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Mrs.Hartman's Bellringers - Unit 1-9

Total questions: 221

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Estimate the percentage of students that got a B on the test

a)

25%

b)

60%

c)

10%

d)

5%

2.

What conclusion can be drawn from the graph shown?

a)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing over time.

b)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels are responsible for global temperature changes.

c)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been increasing over time.

d)

Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have remained the same over time.

3.

Based on Figure 1-1, it can be correctly concluded that the pituitary extract...

a)

affects the growth of rats

b)

is essential for life

c)

affects the growth of all animals

d)

determines when a rat will be born

4.

Use the graph below to answer the last 3 questions. Figure 1-1 shows the average growth rate for 38 pairs of newborn rats. One of each pair was injected with anterior pituitary extract. The other member of each pair served as a control. At 75 days, what was the average weight of the rats injected with pituitary extract?

a)

65 grams

b)

125 grams

c)

200 grams

d)

225 grams

5.

The graph shows the relationship between the weight of treated and untreated rats and the

a)

age of the rats

b)

size of the rats' pituitary glands

c)

type of food fed to the rats

d)

sex of the rats

6.

_____ is the study of living organisms

a)

Sociology

b)

Physics

c)

Chemistry

d)

Biology

7.

Which is NOT a rule of Lab Safety

a)

Always wear your PPE during a lab

b)

Long hair must be secured away from face

c)

No eating or drinking in the lab

d)

You must line up to pick up lab materials

8.

The process by which organisms keep their internal conditions relatively stable is called...

a)

evolution

b)

homeostasis

c)

sexual reproduction

d)

metabolism

9.

Which of the following characteristics of living things best explains why some North American birds fly south for the winter?

a)

energy and ability to metabolize

b)

evolution

c)

reproduction

d)

response to the environment

10.

You notice Ms. Hartman gets really excited about Biology. You say, "she must really care about teaching Biology to her students". That statement is...

a)

an inference

b)

true

c)

an observation

d)

false

11.

A student studied the location of single celled photosynthetic organisms in a lake for a period of several weeks. The depth at which these organisms were found at different times of the day varied greatly. Some of the data collected are shown in the table below. Which of the following statements would be a valid inference based on the data?

a)

most photosynthetic organisms live below a depth of 150 centimeters

b)

photosynthetic organisms respond to changing light levels

c)

oxygen production increases as photosynthetic organisms move deeper in the lake

d)

photosynthetic organisms move up and down to increase their rate of carbon dioxide production

12.

An investigation was performed with honeybees to determine the average amount of nectar a bee carried in relation to the distance the flowers were from the hive. The following data was collected: Which inference is best supported by the data collected?

a)

The flowers near the hive had less nectar.

b)

The distance had no clear effect on the amount of nectar collected.

c)

There is a distance beyond which bees lack the energy to carry back a maximum load of nectar.

d)

The farther away the bees had to go the less nectar they carried.

13.

Look at the picture and determine one observation that is both qualitative and quantitative

a)

One beaker has 500 mL of blue liquid in it

b)

it weighs 100 grams

c)

the blue liquid is water

d)

Both beakers have blue liquid in them.

14.

What is the name of variable that changes because of the Independent Variable and is measured?

a)

control

b)

dependent variable

c)

independent variable

d)

experimental

15.

A company that manufactures a popular multivitamin wanted to determine whether their multivitamin had any side effects. For its initial study, the company chose 2000 individuals to take one of their multivitamin tablets per day for one year. Scientists from the company surveyed the participants to determine whether they had experienced any side effects. The greatest problem with this procedure is that...

a)

no control group was used

b)

the study lasted only one year

c)

only one brand of vitamin was tested

d)

the sample size was not large enough

16.

What is the independent variable for this graph?

a)

Enzyme Activity Rate

b)

Temperature

17.

Which of the following statements is true about scientific theories?

a)

Scientific theories become hypotheses.

b)

Scientific theories summarize patterns found in nature.

c)

Scientific theories become scientific laws.

d)

Scientific theories are never proven.

18.

A Scientific Law ________________

a)

describes why something happens based on peer reviewed, empirical data

b)

is based off of inferences

c)

is the result of a Scientific Theory

d)

states that something happens given a specific natural circumstance

19.

Scientific Laws are based off of ______________, while Scientific Theories are based off of ________________.

a)

inferences; observations

b)

obervations; inferences

c)

Qualitative data; Quantitative data

d)

Quantitative data; Qualitative data

20.

The microscope you are most likely to use in high school and college is...

a)

Dissecting Microscope

b)

SEM Microscope

c)

Compound Microscope

d)

TEM Microscope

21.

Which of the following is not a true statement about compound light microscopes?

a)

They can be used to observe living specimens.

b)

They use light as their Illuminating source.

c)

They use electrons as their Illuminating source.

d)

They can be used to observe preserved specimens.

22.

Which of the following tools used by biologists would be the best choice for viewing a live bacteria cell?

a)

SEM

b)

TEM

c)

compound light microscope

d)

electronic balance

23.

This is an image of a Tardigrade, also known as a water bear. It is one of the world's most indestructible creatures and is very commonly found in human eyelashes. Don't worry though... this one is dead. What kind of microscope captured this image?

a)

TEM microscope

b)

Compund microscope

c)

Dissection Microscope

d)

SEM microscope

24.

The image shown is bacteria that has been stained to differentiate them from other cells. Which microscope was used to view these bacterial cells?

a)

Compound Microscope (Light Microscope)

b)

Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)

c)

Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM

d)

Dissecting Microscope

25.

If you were a scientist and you wanted to see the inside of an algae cell to look at the tiny organelles, which microscope would you choose?

a)

Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM)

b)

Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM)

c)

Compound Microscope (Light Microscope)

d)

Dissecting Microscope

26.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?

a)

the ability to metabolize

b)

growth and development

c)

response to environment

d)

the ability to move

27.

Water is considered a(n) ___________ factor in an ecosystem

a)

abiotic

b)

catalyzing

c)

biotic

d)

conductive

28.

What is the name of the test subject or group that represents what would have happened had you done nothing in the experiment (baseline)

a)

experimental

b)

independent

c)

control

d)

dependent

29.

Which of these is considered to be a biotic factor?

a)

Salinity

b)

Temperature

c)

Compost

d)

Water

30.

Which variable is observed for changes in response to the independent variable?

a)

Dependent Variable

b)

Independent Variable

c)

Constants

d)

Control Group

31.

