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Exam Review Anatomy

Total questions: 223

Worksheet time: 3hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)

smooth muscle

b)

bone

c)

nerve

d)

blood

2.
a)
nerve
b)
elastic cartilage
c)
fibrocartilage
d)
cardiac muscle
3.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Adipose tissue
b)
Cardiac muscle
c)
Nervous tissue
d)
Skeletal muscle
4.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Skeletal muscle
b)
Nervous tissue
c)
Adipose tissue
d)
'Specialised' connective tissue
5.

The tissue shown is called ______.

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Dense connective

6.
Name this tissue
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
7.
Which type of epithelial tissue would allow oxygen to quickly pass through it?
a)
Simple Squamous
b)
Simple Cuboidal
c)
Simple Columnar
d)
Transitional
8.
What type of Connective Tissue are TENDONS and LIGAMENTS
a)
Dense Connective Tissue
b)
Osseous Tissue
c)
Loose connective Tissue
d)
Cartilage
9.
Which type of epithelial tissue stretches and is found in the bladder and other urinary organs?
a)
Transitional
b)
Simple Cuboidal
c)
Stratified Squamous
d)
Stratified Columnar
10.
Which type of muscle tissue would line the intestines?
a)
Smooth
b)
Cardiac
c)
Skeletal
d)
Transitional
11.
Which of the following cell types is correctly matched with it's cell shape?
a)
Squamous - flattened, pancake
b)
Cuboidal - rectangular
c)
Columnar - flattened, pancake
d)
Columnar - cubed/square
12.

Which type of muscle cells are voluntary?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Medial

d)

Smooth

13.

Name this tissue:

a)

Stratified squamous

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

Hyaline cartilage

14.
Define tissue with regards to anatomy
a)
A group of structurally and functionally related cells that come together to perform common functions
b)
Multiple sheets of thin paper used to clean your nose
c)
A series of different cells in the same area
d)
The smallest structural and functional unit of an organism
15.
What type of tissue SIGNALS the intestines to move food along?
a)
Nervous Tissue
b)
Blood Tissue
c)
Smooth muscle tissue
d)
Skeletal Muscle Tissue
16.
Which tissue is this?
a)
Simple Squamous
b)
Stratified Squamous
c)
Simple cuboidal
d)
Pseudostratified columnar
17.
which tissue is this?
a)
Pseudostratified columnar
b)
Stratified Squamous
c)
Simple Columnar
d)
Transitional
18.
What type of muscle tissue is VOLUNTARILY controlled
a)
Skeletal Only
b)
Skeletal and Cardiac
c)
Smooth and Cardiac
d)
Cardiac Only
19.

The pituitary gland puts growth hormone into the blood. What type of gland is it?

a)

Endocrine Gland

b)

Exocrine Gland

c)

Thyroid Gland

d)

Capillary Gland

20.

Which tissue type functions and secretion, absorption, protection, and excretion

a)

Epithelial

b)

connective

c)

Arelolar

d)

muscle

e)

Nervous

21.

There are four primary tissue types that interweave to form the "fabric" of the body, they are;

a)

epithelial,connctive,muscle,nervous

b)

skeletal,cardiac,smooth,adipose

c)

epithelial,skeletal,nervous,squamous

d)

cartilage,muscle,epithelial,areolar

22.

Which term means, more than one layer of cells?

a)

Stratified

b)

Squamous

c)

Simple

d)

Cuboidal

e)

Columnar

23.

Fibers that form a thick protein matting in a dense irregular connective tissue include

a)

collagen fibers

b)

recticular fibers

c)

elastic fibers

d)

cartilage fibers

24.

Which membrane has goblet cells?

a)

nervous

b)

muscular

c)

mucous

d)

serous

25.

Which membrane is your skin?

a)

serous

b)

synovial

c)

cutaneous

d)

mucous

26.

