration

d)

Mass, Velocity, and Momentum

e)

Speed, Mass, and Acceleration

77.

After the cannon fires the cannonball, why would the cannon have less acceleration compared to the cannonball?

a)

The cannon has more mass

b)

The cannon has less mass

c)

The cannon has more force acting on it

d)

The cannon has less force acting on it

78.

Which of the spheres have the greatest acceleration?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

79.

Which of these would be an example of friction acting as a centripetal force?

a)

When the carnival ride spins and sticks me to the wall

b)

When I spin a bucket of water over my head and the water stays inside the bucket

c)

When my car goes around a sharp turn and doesn't slide off the road.

d)

When my wheels spin in the mud, but the car stays in one spot.

80.

Which of these experiences an acceleration of 2 m/s^2

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

81.

states that an object moving at a constant velocity keeps moving at that velocity unless an unbalanced force acts on it

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Law of Conservation of Momentum

82.

If an object was accelerating at 10 m/s2, and a force of 35 newtons was required to accelerate it, what was the object's mass?

a)

3.5 kilogram

b)

350 kilograms

c)

0.35 kilograms

d)

35 kilograms

83.
If I double the distance between two objects, what happens to their gravitational Force?
a)
4x bigger
b)
4x smaller
c)
2x bigger
d)
2x smaller
84.
What happens to Gravitational force if I double both of the masses but don't change their distance?
a)
doubles
b)
half as big
c)
4x bigger
d)
4x smaller
85.
As this ride starts to spin in a circular motion the swings move outward.  What is the cause of this outward motion
a)
Gravity
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Speed
d)
Inertia
86.
A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the ball. The reaction force is...
a)
The grip of the player's hands on the ball
b)
the air resistance of the ball
c)
the force of the ball against the bat
87.

If a bowling ball and feather are dropped from the same height in the absence of air, what will happen?

a)

The feather will hit the ground first

b)

The bowling ball will hit the ground first

c)

They will hit the ground at the same time

d)

They will both float in the air

88.

When a force is exerted on an object, an equal and opposite force is exerted by the object. These forces are referred to as ______________?

a)

Centripetal Forces

b)

Frictional Forces

c)

Gravitational Forces

d)

Action-Reaction Forces

89.

To report the ____ of an object, we must specify both its speed and its direction .

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Displacement

d)

Acceleration

90.

The speedometer in your car tells you the ____ of your car.

a)

acceleration

b)

average speed

c)

instantaneous speed

d)

velocity

e)

inertia

91.

The rate of change of an object’s velocity is

a)

Speed

b)

Acceleration

c)

Constant speed

d)

Displacement

92.

A freight train has more ___ than a car, so it has greater inertia.

a)

Velocity

b)

Mass

c)

Speed

d)

Acceleration

93.

This is a graph of a student riding to school. What can you tell about the motion of the bike rider from point B to C?

a)

The rider is accelerating.

b)

The rider is returning at a constant speed.

c)

The rider is stationary.

d)

The rider has negative acceleration.

94.

What can be said of the rider from point C to D?

a)

The rider is accelerating.

b)

The rider is moving back toward the start.

c)

The rider is moving forward at a constant speed.

d)

The rider is moving forward at a faster speed than from A to B.

95.

What is the average speed of the rider?

a)

0.18 km/min

b)

5 km/min

c)

45 km/min

d)

50 km/min^2

96.

Which pair of graphs show acceleration ?

a)

B and C

b)

B and D

c)

C and D

d)

D and E

e)

B and F

97.

Which graph shows constant (non 0) speed?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

E

98.

Which graph shows a stationary object?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

99.

Which graph shows an object experiencing unbalanced forces?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

None of the graphs

100.

Which graph shows constant speed ?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

101.

Which graph shows a stationary object?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

E

e)

None of these

102.
What is the speed of an object that travels 60 meters in 4 seconds?
a)
240 m/s
b)
15 m/s
c)
0.067 m/s
d)
15 mph
103.
What is the speed of an object that travels 20 meters in 4 seconds?
a)
80 m/s
b)
0.2 m/s
c)
5 m/s
d)
24 m/s
104.