Which factor in a controlled experiment is deliberately changed?

a)

Dependent Variable

b)

Constant

c)

Independent Variable

d)

Control Group

32.

An experiment was designed to determine the effect of nitrates on plant growth. Two groups of plants were grown under identical conditions, except one group was watered with a dilute nitrate solution and the other group received water without nitrates. In this investigation, the group of plants grown without added nitrates is known as the...

a)

variable

b)

control

c)

environmental stimulus

d)

abiotic factor

33.

An experiment was carried out to determine which mouthwash was most effective against bacteria commonly found in the mouth. Four paper discs were each dipped into a different brand of mouthwash. The discs were then placed onto the surface of a culture plate that contained food, moisture, and bacteria commonly found in the mouth. The diagram below shows the growth of bacteria on the plate after 24 hours. Which change in procedure would have improved the experiment?

a)

using a smaller plate with less food and moisture

b)

using the same size paper discs for each mouthwash

c)

using bacteria from many habitats other than the mouth

d)

using the same type of mouthwash on each disc

34.

Researchers notice that animal populations in a wildlife preserve have been decreasing. Which step should the researchers perform to obtain the most valid data about the decreasing animal population?

a)

analyze data about areas of the preserve that require extensive maintenance

b)

interview current and former employees about their favorite animal found in the preserve

c)

throughout the year count and record animals throughout the preserve, as well as log animal deaths

d)

count and track the number of guests visiting the preserve on a weekly basis

35.

For her science fair project, Samantha would like to see how different substance affect bone mass. She collects several chicken leg bones from the grocery store, records each bone’s mass, and soaks them in different liquids for 48 hours. After 48 hours Samantha measures the mass of each bone again.

a)

l only

b)

ll only

c)

l and lll

d)

l, ll, and lll

36.

The diagram below shows two setups used to study bacterial growth. Each setup initially contained an equal number of the bacterium E. coli in different carbohydrate solutions. After one hour, a 1-milliliter sample was drawn from each tube and analyzed. The number of bacteria found in the sample from test tube 1 was higher than the number in the sample from test tube 2. What conclusion regarding this investigation is NOT valid?

a)

All bacteria grow best in a solution of glucose than in a solution of sucrose.

b)

The rate of growth of E. coli depends on the type of carbohydrate present.

c)

The type of sugar solution will make a difference in the rate of growth of E. coli.

d)

E. coli grows better in a 10% solution of glucose than in a 10% solution of sucrose.

37.

A mineral supplement designed to prevent the flu is given to two groups of people during a scientific study. Dosages of the supplement are measured in milligrams per day, as shown in the table below. After 10 weeks, neither group reports a case of the flu. Which action will make the study provide useful data?

a)

testing the supplement on both groups for only 5 weeks

b)

including a third group that does not receive the supplement

c)

only testing the group that is given 200 mg of the supplement

d)

including a third group that receives 150 mg of the supplement

38.

The current knowledge concerning cells is the result of the investigations and observations of many scientists. The work of these scientists forms a well-accepted body of knowledge about cells. This body of knowledge is an example of which of the following?

a)

a controlled experiment

b)

a hypothesis

c)

a research plan

d)

a theory

39.

In the 1600s, Francesco Redi was the first scientist to try to disprove spontaneous generation, the belief that living things can come from non-living things. Louis Pasteur, in 1859, finally disproved a centuries old belief in the origin of living things. Which is the best statement that can be made about scientific theories?

a)

Scientific theories are well-tested hypotheses supported by an abundance of hypothetical evidence.

b)

Scientifc theories can never be disproven once they are accepted by scientists.

c)

Scientific theories are the culmination of many scientific investigations drawing together all current evidence.

d)

Scientific theories are tested over time.

40.

Scientists design experiments which follow the scientific process then create a theoretical model based on the experimental results. For the model to be accepted by the scientific community and considered a theory, what are the series of events which need to occur?

a)

Scientists make predictions, retest the predictions, but do not communicate the results.

b)

Scientists rewrite the hypothesis to fit the theoretical model then repeat the same experiment for a minimum of five years because this is the only way to validate the results.

c)

After scientists communicate the results to the scientific community, other scientists will need to confirm and validate the results in order to accept the theoretical model.

d)

Nothing more is necessary; the model will automatically be accepted by all scientists.

41.

Scientists have made many observations about cells. Three of these observations are listed below. Which of these was developed after scientists analyzed these observations?

a)

the cell model

b)

the cell hypothesis

c)

the cell theory

d)

the cell law

42.

If new experimental findings contradict a scientific theory, what might happen to the theory?

a)

The theory could become a law, with an exception for the new evidence.

b)

The new evidence could be accepted and the theory changed.

c)

The new evidence could be rejected because it does not support the theory.

d)

The theory could stand as written, ignoring the new evidence.

43.

Which requirement must be met in order for a scientific statement to be accepted as a theory?

a)

The statement cannot be proven wrong.

b)

The statement is accepted by all scientists in that field of study.

c)

The statement describes a new, previously unstudied phenomenon.

d)

The statement relies on many supporting pieces of evidence.

44.

SC.912.L.18.1 Which macromolecule is made from the monomer shown below?

a)

nucleic acids

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

carbohydrates

45.

SC.912.L.18.1 This Biomolecule contains the elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and sometimes sulfur. The R represents a chain that loops and twists around into a globular shape which allows it to perform a variety of functions based on its structure.

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipids

46.

SC.912.L.18.1 This Biomolecule is composed of the elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus. The Phosphate portions of the monomers stick together to create long chains that are known to arrange in a double-helix pattern. The Nitrogenous base will be either A,C,T,G, or U.

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic Acids

47.

SC.912.L.18.1 This macromolecule has been associated a great deal with muscle building and is often used during pre- and post workouts to replenish the body of the necessary nutrients it needs to promote increased muscle function and growth. Which macromolecule is made up of a chain of amino acids and allows the muscles to contract making body movement possible?

a)

lipids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

48.

SC.912.L.18.1 The diagram below shows the structure for part of a molecule. What subunits of the molecule are shown?

a)

nucleotide

b)

amino acid

c)

glucose

d)

fatty acid

49.

SC.912.L.18.1 The diagram below represents the synthesis of nutrients to form organic compounds. Which of the following substances is most likely represented by the letter X?

a)

ozone

b)

water

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

carbohydrates

50.

SC.912.L.18.1 The diagram below shows the structure of a certain biological macromolecule. Carbon bonds are not drawn to scale. Which macromolecule is shown in the diagram?

a)

lipid

b)

carbohydrate

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

51.