What type of gland is the sebaceous glad of the skin?

a)

Apocrine

b)

Merocrine

c)

Holocrine

27.
Which is NOT one of the 3 components that make up connective tissue?
a)
Extracellular matrix 
b)
Fibers
c)
Cells
d)
Basement membrane 
28.
This type of connective tissue has a liquid matrix called plasma.
a)
Bone
b)
Loose connective
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
29.
Goosebumps are caused by contractions of the ______ muscle
a)
Arrector pili
b)
Apocrine
c)
Eccrine
d)
Sebaceous
30.
Skin color is due to a pigment called
a)
Keratin
b)
Melanin
c)
Chromatin
d)
Epithelium
31.
The sweat gland that produces "stinky" sweat is the 
a)
Apocrine gland
b)
Eccrine gland
c)
Sudoriferous gland
d)
Sebaceous gland
32.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
33.
The clear layer only present in certain areas of the body is called:
a)
Stratum granulosum
b)
Stratum spinosum
c)
Stratum corneum
d)
Stratum lucidum
34.
The function of sebum is:
a)
Keeps skin soft and moist
b)
Help to regulate body temperature
c)
Produce vitamin D
d)
Protect skin from mechanical damage
35.
A sunburn might be an example of a:
a)
1st degree burn
b)
2nd degree burn
c)
3rd degree burn
d)
4th degree burn
36.

The function of the integumentary system includes all of these except what?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Cooling system

c)

Synthesis of Vitamin A

d)

Excretion of wastes

37.

What layer of the skin contains sweat glands?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Subcutaneous

38.

What part of a hair can be seen?

a)

Follicle

b)

Matrix

c)

Root

d)

Shaft

39.

What part of the hair provides cells for new growth?

a)

Bulb

b)

Matrix

c)

Papilla

d)

Root

40.
What is the name of tube that our hair grows from?
a)
Follicle
b)
Root
c)
Shaft
d)
Sebaceous
41.
What causes acne?
a)
clogged sebaceous glands
b)
clogged apocrine glands
c)
clogged merocrine glands
d)
clogged sweat glands
42.

The area where there is active nail growth is the ______.

a)
epithelium
b)
cuticle
c)
luluna
d)
nailbed
43.

List the layers of the Epidermis in order from top to bottom.

a)

5,2,3,4,1

b)

1,2,3,4,5

c)

4,5,3,1,2

d)

1,4,3,2,5

44.
The hypodermis consists of loose connective tissue and 
a)
adipose tissue
b)
dense connective tissue
c)
nerve tissue
d)
muscle tissue
45.

What is number 10?

a)

Pore

b)

Hair Shaft

c)

Epidermis

d)

Nerve

46.

What is number 11?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hair Shaft

d)

Artery

47.

What is number 5?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Sebaceous Gland

d)

Sudoriferous Gland

48.

What is number 4?

a)

Hair Follicle

b)

Hair Shaft

c)

Sebaceous gland

d)

Sudoriferous gland

49.

What is number 3?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hypodermis/subcutaneous

d)

Artery

50.

What is number 2?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hypodermis/subcutaneous

d)

Artery

51.

What is number 1?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hypodermis/subcutaneous

d)

Artery

52.

How do first-degree burns differ from second degree burns?

a)

First-degree burns only affect the epidermis; second-degree burns can extend into the dermis

b)

First degree-burns are painless; second-degree burns hurt a lot

c)

First degree-burns can extend into the dermis; second-degree burns only affect the epidermis

d)

First-degree burns hurt a lot; second-degree burns are painless

53.

Why can you often not feel third-degree burns?

a)

Because they damage the nerve endings in your skin

b)

Because they aren' t very damaging

c)

Because they cause scabs to form

d)

Because they only affect the inner part of your skin

54.

Number 4 on the diagram

a)

arrector pili muscle

b)

hair shaft

c)

sebaceous gland

d)

nerve

55.

A second degree burn is one that only affects the epidermis and dermis and is also called a ________ burn.

a)

full- thickness

b)

partial thickness

c)

superficial

d)

simple

56.