Jose wandered 4 km at 2 km/hr. How long did Jose wander?

a)

2 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

0.5 hours

d)

2 km

105.

How long will it take to go 150,000 m traveling at 50 km/hr?

a)

3000 hours

b)

3000 sec

c)

3 hours

d)

3 sec

106.
A drag racer accelerated from 0 m/s to 200 m/s in 5 s.  What was the acceleration?
a)
0 m/s
b)
40 m/s2
c)
-40 m/s2
d)
40 m/s
107.
Acceleration can be classified as _______________
a)
Speeding up
b)
Slowing Down
c)
Changing directions
d)
All of the above
108.

The Big Bang Theory suggests that our universe formed as the result of a huge explosion that sent all existing matter flying outward from a single point. The Big Bang Theory is supported by which of these observations?

a)

All matter in the universe is composed of the same atoms.

b)

All galaxies appear to be moving away from all other galaxies.

c)

All stars in the universe are approximately the same age.

d)

The universe is relatively the same temperature in all locations.

109.

What does it mean if a galaxy gives off light which has been shifted toward the red end of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

The galaxy is much older than Earth.

b)

The galaxy is moving away from Earth.

c)

The galaxy is very hot and has not cooled down yet.

d)

The remnants of an explosion are between the galaxy and Earth.

110.

Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation (CMBR) is the term used to describe the residual microwave radiation observed everywhere in the universe that seems to have no single source. The observation of CMBR is used as evidence of The Big Bang Theory because it is believed to be -

a)

The result of collisions between neighboring galaxies.

b)

Particles of dust that have absorbed radioactivity.

c)

Radiation left over from the rapid expansion of matter.

d)

Light energy emitted from the source of The Big Bang.

111.
Planets orbit the Sun in a shape called a(n)
a)
circle
b)
ellipse
c)
focus
d)
perihelion
112.
Where is the planet moving faster
a)
Position A to B
b)
Position B to C
c)
Position H to I
d)
Position I to J
113.
Kepler's 2nd Law deals with 
a)
the shape of the planets' orbits
b)
the speed/area the planet travels 
c)
the length of time it takes the planet to orbit the sun
114.
A planet moves __________ when it is farthest from the sun.
a)
faster
b)
slower
115.
The farther away a planet is from the sun, the _______ it takes it to orbit the sun once. 
a)
longer
b)
shorter
116.

Particles are tightly packed together, usually into geometric shapes.

a)

Bose-Einstein Condensate

b)

Solid

c)

Liquid

d)

Gas

e)

Plasma

117.

The sub-atomic particle that is so small that the mass is nearly zero is called what?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Quark

118.

The tiny particle that makes up Protons and Neutrons that comes in 6 “flavors” is called what?

a)

Muon

b)

Gluon

c)

Photon

d)

Quark

119.

The positively charged particle that makes up the identity of an element is called what?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Electron

d)

Positron

120.
What is the nucleus? 
a)
The center (middle) of the atom
b)
The outside electron cloud
c)
The area inside the electron charge
d)
The positive or negative charge of the atom 
121.

This model this model was the first to show a nucleus, consisting of protons and neutron. Electrons surround the nucleus but are not shown in distinct energy levels.

a)

The "Rutherford Model" of the atom

b)

The "Plum Pudding Model" of the atom

c)

The "Quantum Mechanical Model" of the atom

122.

This model was developed after J.J. Thompson discovered electrons, a particle smaller than an atom. It shows electrons floating freely in a positive region.

a)

The "Plum Pudding Model" of the atom

b)

The "Rutherford Model" of the atom

c)

Democritus's model of the atom

d)

The "Quantum Mechanical Model" of the atom

123.
Ernest Rutherford discovered that atoms were mostly _________________. 
a)
negatively charged
b)
positively charged
c)
electrons
d)
empty space. 
124.
This model added on to previous models by showing electrons existed at certain "energy levels". However it does not accurately show what those levels look like.
a)
The "Bohr Model" of the atom
b)
The "Rutherford Model" of the atom
c)
The "Plumb Pudding Model" of the atom
d)
The "Quantum Mechanical Model" of the atom
125.