SC.912.L.18.1 Four different types of macromolecules and their characteristics are listed below. What type of macromolecule is D?

a)

lipid

b)

carbohydrate

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

52.

SC.912.L.18.1 Match the letter with the appropriate subunits of the nucleotide.

a)

A. Nitrogenous Base B. Pentose Sugar C. Phosphate group

b)

A. Phosphate Group B. Nitrogenous Base C. Pentose Sugar

c)

A. Phosphate group B. Pentose Sugar C. Nitrogenous Base

d)

A. Pentose sugar B. Nitrogenous base C. Phosphate group

53.

SC.912.L.18.12 A stalk of celery is placed into a beaker of colored water. After a few minutes , the colored water has moved up into the celery stalk’s tubes. What statement below best describes this result?

a)

The water molecules moved by adhesion to the plant fibers.

b)

Roots sucked up the colored water

c)

The water molecules high heat capacity caused the colored water molecules to move up the stalk.

d)

The water molecules in the celery stalk attracted the colored water molecules to move by cohesion.

54.

SC.912.L.18.12 This property of water enables water molecules to stick to each other creating surface tension

a)

Polarity

b)

High Specific Heat

c)

Adhesion

d)

Cohesion

55.

SC.912.L.18.12 The cohesive and adhesive properties of water molecules are due to ______________ bonds between water molecules

a)

Covalent

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Ionic

d)

Double

56.

PSC.912.L.18.12 Water sticks very well to many materials. Which term relates to this property of water?

a)

adhesion

b)

surface tension

c)

capillary action

d)

cohesion

57.

SC.912.L.18.12 The diagram below shows a water molecule. What makes water a good solvent?

a)

The hydrogen atoms have a slightly positive charge and the oxygen atom has a slightly negative charge which allows water to bond with a wide range of substances.

b)

Water has more oxygen atoms to form other substances quickly.

c)

Water has only three atoms which can be easily removed to bond with other substances.

d)

The oxygen atom has a slightly positive charge and the hydrogen atoms have a slightly negative charge which allows water to bond with many substances.

58.

SC.912.L.18.12 This property of water allows water molecules to stick to everything else. For example - steam sticking to the mirror after a shower.

a)

Polarity

b)

Cohesion

c)

High Specific Heat

d)

Adhesion

59.

SC.912.L.18.12 Water is one of the most powerful natural solvents known. For instance, salt, sugar, glucose, and nitrates all dissolve readily in water. The solvent property of water is vital for life because many biochemical reactions take place only within aqueous solutions. What is another reason why the solvent property of water is important to life?

a)

Water is able to cool the body when it evaporates.

b)

Water can increase the concentration of toxic substances.

c)

Water is able to flow past obstacles present in the bowel.

d)

Water can transport nutrients throughout the body.

60.

SC.912.L.18.12 Water makes up approximately 60% of the human body and plays a vital role in regulating body temperature. Which property of water makes it good at regulating temperature?

a)

Water has an unusual crystalline structure.

b)

Water exhibits strong cohesion.

c)

Water has a high capacity for heat.

d)

Water is a good solvent.

61.

SC.912.L.18.12 Fish are able to remain alive during extremely cold winters when ice forms on top of lakes is an example of which property of water

a)

Cohesion

b)

Polarity

c)

Adhesion

d)

Water expands and rises when it freezes

62.

SC.912.L.18.12 Pure Water has a pH of ______________

a)

0 - 7

b)

Exactly 7

c)

14 +

d)

7 - 14

63.

Which two of these factors will cause enzymes to denature if not kept in the right range? (pick 2)

a)

Salinity

b)

Temperature

c)

pH

d)

Exposure to sunlight

64.

Nearly all enzymes are classified as this biomolecule which is made of monomers called amino acids

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Protein

65.

SC.912.L.18.11 There are many enzymes found in the human body. What is the function of these enzymes?

a)

to increase the amount of energy available for certain reactions to occur

b)

to adjust the temperature of the body to allow reactions to occur

c)

to lower the amount of energy needed for certain reactions to occur

d)

to provide the substrates for reactions to occur

66.

SC.912.L.18.12 One unique property of water is its high surface tension. Which of the following biological functions is facilitated by water's high surface tension?

a)

II, only

b)

III, only

c)

I and II, only

d)

II and III, only

67.

SC.912.L.18.11 Which factor makes enzymes well-suited to the role of catalyst in a biochemical reaction?

a)

Enzymes slow down reactions so products can form.

b)

Enzymes can be reused because they do not permanently get used in the reaction

c)

Enzymes do not affect the energy of a reaction.

d)

Enzymes can only bind to other enzymes so the same product is formed each time.

68.

Enzymes need certain environmental conditions in order to function properly. What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

they denature (change shape)

b)

they die

c)

they work better

d)

they change their amino acid sequence

69.

A ____________ is the chemical that is changed by the enzyme to create a product.

a)

catalyst

b)

protein

c)

substrate

d)

solute

70.

SC.912.L.18.11 Which of the following will affect an enzyme's rate of reaction?

a)

l and II only

b)

l and lll only

c)

ll and lll only

d)

l, ll, and lll

71.

SC.912.L.18.11 A digestive enzyme that is released into the small intestines by the pancreas is used to break down proteins. Data from a chemical reaction with the digestive enzyme are shown in the graph below.

a)

It breaks down the most proteins between pH 1.0 and pH 5.0.

b)

It will work best if pH levels increase above pH 10.0.

c)

It is effective at breaking down proteins from pH 1.0 to pH 10.0.

d)

It functions most efficiently from pH 7.0 to pH 9.0.

72.

Letter B in the picture is...

a)

substrate

b)

enzyme-substrate complex

c)

products

d)

active site

73.

Enzymes are biological catalysts which

a)

Increase the solubility of liquids

b)

Slows down the digestion of proteins

c)

makes solutions acidic or basic

d)

Lower the activation energy of and speed up the rate of chemical reactions

74.

SC.912.L.18.11 Sophia produces the graph shown below during a biology class investigation. What could she infer about the probable difference between the original reaction and Reaction B, based on the data?

a)

Glucose was added to Reaction B.

b)

A catalyst was added to Reaction B.

c)

Additional water was added to Reaction B.

d)

Additional reactants were added to Reaction B.

75.

SC.912.L.18.1 Both lipids and carbohydrates can be used by the cell as...

a)

replacements for salts.

b)

building blocks for RNA.

c)

sources of energy.

d)

catalysts for metabolic reactions.