Identify structure number 9.

a)

Pacinian corpuscle

b)

freen nerve endings

c)

Meissner's corpuscle

d)

sebaceous gland

57.

During vasoconstriction, where blood cells assemble together to close the wound, what is formed?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Blood clot

58.

The nurse recognizes that which of the following are classic signs of inflammation? (select all that apply)

a)

redness

b)

heat

c)

fever

d)

swelling

e)

pain

59.

What do sebaceous glands secrete?

a)

Oil

b)

Milk

c)

Sweat

d)

Earwax

60.

Match the following

a)

Dermis

1.

Deep layer of the skin

b)

Epidermis

2.

Superficial layer of the skin

c)

Hypodermis

3.

Also known as subcutaneous tissue

61.

Match the following

a)

1st degree burn

1.

superficial; involves the epidermis

b)

2nd-degree burn

2.

partial thickness; involves the epidermis and dermis

c)

3rd degree burn

3.

full-thickness; involves the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous

62.
Name this joint 
a)
gliding
b)
saddle
c)
hinge
d)
ball and socket
63.
The knee joint is
a)
Hinge
b)
Gliding
c)
Ball and socket
d)
Pivot
64.
What does the prefix osteo mean
a)
bone
b)
skin
c)
cartilage
d)
fat
65.
Yellow bone marrow has a high _________ content that gives it it's color.
a)
blood
b)
fat
c)
water
d)
melanin
66.
Osteocytes are______________
a)
blood cells
b)
skin cells
c)
bone cells
d)
bone destroyers
67.
The ________ or "Soft spots" in the cranium of an infant allow for enlargement of the skull as the brain grows.
a)
sinuses
b)
foramina
c)
fontanelle
d)
sutures
68.
The patella is
a)
the point of the elbow
b)
the thigh bone
c)
the knee cap
d)
food
69.

Articular cartilage is found in what part of the long bone?

a)

inside of the medullary cavity

b)

on the outer surface of the diaphysis

c)

the outer surface of the epiphyses

d)

in the spaces of the spongy bone

70.

The function of Osteoclasts is

a)

To breakdown calcified matrix of bone

b)

Secrete acids that dissolve the inorganic component of calcified matrix

c)

Phagocytize components of the bony matrix

d)

All the above

71.
After a bone fracture, there are a series of four steps that occur to repair the bone.  The first step of the process is called a ...?
a)
Bony callus
b)
Fibrocartilaginous callus
c)
Hematoma
d)
Remodeling
72.
Where does a bone grow in width?
a)
periosteum
b)
hyaline cartilage
c)
compact bone
d)
endosteum
73.
Bones of the spine could be classified as
a)
Short Bones
b)
Long Bones
c)
Irregular Bones
d)
Flat Bones
74.

The shaft of long bones in the skeletal system is called:

a)

periosteum

b)

epiphysis

c)

diaphysis

d)

cartilage

75.

Which bones are part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

scapula, radius, pelvis

b)

scapula, skull, phalanges

c)

hyoid bone, radius

d)

brain case, thoracic cage, lower limbs

76.

Fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial are types of tissues found in:

a)

joints

b)

interior of bones

c)

ends of fingers

d)

all responses are incorrect

77.
Joints between skull bones
a)
diarthrotic/synovial
b)
fibrous/suture
c)
amphiarthrotic/epiphyseal disk
78.
What is a bone fracture called when the bone doesn't completely break?
a)
An open fracture
b)
A spiral fracture
c)
A greenstick fracture
d)
A comminuted fracture
79.

Process of creating bone is is called_____.

a)

Periosteum

b)

Bone resorption

c)

Ossification

d)

Hematopoeisis

80.

A female patient is brought to the emergency room with an injury to her lower leg from an ATV accident. You notice a white tip of a bone protruding through the skin as you cut her pant leg off. Her injury is described as what kind of fracture.

a)

Comminuted

b)

Pathologic

c)

Compound

d)

Stress

81.