The temperature at which a phase change occurs turning a liquid into a solid.

a)

Melting Point

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Heat of Fusion

d)

Heat of Vaporization

126.

The amount of energy given off when a gas turns into a liquid (also the amount of energy absorbed when a gas turns back into a liquid).

a)

Melting Point

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Heat of Fusion

d)

Heat of Vaporization

127.

The amount of energy needed to convert a solid into a liquid.

a)

Melting Point

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Heat of Fusion

d)

Heat of Vaporization

128.

The temperature at which a phase change occurs turning a liquid into a solid.

a)

Melting Point

b)

Boiling Point

c)

Heat of Fusion

d)

Heat of Vaporization

129.

Which state of matter listed here has particles spread the furthest apart?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Missouri

130.

Which of the states of matter listed here have particles with the greatest kinetic energy?

a)

Solid

b)

LIquid

c)

Gas

d)

Euphoria

131.

What is the main difference between plasma and gasses?

a)

Plasma is spelled with a "P" while the "P" in gasses are silent.

b)

Plasma is good at conducting electricity while gasses tend not to

c)

Plasma is hot while gasses aren't ever hot

d)

There is no difference, they are both names for the same thing

132.

What is the main difference between liquids and gasses?

a)

Liquids are fluids, gasses are not

b)

All liquids are clear, but not all gasses are

c)

All gasses are liquids, but not all liquids are gasses

d)

Liquids change shape, but keep volume. Gasses change both shape and volume.

133.
What line segment represents only the solid state?
a)
A-B
b)
B-C
c)
C-D
d)
D-E
134.
Which segment represents the heat of fusion?
a)
A-B
b)
B-C
c)
C-D
d)
D-E
135.
What state(s) of matter are present at D-E?
a)
Solid-liquid
b)
Liquid
c)
Liquid-gas
d)
Gas-Solid
136.
Between which points is the temperature of the substance increasing?
a)
A-B only. 
b)
A-B, C-D, E-F
c)
B-C only. 
d)
B-C, D-E
137.
Between which points is the substance changing state?
a)
A-B only. 
b)
A-B, C-D, E-F
c)
B-C only. 
d)
B-C, D-E
138.

Between which two points is Heat of Vaporization?

a)

A <----> B

b)

B <----> C

c)

C <----> D

d)

D <----> E

e)

E <----> F

139.
A substance's heating curve is shown in the graph.  What is its boiling point?
a)
100 C
b)
60 C
c)
80 C
d)
20 C
140.

Which state of matter has particles that are somewhat close together and have enough kinetic energy to slide past each other?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

141.
When the temperature of matter decreases the particles ...
a)
speed up and move farther apart
b)
speed up and move closer together
c)
slow down and move farther apart
d)
slow down and move closer together
142.
Railroad tracks have gaps between rails so they don't buckle in hot weather because
a)
thermal conductivity
b)
specific heat
c)
thermal expansion
d)
thermal insulation
143.
Which substance is the gas?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
144.

Particles in a gas move __________, than particles in a solid

a)

faster

b)

slower

c)

less randomly

d)

less fluidly

145.
Subatomic particle with a charge of 0
a)
neutron
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
quark
146.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

147.
Subatomic particles with a positive charge
a)
neutrons
b)
atomic mass
c)
protons
d)
isotopes
148.

These are found in the nucleus and have a neutral charge.

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

149.
These will determine what element an atom is. 
a)
number of neutrons
b)
number of electrons
c)
number of atoms 
d)
number of protons 
150.

The number 16 for the atomic element sulfur is the

a)

ionic number

b)

isotope

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

151.

How many protons does sulfur have?

a)

32

b)

16

c)

48

d)

12

152.

How many electrons does sulfur have when it is neutral?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

48

d)

12

153.