76.

SC.912.L.18.1 To which class of nutrients do the molecules of fats and oils belong?

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

carbohydrates

d)

minerals

77.

SC.912.L.18.1 The picture below shows the nutritional label for Greek yogurt, a milk-based food product that is high in protein. What will happen when the 14 grams of protein in the Greek yogurt is eaten by person?

a)

It will be broken down into amino acids.

b)

It will be broken down into nucleic acids.

c)

It will be combined into polysaccharides.

d)

It will be combined into monosaccharides.

78.

SC.912.L.18.1 This biomolecule provides short term energy and is made of subunits called monosaccharides

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

79.

SC.912.L.18.1 During the digestion of foods, large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules. For example, starch, a complex carbohydrate, can be directly broken down into

a)

simple protein molecules.

b)

simple sugar molecules.

c)

amino acids.

d)

fatty acids

80.

SC.912.L.18.1 Nearly all enzymes are classified as this biomolecule which is made of monomers called amino acids

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Carbohydrate

81.

SC.912.L.18.1 Glycerols and Fatty Acids are the primary components of this biomolecule which provides long term energy storage for living organisms.

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Lipid

82.

SC.912.L.18.1 How do lipids mainly function in living organisms?

a)

as inorganic compounds

b)

as catalysts of chemical reactions

c)

as sources of stored energy

d)

as transmitters of genetic information

83.

Between 15,000 and 18,000 new species of organisms are discovered each year. Cell theory states that which of the following must be true about each new kind of organism?

a)

It must be made up of one or more cells.

b)

It cells must be able to make their own food.

c)

All its cells must perform the same function.

d)

Some of its cells must include a cell wall.

84.

As the cell theory transformed throughout the years, scientists developed several defining statements about cells. Which of these statements is part of the cell theory?

a)

Cells absorb other cells for energy.

b)

All cells are composed of identical parts.

c)

All living things are made of one or more cells.

d)

Plant cells function differently from animal cells.

85.

Which term represents the strongest, most powerful scientific explanation?

a)

conclusion

b)

hypothesis

c)

law

d)

theory

86.

What macromolecule class is represented by the picture?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

87.

Two cells are represented by the following diagram. Which of the following statements is an accurate conclusion that can be drawn about these two cells?

a)

Cell 1 is a prokaryotic cell due to the presence of ribosomes

b)

Cell 2 is a prokaryotic cell due to the presence of cytoplasm

c)

Cell 1 is an eukaryotic cell due to the presence of a flagellum

d)

Cell 2 is an eukaryotic cell due to the presence of a nucleus

88.

Which statement is true about the cells in the diagram?

a)

Cell 1 is a bacteria and cell 2 is a plant cell with chloroplast

b)

Cell 1 is a prokaryote and cell 2 is a eukaryote

c)

They both are animal cells.

d)

They both have a nucleus.

89.

How do plant cells differ from animal cells?

a)

plant cells have a nucleus and animal cells do not

b)

plant cells have a cell membrane and animal cells do not.

c)

plant cells have cytoplasm and animal cells do not.

d)

plant cells have large vacuoles and animal cells have small vacuoles.

90.

He observed "cells" while observing cork cells.

a)

Schwann

b)

Schlieden

c)

Hooke

d)

Virchow

91.

Organelle that is found only in plant cells

a)

vesicle

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

central vacoule

92.

Organisms with cells that have a nucleus are called . . .

a)

Bacteria

b)

Prokaryotes

c)

Eukaryotes

d)

Archaea

93.

This scientist said all plants were made out of cells

a)

Hooke

b)

Virchow

c)

Schlieden

d)

Schwann

94.

Which of these does not describe a eukaryotic cell?

a)

complex

b)

large

c)

DNA in cytoplasm

d)

nucleus

95.

The cell membrane that surrounds all cells is said to be semipermeable. What does this mean?

a)

Only certain substances can pass through the cell membrane.

b)

Only particles of a substance that are small enough can pass through the cell membrane.

c)

The cell membrane always uses energy to transport particles of substances into and out of the cell.

d)

The cell membrane consists of two layers of lipids with proteins that are either embedded in these layers or on the surface.

96.

A diagram of a plant cell is shown below. Which of these is a function of the cell membrane and NOT the cell wall?

a)

directing growth of the plant

b)

controlling what enters the cell

c)

providing structure to the plant

d)

storing genetic material for the cell

97.

Which of these best describes the function of the semi-permeable membrane in plant and animal cells?

a)

to release ATP during the process of cellular respiration

b)

to capture light energy in order to perform photosynthesis

c)

to generate all the energy responsible for cellular metabolism

d)

to regulate the movement of material into and out of the cell

98.

Cell membranes are said to...

a)

all of these

b)

control what enters and exits cells

c)

made of a phospholipid bilayer

d)

be semipermeable

99.

Means only certain things may enter or exit a cell.

a)

hydrophobic

b)

isotonic

c)

hydrophilic

d)

selectively permeable

100.

Particles moving from a high concentration to a lower concentration are demonstrating _____.

a)

mitosis

b)

active transport

c)

osmosis

d)

diffusion

101.

A student watered a wilted houseplant. The diagrams show how the plant changed over time. Which cell organelle is responsible for this change?

a)

nucleus

b)

cell membrane

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

ribosome

102.

Which process does not require energy in the form of ATP?

a)

exocytosis

b)

phagocytosis

c)

endocytosis

d)

diffusion

103.

Which process requires cellular energy?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

passive transport

104.

Sugar is a large molecule that cannot pass freely through a cell membrane. How does this important nutrient enter the cell?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

transport pump

105.

Fish use their gills to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide with their environment. Which process allows the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide across the cell membrane of the gill cells?

a)

carrier proteins

b)

simple diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

facilitated diffusion

106.

The diagram below represents movement of a large molecule across a membrane. Which process is represented by this diagram?

a)

diffusion

b)

active transport

c)

protein building

d)

gene manipulation

107.

The movement of water only into cells is:

a)

diffusion

b)

mitosis

c)

active transport

d)

osmosis

108.

Which of the following is not a type of passive transport?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

endocytosis

109.

An investigation was set up to study the movement of water through a membrane. The results are shown in the diagram below. Based on these results, which statement correctly predicts what will happen to red blood cells when they are placed in a beaker containing a saltwater solution that has a salt concentration much higher than that of the red blood cells?

a)

The red blood cells will lose water and decrease in size.

b)

The red blood cells will first lose water, then absorb water.

c)

The red blood cells will first absorb water, then lose water.

d)

The red blood cells will absorb water and increase in size.