Which of the following is not a function of bones?

a)

Protection

b)

Blood cell formation

c)

Storage

d)

Absorption

82.

Which part of the osteon contains the osteocytes?

a)

Lacunae

b)

Lamellae

c)

Canaliculi

d)

Central Canal

83.
The functional unit that makes up compact bone is called the
a)
Osteon
b)
Trabeculae
c)
Central Canal
d)
Osteocyte
84.
What part of an osteon is number 3 pointing to?
a)
Lamellae
b)
Central Canal
c)
Osteocyte
d)
Canaliculi
85.
What part of an osteon is number 4 pointing to?
a)
Lamellae
b)
Central Canal
c)
Osteocyte
d)
Canaliculi
86.

Compact bone is made of

a)

trabeculae

b)

osteons

c)

canaliculi

d)

central canals

87.

This type of bone is porous, allowing blood vessels to move through it and containing bone marrow.

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Spongy bone

88.

The hardest, most dense part of the bone tissue is the

a)

periosteum

b)

spongy bone

c)

osteoblast

d)

compact bone

89.

What bone is the arrow pointing to?

a)

rib

b)

spine

c)

scapula

d)

clavicle

90.

What bone is the arrow pointing to (the bone closest to the thumb)?

a)

ulna

b)

humerus

c)

radius

d)

vertebrae

91.
What bones is represented in the  picture?
a)
Clavicle
b)
Scapula
c)
Sternum
d)
Carpals
92.
Name this bone.
a)
femur
b)
humerus
c)
tibia
93.
Name this bone.
a)
femur
b)
radius
c)
tibia
94.
Name this bone.
a)
fibula
b)
tibia
c)
femur
95.
Name this bone.
a)
tibia
b)
fibula
c)
femur
96.

The section of this picture highlighted in green is called the _______________?

a)

Tibia

b)

Patella

c)

Ilium

d)

Fibula

97.

The name of the blue bone under the eye

a)

parietal bone

b)

zygomatic bone

c)

sphenoid bone

d)

mandible

98.

The orange bone on the front of the skull

a)

parietal bone

b)

frontal bone

c)

nasal bone

d)

lacrimal bone

99.

The pink bone on the top of the skull

a)

parietal bone

b)

occipital bone

c)

frontal bone

d)

lacrimal bone

100.

The purple bone on the side of the head

a)

lacrimal bone

b)

sphenoid bone

c)

ethmoid bone

d)

temporal bone

101.

8.?

a)

mandible

b)

maxilla

c)

zygotmatic

d)

coronal suture

102.

18?

a)

lambdoid suture

b)

coronal suture

c)

squamous suture

103.

There are (a)   groups of sinuses (number)

104.

At what part of the bone does growth occur in children and adolescents?

a)

Marrow cavity

b)

Epiphyseal plate

c)

Periosteum

d)

Endosteum

105.

Which type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion?

a)

Pivot joint

b)

Ball and socket joint

c)

Gliding joint

d)

Hinge joint

106.

How many bones are in an adult human body?

a)

365

b)

206

c)

270

d)

302

107.

Fluid-filled sacs that help cushion the friction in a joint is called what?

a)

Ligaments

b)

Cartilage

c)

Bursa

d)

Tendons

108.

The bones that make up the ankle are known as the:

a)

carpals

b)

tarsals

c)

clavicles

d)

phalanges

109.

Some marrow of long bones is termed "red" marrow. The function of this is to:

a)

manufacture blood cells

b)

manufacture tissue cells for the skin

c)

store adipose tissue

d)

store bone forming cells

110.

The functions are the skeletal system are

a)

To support the body, protect the organs, store calcium, and produce blood cells

b)

to regulate the composition of body fluids by removing metabolic wastes and retain the balance of water, salt, and other nutrients

c)

to regulate and maintain bodily functions by producing hormones and releasing them into the blood stream

d)

to enable the diffusion of oxygen into the bloodstream and the removal of carbon dioxide from the bloodstream

111.