How many neutrons does Sulfur (S-32) have?

a)

16

b)

32

c)

48

d)

12

154.

A letter or pair of letters used as a shorthand method of writing the name of an element is called the __________.

a)

Describer

b)

Chemical Symbol

c)

Chemical Letters

d)

Atomic Number

155.
What is atomic number?
a)
Number of protons in an atoms 
b)
Number of neutrons in an atom
c)
Mass of an atom
d)
Charge on an atom
156.
The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom is called the...
a)
Atomic number
b)
Proton number
c)
Mass number
d)
Weight number
157.

Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons are called ____.

a)

Adams

b)

Isotoners

c)

Isotopes

d)

Electrons

158.

What is the most common element in the universe?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Fire

159.

What is the charge of an electron?

a)

+1

b)

-1

c)

+/- 1

d)

0

160.

What is the charge of an neutron?

a)

+1

b)

-1

c)

+/- 1

d)

0

161.

What is the charge of a proton?

a)

+1

b)

-1

c)

+/- 1

d)

0

162.

What do we call a vertical column on the periodic table?

a)

Group

b)

Period

c)

Series

d)

Pillar

163.

What do we call a horizontal row on the periodic table?

a)

Group

b)

Period

c)

Series

d)

Pillar

164.

What do we call the outermost layer of electrons on an atom?

a)

Frosting Electrons

b)

Valence Electrons

c)

Cloud Electrons

d)

Free Electrons

165.

What does an Lewis Dot Diagram (LDD) show us?

a)

Dots

b)

Electron Dots

c)

Valence Electrons

d)

Protons

166.

How many electrons can the first energy level hold?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

Trick question, electrons are in clouds not levels.

167.

What is part A?

a)

Metals

b)

Non-Metals

c)

Metaloids

d)

Heavy Metal

168.

What is part B?

a)

Metals

b)

Non-Metals

c)

Metaloids

d)

Heavy Metal

169.

What is part C?

a)

Metals

b)

Non-Metals

c)

Metaloids

d)

Heavy Metal

170.

Why do elements in a group tend to have similar properties?

a)

They have the same number of valence electrons

b)

They don't, they are all unique

c)

Because they all have similar names

d)

Because they all have the same number of neutrons

171.

This is a correct dot diagram for neon (Ne)

a)

true

b)

false

172.
What is the correct formula for this molecule?
a)
NH
b)
N3H
c)
NH3
d)
NH4
173.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot structure for the molecule fluorine (F2)?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
174.

Which is the correct molecular structure for carbon dioxide CO2?

a)
b)
c)
d)
175.
What type of bond is this?
a)
ionic
b)
covalent
176.
This picture shows a...
a)
Ionic Bond
b)
Covalent Bond
c)
Both bonds
d)
Neither bond
177.

Where are metals located on the periodic table?

a)

right side of the staircase

b)

on the staircase

c)

left side of the staircase

178.

H2O has how many covalent bonds?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

179.

How many covalent bonds in this molecule

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

180.

N2 is an example of a

a)

Single Bond

b)

Double Bond

c)

Triple Bond

181.

Chloroform was used as anesthesia and a sedative a long time ago. Which of these is the probable formula of the molecule shown?

a)

Cl2

b)

C6H12O6

c)

CHCl3

d)

CH4

e)

H2O

182.

This could be the dot diagram of

a)

Mg

b)

Cl

c)

C

d)

O

183.

What is the goal of the Lewis Dot Structure?

a)

To determine the electron position.

b)

To show the element's valence electrons & bonding capabilities.

c)

To find the atomic mass of an element.

d)

To search for the number of electrons in an individual atom.

184.

This is a correct dot diagram for carbon (C)

a)

true

b)

false

185.

Which of the following is the correct electron-dot diagram for an atom with an electron configuration of 2-8-18-5?

a)
b)
c)
d)
186.

Bohrs Model of the Atom shows ______ orbiting the nucleus in certain energy levels. Similar to how planets orbit the sun.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

187.

I have recorded the valence numbers on my periodic table.

a)

Yes

b)

I do not have a copy of the periodic table

188.