110.

Misha places some cells from an onion skin on a microscope slide. He uses a freshwater solution to make the wet-mount slide. When he observes the cells under the microscope for an extended period of time, what is he most likely to see?

a)

The cells have shrunk within the cell walls.

b)

The cells have not been affected by the solution.

c)

The cells have swollen, expanding the cell walls.

d)

The cells have dissolved, destroying the cell walls.

111.

When dissolved particles are the same inside and outside a cell it is said to be?

a)

isotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

osmosis

d)

hypotonic

112.

A hypertonic solution is one where...

a)

the concentration of a solution outside the cell is higher than the concentration than inside the cell

b)

the concentration of a solution outside the cell is equal to the concentration than inside the cell

c)

the concentration of a solution outside the cell is lower than the concentration than inside the cell

113.

A section of a cell membrane is shown in the diagram below. Which type of membrane transport by a carrier protein is most likely shown in the diagram if energy is NOT being used?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Active transport

d)

Facilitated diffusion

114.

A solution that is hypotonic to a cell has...

a)

more solutes than the cell.

b)

the same concentration of solutes as the cell.

c)

fewer solutes than the cell.

115.

The flower of a plant is the site of which life process?

a)

germination

b)

photosynthesis

c)

reproduction

d)

transpiration

116.

The diagram below shows the cross section of a leaf. Which of the following roles best describes one of the functions of Structure X?

a)

absorbs sunlight

b)

produces glucose

c)

transports nutrients

d)

prevents moisture loss

117.

What is the function of stomata in a leaf?

a)

to capture sunlight

b)

to exchange gases

c)

to collect nutrients

d)

to absorb water

118.

The image below shows grass growing in soil. Structure X provides more than one function to the plant. Which of the following is a function of Structure X?

a)

releases water into the soil

b)

anchors the plant in the soil

c)

absorbs oxygen from the soil

d)

transports carbon dioxide to the soil

119.

Why are the leaves of many plants broad and flat?

a)

to prevent water loss from transpiration

b)

to transport nutrients through the plant

c)

to obtain energy by breaking bonds in glucose

d)

to capture light energy used for photosynthesis

120.

Use the figure below to answer the following question. The letter "A" in the figure represents the...

a)

pistil

b)

ovary

c)

stigma

d)

anther

121.

What is the main purpose of seeds in plants that have them?

a)

To protect and distribute the fertilized egg.

b)

To entice animals to eat the plant.

c)

To be fertilized by other plants.

d)

To store water for the mother plant.

122.

Like many multicellular organisms, plants have organs that perform specific functions. Which of the following correctly pairs a plant organ with its function?

a)

Plant stems allow for plant movement.

b)

Plant roots anchor plants to the soil

c)

Plant flowers provide the energy needed for seeds to develop.

d)

Plant leaves capture the water needed for photosynthesis from rain.

123.

Flowers with brightly colored petals are generally pollinated by insects. The insects transfer pollen grains from one plant to another. The pollen is captured from the insect at the...

a)

anther

b)

style

c)

stigma

d)

ovary

124.

The underside of a leaf is dotted with tiny pores called stomata. Stomata assist in several important life processes of plants. Which of the following is NOT a function of stomata?

a)

releasing water during transpiration

b)

releasing oxygen as a waste product

c)

capturing pollen for sexual reproduction

d)

absorbing carbon dioxide for photosynthesis

125.

Which type of tissue contains open vessels that transport water, ions, minerals, and nutrients throughout a plant?

a)

dermal

b)

ground

c)

meristematic

d)

vascular

126.

Plant cells that are specialized for cell division are most likely found in what part of the plant?

a)

root tips

b)

leaf epidermis

c)

stem epidermis

d)

vascular tissue

127.

The diagram below shows the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration and the organelles in which they occur. Which statement describes how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interrelated?

a)

Oxygen is produced during cellular respiration and stored during photosynthesis.

b)

Carbon dioxide and water released by cellular respiration are used in photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis releases the energy that is stored during the process of cellular respiration.

d)

Glucose is used during cellular respiration to produce food that is broken down during photosynthesis.

128.

Cellular respiration is almost the reverse of photosynthesis. What compounds are produced in the chloroplast and used by the mitochondria?

a)

glucose and oxygen

b)

water, carbon dioxide, and ATP

c)

carbon dioxide, ADP, and glucose

d)

glucose, oxygen, and carbon dioxide

129.

The equation below is an equation for a chemical reaction. In this equation, what is the role of the light energy?

a)

Light energy is converted into minerals.

b)

Light energy makes oxygen and glucose combine.

c)

Light energy is used to absorb water from the ground.

d)

Light energy splits carbon dioxide and water molecules.

130.

Which of the following statements claims that cellular respiration and photosynthesis are opposite processes?

a)

Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy.

b)

Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.

c)

Photosynthesis removes oxygen from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back.

d)

Photosynthesis consumes glucose, and cellular respiration produces glucose.

131.

A student is collecting gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at a temperature of 27ºC. The gas being collected is probably what?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

glucose

132.

Which letter points to the structure through which water is lost during transpiration?

a)

A

b)

D

c)

E

d)

F

133.

In the figure listed below, why might the candle in jar A burn longer than the candle in jar B?

a)

Carbon dioxide produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

b)

Chloroplyll produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

c)

Glucose produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

d)

Oxygen produced by the plant allows the candle to burn longer.

134.

What organisms use cellular respiration to get energy?

a)

plants only

b)

heterotrophs only

c)

plants and animals

d)

animals only

135.

Which vascular plant organ is most dependent on surface area to carry out its function?

a)

flower

b)

fruit

c)

leaf

d)

stem

136.

The diagram shows a plant going through photosynthesis. What reactants are used during photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen and glucose

b)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

c)

light energy, carbon dioxide, and water

d)

glucose, carbon dioxide, light energy, and water

137.

Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into what products?

a)

oxygen and carbon.

b)

high-energy sugars and proteins.

c)

ATP and oxygen.

d)

oxygen and glucose.

138.

Which of the following is the correct equation for Photosynthesis?

a)

6O2 + 6H2O --> 6CO2 + C6H12O6

b)

6CO2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O --> O2

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O + light --> 6O2 + C6H12O6

d)

C6H12O6+ 6O2 ---> 6H2O + 6CO2 + 38 ATP

139.