The bone (in green) is known as the:

a)

C1 Vertebra

b)

Mandible

c)

Hyoid

d)

Trachea

112.

What is the primary function of the muscular system?

a)

To produce hormones

b)

To facilitate movement

c)

To protect internal organs

d)

To transport nutrients

113.

Which type of muscle is under voluntary control?

a)

Cardiac muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

Involuntary muscle

114.

Explain how muscles work in pairs to move bones.

a)

Muscles work independently to move bones.

b)

One muscle contracts while the other relaxes to create movement.

c)

Both muscles contract simultaneously to move bones.

d)

Muscles do not work in pairs.

115.

Describe the role of tendons in the muscular system.

a)

Tendons connect muscles to bones.

b)

Tendons connect bones to bones.

c)

Tendons produce red blood cells.

d)

Tendons store calcium.

116.

What is the basic contractile unit of a muscle called?

a)

Neuron

b)

Sarcomere

c)

Osteon

d)

Alveolus

117.

Which muscle type is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Voluntary muscle

118.

Which is NOT a function of the muscular system?

a)

Regulating body temperature

b)

Movement

c)

Protecting delicate organs

d)

Preventing disease

119.

Muscle pairs that oppose each other's movement

a)

antagonistic muscles

b)

opposable muscles

c)

opposite muscles

d)

rivals

120.

What does the root word 'myo' mean?

a)

water

b)

life

c)

earth

d)

muscle

121.

Skeletal muscles consist of numerous _____________ that contain a bundle of _______________ which are composed of repeating contractile units called _____________?

a)

muscle fibers, sarcomeres, myofibrils

b)

sarcomeres, muscle fibers, myofibrils

c)

sarcomeres, myofibrils, muscle fibers

d)

muscle fibers, myofibrils, sarcomeres

122.

What is the correct order of structure of Skeletal Muscle?

a)

Muscle Fiber, Endomysium, Fascicle, Epimysium, Perimysium, Tendon

b)

Muscle Fiber, Endomysium, Epimysium, Fascicle, Perimysium, Tendon

c)

Muscle Fiber, Fascicle, Endomysium, Perimysium, Epimysium, Tendon

d)

Muscle Fiber Fascicle, Endomysium, Epimysium, Perimysium, Tendon

123.
Each muscle fiber is directly surrounded by connective tissue called the 
a)
perimysium
b)
fascia
c)
endomysium
d)
epimysium
124.

The epimysium covers

a)

the entire muscle

b)

the fascicle

c)

the muscle fiber

d)

the myofibril

125.

Which connective tissue surrounds the fascicle?

a)

epimysium

b)

perimysium

c)

sarcolemma

d)

endomysium

126.

A bundle of fascicles is a

a)

myofibril

b)

muscle fiber

c)

sarcomere

d)

muscle

127.

A bundle of muscle fibers is a

a)

muscle

b)

fascicle

c)

myofibril

d)

sarcomere

128.
Each muscle fiber is directly surrounded by connective tissue called the 
a)
perimysium
b)
fascia
c)
endomysium
d)
epimysium
129.

What is another name #2? (Hint: It is a muscle layer)

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Epimysium

c)

Perimysium

d)

Endomysium

130.

What does calcium do to the actin?

a)

Covers myosin binding sites

b)

Uncovers myosin binding sites

c)

Covers actin binding sites

d)

Uncovers actin binding sites

131.

What is the name of the protein that covers the binding sites on actin?

a)

Myosin

b)

Titin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

132.

How does the sarcomere shorten (contract) ?

a)

The myosin filaments contract

b)

The actin filaments contract

c)

The myosin is pulled by the actin

d)

The actin is pulled by the myosin

133.