How many valence electrons does Be have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

9

189.

Which element is in group 14 and period 3?

a)

N

b)

Na

c)

Si

d)

Li

190.

Which element is in group 11 and period 5?

a)

Na

b)

B

c)

Ag

d)

Rb

191.

How many valence electrons does Xenon have?

a)

54

b)

131

c)

8

d)

18

192.

In what section of the periodic table can Silver be found?

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Noble Gases

c)

Transition Metals

d)

Rare Earth Elements

193.

An atom that gains or loses an electron becomes

a)

an isotope

b)

a new element

c)

an ion

d)

a molecule

194.

What type of bond forms CaF2

a)

covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

all answers are correct

195.
What elements generally make an ionic bond?
a)
metal and nonmetal
b)
2 nonmetals
c)
metal
d)
none of the above
196.
What elements generally make a covalent bond?
a)
metal and nonmetal
b)
2 nonmetals
c)
metal
d)
none of the above
197.
Predict the bond that will form between Be and F.
a)
Ionic
b)
Covalent
198.
In chemical compounds, covalent bonds form when
a)
the electronegativity difference between two atoms is very large.
b)
electrons are completely transferred between two metals.
c)
pairs of electrons are shared between two nonmetal atoms.
d)
two nonmetal atoms are attracted to each other by opposite charges.
199.

How many electrons (total) does Si contain when it is neutral?

a)

14

b)

28

c)

2

d)

4

200.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
201.
What happens when an atom loses an electron?
a)
It becomes Negatively Charged
b)
It remains neutral because the proton also leaves.
c)
It becomes Positively Charged
d)
It stays the same.
202.
The number of _____ is most important in determining how an atoms will bond. 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Protons
c)
Valence Electrons
d)
Electron sin the innermost shell
203.

What are the columns referred to on the Periodic Table of Elements?

a)

Families or groups

b)

Periods

204.

What are the rows referred to on the Periodic Table of Elements?

a)

Families or groups

b)

Periods

205.

Atomic Mass equals the combined number of

a)

Protons and Electrons

b)

Electrons and Neutrons

c)

Protons and Neutrons

206.

The number of valence electrons ________ by 1 as you move across the period.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

207.

Aluminum has an atomic number of 13 and a mass number of 27. How many neutrons does Aluminum have?

a)

13

b)

14

c)

27

d)

40

208.

Which of the following is a metal?

a)

Lithium

b)

Silicon

c)

Sulfur

d)

Boron

209.

Which element is a member of the halogen family?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Chlorine

c)

Argon

d)

Carbon

210.

Which element is a member of the noble gases?

a)

Te

b)

Iodine

c)

Xenon

d)

Nitrogen

211.

Which of the following is a nonmetal?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Lithium

c)

Sodium

d)

Silicon

212.

Which of the following is a transition metal?

a)

Mercury

b)

Oxygen

c)

Calcium

d)

Aluminum

213.

Where are the metalloids located on the periodic table?

a)

To the right of the staircase

b)

On the staircase

c)

To the left of the staircase

d)

Who knows

214.

What type of element loses electrons in order to achieve a stable valence shell?

a)

Nonmetal

b)

Metalloid

c)

Alkali Earth Metal

d)

They all lose electrons

215.

This group is the most reactive of the metals

a)

Alkali

b)

Alkaline earth

c)

Transition

d)

Other metals

216.

Which two elements are in the same period?

a)

Sn and Rb

b)

F and Cl

c)

K and Ba

d)

Se and Te

217.

Which element has similar properties to magnesium?

a)

Sodium

b)

Aluminum

c)

Calcium

d)

Chlorine

218.
Which group has the most reactive nonmetals?
a)
alkali metals
b)
noble gases
c)
metalloids
d)
halogens
219.
What is the charge of an atom that has gained one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
220.

This group contains two elements that are used for fertilizer, and it has one of the oldest poisons on earth.

a)

oxygen family

b)

noble gases

c)

nitrogen family

d)

carbon family

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