If carbon dioxide is completely removed from a plant's environment, what would you expect to happen to the plant's production of high-energy sugars?

a)

More sugars will be produced.

b)

No sugars will be produced.

c)

The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide.

d)

Fewer sugars will be produced at first, but then the plant will recover.

140.

Where in the chloroplast is chlorophyll found?

a)

in the ATP

b)

in the stroma

c)

in the thylakoid membrane

d)

in the thylakoid space

141.

Which diagram shows photosynthesis with the correct reactants and products?

a)

b)

c)

d)

142.

Plants gather energy with light-absorbing pigments called

a)

chlorophyll.

b)

thylakoids.

c)

chloroplasts.

d)

glucose

143.

Where does photosynthesis take place?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplast

d)

ribosome

144.

Which of the following is NOT found in the overall reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

water

c)

light

d)

nitrogen

145.

Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis by absorbing

a)

high-energy sugars.

b)

chlorophyll a.

c)

chlorophyll b.

d)

sunlight

146.

Plants gather energy with light-absorbing pigments called

a)

chlorophyll.

b)

thylakoids.

c)

chloroplasts.

d)

glucose.

147.

What is the purpose of photosynthesis?

a)

to convert sunlight to glucose

b)

to change colors of leaves in the fall

c)

to make more plants

d)

to convert glucose to usable energy

148.

What are the outputs (products) of photosynthesis?

a)

glucose and carbon dioxide

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and water

d)

water and oxygen

149.

What are the inputs (reactants) of photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

glucose and carbon dioxide

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

150.

What are the three parts of an ATP molecule?

a)

adenine, thylakoid, and a phosphate group

b)

stroma, grana, and chlorophyll

c)

adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

d)

NADH, NADPH, and FADH2

151.

What does ATP stand for?

a)

adenosine triphosphate

b)

adenosine diphosphate

c)

adeline triphosphate

d)

adenosine tophosphate

152.

All of the following are parts of an ADP molecule EXCEPT

a)

structure A

b)

structure B

c)

structure C

d)

structure D

153.

Organisms use ATP as an energy currency to fuel cellular activity. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the role of ATP for energy within a cell?

a)

When the cell needs energy, ADP is broken into ATP, releasing the stored energy.

b)

ATP provides the energy for the cell to do work, such as transporting molecules across a membrane.

c)

Mitochondira in both plants and animals convert chemical energy into ATP

d)

ATP stores energy in the chemical bonds between the three phosphate groups attached to the ribose molecule.

154.

The diagram below represents a portion of a nucleic acid molecule. The part indicated by arrow X could be...

a)

adenine

b)

ribose

c)

deoxyribose

d)

phosphate

155.

Which of these statements best explains why DNA is similar in most living organisms?

a)

All organisms have the same number of chromosomes.

b)

All chromosomes have the same number of DNA nucleotide pairs.

c)

All DNA contains the same bases that code for the same amino acids.

d)

All DNA is passed from one generation to the next during reproduction.

156.

Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?

a)

RNA to DNA to Protein

b)

DNA to RNA to Protein

c)

Protein to DNA to RNA

d)

Protein to RNA to DNA

157.

Proteins have many different functions in a cell. Which of the following are possible functions of a protein?

a)

catalysts and building blocks of DNA

b)

enzymes and actively transports molecules across the cell membrane

c)

building blocks of DNA and structural components of cell membrane

d)

components of the cell membrane and main source of energy in cellular respiration

158.

DNA is composed of strands of nucleotides that pair in regular patterns and are held together by forces shown in the diagram below. What are the names of those bonds?

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

carbon bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

ionic bonds

159.

The molecule DNA contains the four bases listed below. Which base pairings normally occur during DNA replication?

a)

Guanine pairs with cytosine. Thymine pairs with thymine

b)

Adenine pairs with thymine. Cytosine pairs with guanine.

c)

Thymine pairs with guanine. Cytosine pairs with adenine.

d)

Cytosine pairs with cytosine. Thymine pairs with thymine

160.

If the structure of DNA is like a ladder, what would make up the supporting structure or "rails" (not the “rungs”) of the ladder?

a)

nucleotide bases, including uracil

b)

sugar-phosphate molecules

c)

nucleotide bases, including thymine

d)

amino acids and sugars

161.

Transcription is a process that occurs in cells. Which is the best description of transcription?

a)

DNA is copied.

b)

A RNA template is used to make proteins.

c)

A DNA template is used to generate RNA.

d)

A DNA sequence is used to activate enzymes in a cell.

162.

Which of the following are the steps that RNA must take for the process of transcription to occur?

a)

RNA should copy the DNA code in the nucleus and then travel to the cytoplasm.

b)

RNA should copy the DNA code in the cytoplasm and find a ribosome.

c)

DNA should leave the nucleus to give RNA the code at a ribosome.

d)

DNA should copy the code and give it to tRNA when mRNA arrives at the ribosome.

163.

Transcription takes place in the

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondrion

d)

ribosome

164.

Which two cell structures work together in the process of protein synthesis?

a)

nucleus and chloroplast

b)

mitochondrion and cell membrane

c)

ribosome and vacuole

d)

nucleus and ribosome

165.

Which of the following are the steps that RNA must take for the process of transcription to occur?

a)

DNA should copy the code and give it to tRNA when mRNA arrives at the ribosome.

b)

DNA should leave the nucleus to give RNA the code at a ribosome.

c)

RNA should copy the DNA code in the cytoplasm and find a ribosome.

d)

RNA should copy the DNA code in the nucleus and then travel to the cytoplasm.

166.

What is the first step in both replication and transcription?

a)

weak hydrogen bonds are broken

b)

DNA strands separate

c)

DNA is unzipped

d)

Nitrogenous bases are arranged in a specific order

167.

Which defines a codon in DNA or mRNA?

a)

two-base code

b)

pair of nucleic acid and sugar

c)

three-base code

d)

pair of phosphate and sugar

168.

The sequence of DNA below is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

169.

Translation occurs in the

a)

mitochondria

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

170.

Which of the following carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

nRNA

171.

The table below gives the codons found in messenger RNA (mRNA). Based on the table above, determine the sequence of amino acids produced by this DNA sequence: 5’ GCAGTTTTC 3’?

a)

Arg - Gln – Lys

b)

Cys - Gln - Lys

c)

Ser – Phe – Phe

d)

Ala - Val – Phe

172.

The diagram below shows a vital cell process. Which process is illustrated in this diagram?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

fermentation

173.

Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found in RNA but not DNA?

a)

cytosine

b)

adenine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

174.