___ and ___ are regulatory proteins bound to actin.

a)

Myosin and actin

b)

Glycogen and hemoglobin

c)

Calcium and oxygen

d)

Troponin and tropomyosin

134.

Name the muscle

a)

pectoralis major

b)

pectoralis minor

c)

Deltoid

d)

Trapezius

135.

Name the muscle

a)

pectoralis major

b)

subscapularis

c)

deltoid

d)

triceps

136.

Name the muscle

a)

biceps brachii

b)

triceps brachii

c)

rectus femoris

d)

deltoid

137.

name the muscle in green

a)

masseter

b)

frontalis

c)

temporalis

d)

orbicularis occuli

138.

a)

extension

b)

flexion

c)

circumduction

d)

adduction

e)

abduction

139.

a)

supination

b)

pronation

c)

circumduction

d)

adduction

e)

rotation

140.

a)

supination

b)

pronation

c)

abduction

d)

adduction

e)

opposition

141.

a)

inversion

b)

plantar flexion

c)

extension

d)

dorsiflexion

e)

circumduction

142.

a)

inversion

b)

supination

c)

extension

d)

pronation

e)

eversion

143.
a)
Quadriceps
b)
Satorius
c)
Hamstring
d)
Gastronecmius
144.

Name the highlighted muscle.

a)

Trapezius

b)

Latissimus dorsi

c)

Gluteus maximus

d)

Triceps brachii

145.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Gastronecmius
d)
Satorius
146.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Bicep
d)
Satorius
147.

Name the muscle shown in the diagram.

a)

Hamstring

b)

Quadricep

c)

Tibialis Anterior

d)

Gastrocnemius

148.

What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?

a)

Niacin and Potassium

b)

Calcium and ATP

c)

Sodium and Potassium

d)

Acetylcholine and Potassium

149.

___are thin filaments.

a)

troponin

b)

tropomyosin

c)

actin

d)

myosin

150.

___are thick filaments.

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

troponin

d)

tropomyosin

151.

The gap between the nerve cell and sarcolemma is the ____ ___.

a)

Synaptic cleft

b)

Neurotransmitter

c)

Motor unit

d)

Neuromuscular junction

152.

What is the specific neurotransmitter that stimulates the movement of skeletal muscles?

a)

GABA

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Dopamine

153.
What state is the sarcomere in #1
a)
Relaxed
b)
Contracting
c)
Fully Contracted
d)
None of the above
154.

Which of the following is a component of the central nervous system (CNS)?

a)

Spinal cord

b)

Brain

c)

Nerve

155.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the peripheral nervous system?

a)

cranial nerve

b)

ganglion

c)

spinal cord

d)

spinal nerve

156.

The sensory division of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is known as the _________ division.

a)

efferent

b)

sympathetic

c)

parasympathetic

d)

afferent

157.

Which of the following effectors is NOT innervated by the autonomic nervous system?

a)

cardiac muscle

b)

glands

c)

skeletal muscle

d)

smooth muscle

158.

Which one of the following types of neuroglial cells is found in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

microglia

b)

Schwann cells

c)

oligodendrocytes

d)

astrocytes

159.

Bipolar neurons:

a)

are specialized to carry voluntary motor impulses.

b)

conduct action potentials from one neuron to another in the central nervous system.

c)

have a single process extending from the cell body.

d)

are located in special sensory organs such as the retina and have one axon and one dendrite.

160.

Microglia are:

a)

specialized motor neurons in the peripheral nervous system.

b)

star-shaped cells that help form the blood-brain barrier.

c)

specialized macrophages of the CNS that mobilize in response to inflammation.

d)

found in choroid plexuses, and produce cerebrospinal fluid.

161.

Nodes of Ranvier are:

a)

interruptions in the myelin sheath along the course of a myelinated axon

b)

collections of immune cells in the CNS

c)

satellite cells that support neuron cell bodies in ganglia

d)

gaps between choroids plexuses where cerebral spinal fluid emerges

162.