Transcription is a process that occurs in cells. Which is the best description of transcription?

a)

DNA is copied.

b)

A RNA template is used to make proteins.

c)

A DNA template is used to generate RNA.

d)

A DNA sequence is used to activate enzymes in a cell.

175.

In order for protein synthesis to occur, both transcription and translation must occur. Which of the following statements describes the difference between transcription and translation?

a)

In transcription, the genetic code of a DNA molecule is first encoded. Translation is the process of converting the DNA code into code that RNA can use.

b)

In transcription, an amino acid chain is encoded in a DNA molecule. Translation is the process of turning the amino acids into nucleic acids in an RNA molecule.

c)

In transcription, a double helix DNA molecule is split into two separate single strands. Translation is the process of joining each single DNA strand with a single strand of matching RNA.

d)

In transcription, the genetic code of a DNA molecule is transferred to a messenger RNA molecule. Translation is the process of creating an amino acid chain using the encoded messenger RNA.

176.

A scientist puts nucleotide chains of UUUUUU in a test tube under conditions allowing protein synthesis. Soon the test tube is full of polypeptide chains composed only of the amino acid phenylalanine. What does this experiment indicate?

a)

The amino acid phenylalanine is composed of uracil.

b)

UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine.

c)

Protein synthesis malfunctions in test tubes.

d)

Most proteins contain only one type of amino acid.

177.

Base your answer to the following question on the structures represented in the diagram below. What is the relationship between these three structures?

a)

DNA is made up of proteins that are synthesized in the cell.

b)

Protein is composed of DNA that is stored in the cell

c)

DNA controls the production of protein in the cell.

d)

The cell is composed only of DNA and protein.

178.

A diagram of a cellular process is shown below. Which of the following identifies the process shown at point Z?

a)

Translation

b)

Translocation

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

179.

If the DNA triplets (code) are ATG CGT, then the tRNA anticodons would be

a)

UAC GCA

b)

CAU ACG

c)

ACG UAC

d)

AUG CGU

180.

Zach made the following table to show the functions of different types of RNA. Which information best completes the table?

a)

codes for DNA sequences vital to the cell

b)

builds amino acids from their chemical components

c)

carries specific amino acids to the site of protein synthesis

d)

returns genetic information from the cytoplasm back to the nucleus

181.

Which of the following do DNA and RNA have in common?

a)

Both are double-stranded.

b)

Both contain ribose molecules.

c)

Both contain thymine.

d)

Both contain phosphate groups.

182.

Which is the correct complementary strand of mRNA for the DNA code : ATTCCGATC

a)

UTTGGACTT

b)

UAAGGCUAG

c)

TAAGGCTAG

d)

TUUCCGTAG

183.

The structures and organelles in cells have specific functions. Which cell structure is the site of translation?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

chloroplast

d)

mitochondrion

184.

Name the process occurring in the diagram.

a)

Transcription

b)

Replication

c)

Translation

d)

Osmosis

185.

A single somatic cell that divides and produces identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes results from which process?

a)

fertilization

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

translation

186.

During which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

anaphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

interphase

d)

prophase

187.

One of the main functions of the cell cycle is to produce daughter cells. What characteristics do the daughter cells have after mitosis is complete?

a)

The daughter cells have half the genetic information compared to the parent cell.

b)

The daughter cells have double the genetic information compared to the parent cell.

c)

The daughter cells have the identical copies of the genetic information compared to the parent cell.

d)

The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes but the genetic information is different than the parent cell.

188.

The diagram below shows cells in the tip of an onion root. Which stage of mitosis is labeled in Stage Y?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Interphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

189.

Why do cells divide instead of just growing larger and larger?

a)

To make identical daughter cells to the parent.

b)

Because the surface area is greater than the volume and the cell can't get enough food.

c)

Because the volume of the cell increases faster than the surface area, and the cell becomes toxic

d)

To increase genetic diversity within the species.

190.

A multicellular organism begins life as a single cell—a fertilized egg with a complete set of chromosomes. The picture below shows how the cell divides to become two cells, then four cells, eight cells, and so on. Which of the following statements best describes what happens during this process?

a)

Chromosomes are duplicated before cell division so that each new daughter cell has a complete set.

b)

Chromosomes are divided evenly during cell division so that each new daughter cell has an equal share of the original set.

c)

Chromosomes are stored in the original cell to direct the division of all daughter cells, which do not have their own chromosomes.

d)

Chromosomes are randomly distributed during cell division so that some new cells have partial sets while others have complete sets.

191.

Eukaryotic cells undergo cell reproduction through mitosis. Which of the following accurately describes the importance of mitosis for an organism's survival?

a)

The identical daughter cells decrease genetic variation leading to a smaller population

b)

Increased variation in daughter cells increases the probability of survival in a changing environment

c)

Genetic information is conserved in the resulting identical daughter cells

d)

When organisms replace damaged cells, new cells with different information are able to perform different functions

192.

For some single-celled organisms reproduction only occurs asexually. What benefit does an organism gain by only using this method of reproduction?

a)

It allows for varied genetic information

b)

It is a quick way to produce two identical daughter cells.

c)

The offspring created have double the genetic information as the parent cell.

d)

It allows for daughter cells that are not genetically identical because of crossing over.

193.

Look at the diagram below. Which phase of cell division is shown in D?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

194.

Why can't we make a vaccine for cancer?

a)

Because you can't vaccinate yourself from your own cells.

b)

Because it kills it's victims too quickly for the vaccine to work.

c)

Because it mutates too quickly.

d)

Because the vaccine itself is lethal.

195.

Skin cells form new cells to replace damaged cells. What is the most important outcome of this process?

a)

The daughter cells will be identical to the parent cell.

b)

The daughter cells will be larger than the parent cell.

c)

The daughter cells will have half the information of the parent cell.

d)

The daughter cells will have different genetic combinations from the parent cell.

196.

Students are conducting a lab timing the cell cycle in normal chickens. The average time for normal cells to complete one cycle is 22 hours. What difference would be expected to see in cancer cells?

a)

Cancerous cells will not complete all phases of the cell cycle

b)

Cancerous chicken cells will spend more time in interphase

c)

Cancerous cells will complete mitosis in a shorter amount of time,

d)

Cancerous cells and normal cells will complete the cycle in the same total time.

197.

Which of these steps occurs during mitosis and maintains the chromosome number of an organism?

a)

Chromosomes become tightly coiled before cell division.

b)

Duplicated chromosomes are split into two identical cells.

c)

Genetic information is exchanged between chromosomes during cell division.

d)

Chromosomes are independently assorted into four genetically different cells.