White matter consists of:

a)

myelinated axons and nerve tracks

b)

unmyelinated axons

c)

neuron cell bodies

d)

unmyelinated axons and neuron cell bodies

163.

Gray matter consists of: (pick 2)

a)

neuron cell bodies

b)

unmyelinated axons

c)

nerve tracts

164.

Collections of neuron cell bodies outside the CNS are called:

a)

ganglia.

b)

nerves.

c)

nerve tracts.

d)

nuclei.

165.
This part of the neuron receives chemical messages from the neurotransmitters of other neurons.
a)
Axon Terminal
b)
Dendrites
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Cell Body
166.
The tiny gap between neurons where nerve impulses are sent from one neuron to another.  It is where communication occurs between an axon and dendrite
a)
synapse
b)
axon terminal
c)
impulse
d)
myelin
167.
The part of the neuron that takes information away from the cell body is called a(n) _____________.
a)
dendrite
b)
axon
c)
cell body
d)
Schwann cell
168.
This part of the neuron stores then releases neurotransmitters into the synapse.
a)
Axon 
b)
Dendrite
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Axon Terminal
169.

This type of neuron is located in the Brain and Spinal Cord.

a)

Sensory Neuron

b)

Interneuron

c)

Motor Neuron

170.

This type of neuron processes information from Sensory Neurons and passes the information onto Motor Neurons.

a)

Sensory Neurons

b)

Motor Neurons

c)

Interneurons

171.

What is it called when your body reacts to something without you having to think about it.

a)

Stimulus

b)

Reflex

c)

Nerves

172.

This thick band of nerves connects the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum.

a)

corpus callosum

b)

pituitary gland

c)

thalamus

d)

hypothalamus

173.

What part of the nervous system is responsible for slowing down breathing and pulse?

a)

Spinal Nerves

b)

Sympathetic

c)

Parasympathetic

d)

Spinal Nerves

174.

Hallucinations, seizures, and temporary loss of consciousness is a symptom of:

a)

hydorcephalus.

b)

meningitis.

c)

neuritis.

d)

epilepsy.

175.

What is dopamine's role in the brain?

a)

It helps us sleep better.

b)

It motivates us and encourages certain behaviors.

c)

It makes us feel hungry.

d)

It helps us remember names.

176.
Which is the outermost meninx?
a)
Dura mater
b)
Arachnoid mater
c)
Pia mater
d)
Cranial mater
177.

Which part of the brain is designated with a star.

a)

Brainstem

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Temporal lobe

e)

Cerebellum

178.

Which part of the brain is designated with a star.

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Frontal lobe

e)

Cerebellum

179.

Which part of the brain is designated with a star.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Pons

d)

Temporal lobe

e)

Occipital lobe

180.

Which part of the brain is designated with a star.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Temporal lobe

e)

Cerebellum

181.

Which part of the brain is designated with a star.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Brainstem

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

Temporal lobe

e)

Cerebellum

182.

Look at the image of the neuron. Identify the part numbered 1

a)

Dendrites

b)

Cell Body

c)

Axon

d)

Axon Terminal

183.

Look at the image of the neuron. Identify the part numbered 2

a)

Dendrites

b)

Cell Body

c)

Axon

d)

Axon Terminal

184.

Look at the image of the neuron. Identify the part numbered 4

a)

Dendrites

b)

Cell Body

c)

Axon

d)

Axon Terminal

185.

In which sleep disorder does a person temporarily stop breathing at night?

a)

insomnia

b)

sleep apnea

c)

narcolepsy

d)

night terrors

186.
A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep or remaining asleep is called:
a)

Sleep Deprivation

b)
Insomnia
c)
Sleep apnea
d)
Narcolepsy
187.

Which disorder is characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks, in which a sufferer may slip directly into REM sleep?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Sleep Apnea

d)

Night Terrors

188.
What is the fluid in the space between the meninges that acts as a shock absorber to the brain and spinal cord called? 
a)
Blood-Brain Barrier
b)
Meninges
c)
Cerebrospinal Fluid
d)
Cerebral Cortex
189.
The membranes covering the brain and spinal cord are the _________.
a)
thalamus
b)
ventricles
c)
meninges
d)
choroid plexuses
190.

Produce cerebrospinal fluid in the brain & spinal cord

a)

ependymal cells

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

microglia

d)

astrocytes

191.

Is a concussion considered a brain injury?

a)

Yes

b)

No

192.

Which of the following is NOT a possible symptom of brain injury?

a)

moodiness

b)

slurred speech

c)

hallucination

d)

difficult doing math

e)

All are possible

193.

What is Alzheimer's Disease?

a)

poor blood flow in the brain that causes cell death

b)

short term loss of brain function following a head injury

c)

a brain disease that causes cognitive dysfunction in elderly

d)

a movement disorder that impairs voluntary movements

194.
The front is my ____________ side
a)
posterior 
b)
anterior
c)
dorsal
d)
sagital
195.
My nose is ______________ to my shoulders
a)
inferior
b)
superior
196.
My toes are _________________ to my femur
a)
proximal
b)
distal
197.
My elbow is ______________ to my fingers
a)
proximal
b)
distal
198.
A __________________ plane divides the body into upper and lower.
a)
sagital
b)
frontal
c)
transverse
d)
oblique
199.
A __________________ plane divides the body into equal right and left
a)
midsagital
b)
frontal
c)
transverse
d)
oblique
200.
My ear is more _____________ than my nose
a)
Medial 
b)
lateral
201.
My heart is ______________ to my spinal cord.
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
inferior
d)
superior
202.
My lungs are ______________ to my small intestine.
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
inferior
d)
superior
203.
My shoulder blade is on the ________ side of the body
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
Deep
d)
Superficial
204.
The skin is ____ to the muscles
a)
deep 
b)
superficial
c)
medial
d)
anterior
205.
The heart is ________ to the ribs.
a)
medial
b)
lateral
c)
superior
d)
deep
206.
The head is ______ to the chest.
a)
superior
b)
dorsal
c)
inferior
d)
ventral
207.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial
208.
Away from midline
a)
Lateral
b)
Distal
c)
Superior
d)
Transverse
209.
A body part is above another part, or is closer to the head
a)
Superficial
b)
Lateral
c)
Superior
d)
Deep
210.
The bone is _____ to the skin.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
deep
d)
posterior
211.
Away from the origin or trunk
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Proximal
d)
Posterior
212.
Closer to midline in relation to another part
a)
Deep
b)
Distal
c)
Medial
d)
Proximal
213.
Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right halves?
a)
frontal
b)
transverse
c)
horizontal
d)
sagittal
214.
Another name for the plane that divides the body into upper and lower sections is?
a)
frontal
b)
mid-sagittal
c)
sagittal
d)
transverse
215.
What body part is inferior to the chest?
a)
head
b)
neck
c)
heart
d)
hips
216.
Of the following, what structures are the MOST medial?
a)
ears
b)
hips
c)
eyes 
d)
lips
217.
George has a cramp in the posterior part of his leg.  Where is the cramp?
a)
ankle
b)
knee
c)
shin
d)
calf
218.

Vertical plane that divides the body into RIGHT and LEFT parts

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

d)

Oblique

219.
Vertical plane that divides the body into ANTERIOR and POSTERIOR parts
a)
Sagittal
b)
Frontal
c)
Transverse
d)
Oblique
220.
Towards the front
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
221.
Standing erect with palms and feet facing forward.
a)
Anatomical Position
b)
Anatomical Planes
c)
Anatomical Directions
d)
Anatomical Movements
222.
Refers to a structure being more in front than another structure in the body
a)
Anterior
b)
Posterior
c)
Superior
d)
Inferior
223.
The knee is _______ to the ankle.
a)
proximal
b)
lateral
c)
distal
d)
medial