198.

The diagram below shows a cell undergoing a specific process. Which statement best explains what is occurring in the cell?

a)

The chromosomes are being replicated.

b)

The spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes.

c)

The spindle fibers are attaching to the chromosomes.

d)

The chromosomes are condensing and becoming visible.

199.

To study mitosis in class, Sam observes onion root tips. Why would he choose to observe root tips instead of other plant parts when studying mitosis?

a)

Root tip cells are the only plant cells that undergo mitosis.

b)

Root tip cells are the largest plant cell type, ao are easier to observe.

c)

Onion root tip cells have unique structures that other plant cells do not have.

d)

Root tips grow at high rates producing a high probability of seeing mitosis stages in the cells.

200.

A diagram of meiosis I is shown below. At which stage of meiosis I does the exchange in genetic material between homologous chromosomes result in recombinant chromosomes?

a)

prophase I

b)

metaphase I

c)

anaphase I

d)

telophase I

201.

What is formed at the end of meiosis?

a)

two genetically identical cells

b)

four genetically different cells

c)

four genetically identical cells

d)

two genetically different cells

202.

The diagram shows two strawberry plants. Plant 2 is produced asexually from Plant 1. If the leaf cells of Plant 1 have 56 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be found in the leaf cells of Plant 2?

a)

56

b)

112

c)

28

d)

14

203.

Billy and Johnny are brothers, but they do not look alike. Which one of the following pairs of factors contributed to this genetic variation?

a)

asexual reproduction and binary fission

b)

crossing over and independent assortment

c)

cytokinesis and cloning

d)

non-disjunction and mitosis

204.

Sexual reproduction results in unique genetic combinations due to the crossing over of non-sister chromatids. During which stage of the cell cycle does this take place?

a)

S phase

b)

G phase

c)

meiotic phase

d)

mitotic phase

205.

An organism has gamete cells that contain 8 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would that organism’s body cells have?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

24

206.

While studying meiosis and mitosis for her genetics test, Marisa made notes of the kinds of cells produced from these processes with examples from the body. Which pairing of the cell produced during meiosis and example is correct?

a)

diploid cell : liver cell

b)

diploid cell : sperm cell

c)

haploid cell : egg cell

d)

haploid cell : hair cell

207.

Chromosome pairs that have corresponding traits and match up with each other are called:

a)

Centromeres

b)

Heterogeneous chromosomes

c)

Homologous chromosomes

d)

Sister chromatids

208.

During gamete formation, crossing over occurs, which causes genetic information to be exchanged between homologous chromosomes. What is the result of this process of crossing over?

a)

identical daughter cells

b)

identical sister chromosomes

c)

variation in homologous chromosomes

d)

regularity in homologous chromosomes

209.

What does independent assortment mean?

a)

Homologous chromosomes have swapped parts of thier genes.

b)

That any random egg or sperm may be fertilized.

c)

That traits may be passed on to offspring independently from each other.

d)

That mates are not chosen based off of genetic traits.

210.

In meiosis, the haploid number of chromosomes in a human sex cell is:

a)

46

b)

22

c)

23

d)

92

211.

Manuel is a member of the Science Team at his school. During a competition, he is required to match a process with a description of the process. Which of the following is the correct match of a process and a phrase that describes the process?

a)

meiosis : produces diploid cells

b)

crossing over : produces haploid cell

c)

non-disjunction : homologous chromosomes separating during meiosis

d)

independent assortment : random arrangement of pairs of chromosomes during meiosis

212.

Sexual reproduction involves the union of cells from two parents. In terms of natural selection, what is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

a)

It introduces genetic variation into a population.

b)

It results in the production of more offspring than asexual reproduction.

c)

It generally requires less energy.

d)

It results in all offspring in a population being identical.

213.

What are two sources of genetic variation that take place during meiosis?

a)

homologous chromosomes and sister chromatids

b)

homologous chromosomes & crossing over

c)

independent assortment & crossing over

d)

independent assortment & sister chromatids

214.

The skin cell of a pregnant mouse has 40 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be in the cells of her unborn baby mice?

a)

80

b)

10

c)

40

d)

20

215.

Reproduction is an important characteristic that all organisms share. Why is it beneficial for a given species to produce gametes and reproduce sexually instead of asexually?

a)

Gametes produce genetically identical offspring to the parents.

b)

Gametes contain only the genes that are useful to the offspring, producing superior offspring.

c)

Gametes contain double the genetic information, allowing the offspring to be stronger than the parents.

d)

Gametes have genetically different combinations of DNA, allowing variation in the organisms in a species

216.

What is the diploid number of cells found in a human body cell?

a)

92

b)

23

c)

22

d)

46

217.

Meiosis and mitosis are cell processes that involve cell division. Which other statement is true about both meiosis and mitosis?

a)

Both duplicate DNA and divide cytoplasm to create daughter cells.

b)

Both produce cells that contain half of the genetic information of the parent cell.

c)

Both produce cells that are used by the organism for repairing tissue damage.

d)

Both produce gametes for sexual reproduction.

218.

Mitosis and meiosis differ in a variety of ways. Which of the following is NOT a way in which both processes differ?

a)

the number of daughter cells produced

b)

the stage of the cell cycle when DNA is duplicated

c)

whether or not crossing over takes place

d)

the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells

219.

During mitosis and meiosis many of the cellular processes are similar. Which of the following statements is true about the daughter cells in meiosis?

a)

After meiosis the daughter cells have twice the genetic information as daughter cells in mitosis.

b)

After meiosis, the daughter cells have the same genetic information as the parent cell.

c)

After meiosis the daughter cells contain half the genetic information of the parent cell.

d)

After meiosis the daughter cells have genetic information equal to 2n.

220.

Humans produce cells by both mitosis and meiosis. Which of the following is seen in mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Chromosomes line up along the center of the cell.

b)

The cells produced have the same genetic information as the parent cell.

c)

DNA is duplicated and chromosomes exchange genetic information before separating into identical daughter cells.

d)

DNA is duplicated and homologous chromosomes pair up.

221.

An ability to produce fertile offspring is important for the survival of a species. What is one advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

a)

Sexual reproduction produces more offspring.

b)

Sexual reproduction is faster than asexual reproduction.

c)

There is genetic variation in the offspring of sexual reproduction.

d)

The offspring of sexual reproduction are identical to the parents