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WorksheetsQUIZ 1 OFFICERS BATCH 2023-24
Total questions: 105
Worksheet time: 41mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Mr.VIkash , wants loan of Rs.1.00 lacs for payment of one time club membership fee. What will be amount of margin under the Baroda home suvidha personal loan
a)
Rs.0.35 Lacs
b)
Rs.0.20 Lacs
c)
Rs. 0.25 lacs
d)
Rs. 0.30 lacs
e)
Rs.0.15 lacs
2.
Which of the following retail loan products have commitment charges
a)
Baroda Suvidha Loan
b)
Baroda Home Loan Takeover
c)
Baroda auto loan
d)
Baroda Home loan
e)
Baroda Ashray loan
3.
Maximum concession in case of Applicant/s who offer minimum 50% of Loan limit as liquid collateral security e.g. Fixed Deposit of our Bank, NSC, KVP or LIC Policy in case of auto loan is
a)
0.20%
b)
0.30%
c)
0.25%
d)
0.50%
e)
1.00%
4.
What is maximum amount of education loan that can be considered without collateral security for “A” category of Institutions under Baroda Gyanscheme for students of premier institutions in India.
a)
30 lacs
b)
50 lacs
c)
20 lacs
d)
80 lacs
e)
7.50 lacs
5.
A company has made sales of Rs.300 lacs. It has Net Profit of Rs.30 lacs. In Notes to Account we find Profit includes interest income of Rs.10 lacs from Investment. It has Depreciation Rs.5 lacs.
What is "Cash Profit" of the company form Operation only?
a)
30 lakhs
b)
20 lakhs
c)
25 lakhs
d)
15 lakhs
e)
35 lakhs
6.
Incase of decline in LTV of the advance against securities, which of the following action will be taken
a)
Invoke the additional securities offered by the customer
b)
As the advance value of the loan is kept at lower limit than the value of securities so decline in LTV will not adversely affect the loan amount
c)
CFMS will send email/ SMS to the customer with a copy the branch. Branch need to follow up with the customer to infuse margin within the timeline specified in guidelines
d)
The DP must be reduced immediately to maintain LTV
e)
None of these
7.
Which of the following are exempted to RAROC framework
a)
staff loans
b)
exposures having 0% risk weighteed assets
c)
restructuring proposals
d)
regulatory retail portfolio as per basel guidelines.
e)
All of the above
8.
Ramesh, took overdraft against pledge of shares of Rishi Industries Limited through CFMS facility. The company declared bonus at 1:4 ratio to the existing shareholder. Ashwini got 500 shares as bonus. What will be the impact of this bonus issue on the advance against the shares?
a)
The bonus shares to be pledged by Ashwini manually
b)
Those shares will not be pledge by the Ashwini
c)
The bonus share will be pledged automatically, the borrower need to request branch for withdrawal of pledge if he/ she do not want to increase the amount of borrowings
d)
The borrower need to inform the branch upon receipt of bonus shares for further action by the branch
e)
None of these
9.
A company had purchased a Plant & Machinery of Rs.1,80,000/- and the scrap value of the same is Rs.20,000/- and the life value of the Plant & Machinery is 5 years. What will be the depreciation amount each year under Straight Line Method?
a)
56000
b)
36000
c)
40000
d)
32000
e)
55000
10.
Eligible Capital Base for large exposure purpose is the effective amount of ______ capital as per Basel III as per the last audited balance sheet
a)
Tier 1
b)
Tier 2
c)
Tier 1 + Tier 2
d)
Either Tier 1 or Tier 2
e)
Tier 1 + Tier 2 - ATI Bonds
11.
A company has made an advance payment of Rs.200 lacs for purchase of Plant and Machinery. As a Banker where you will treat such advance payment to supplier in CMA data?
a)
Fixed Assets
b)
Non Current Assets
c)
Current Assets
d)
In footnote of Balance sheet
e)
None of above
12.
Krishna, was eligible for Pre approved personal loan of Rs.3.00 lacs. However she availed loan upto Rs.1.50 lacs. After a period of 12 months, she wanted to avail the remaining amount of personal loan of Rs.1.50 lacs. Can she get the loan?
a)
Yes, as she was eligible for the loan earlier she can avail it
b)
Yes, subject to approval of deviation by RMCC
c)
No, once the pr- approved limit is availed, no further loan can be granted irrespective of utilization level
d)
Yes, subject to closure of the 1st loan that was sanctioned
e)
None of above
13.
The Commercial CreditVision Algorithms to be utilized for underwriting of MSME Loans for
a)
NTB customers - exposure less than Rs.1 Cr - ranking grade of CMR 6 only.
b)
NTB customers - exposure of Rs.1 Cr to Rs.50 Cr - ranking grade in the range of CMR 4 to
CMR 6.
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Only 1
e)
Only 2
14.
Accounts payable, accruals and notes payables are listed on balance sheet as
a)
accrued liabilities
b)
current liabilities
c)
accumulated liabilities
d)
noncurrent liabilities
e)
Long term liabilities
15.
Micro enterprise may be defined as whose investment in P& M and turnover does not exceed _______
a)
1 crore, 5 crores
b)
2 crores, 10 crores
c)
2 crores, 5 crores
d)
1 crore, 10 crores
e)
2 crores, 15 crores
16.
A new company has total sales of Rs.500 lacs in the first year. Total Cost of Production of Rs.400 lacs.
Closing Balance of Finished Goods is Rs.50 lacs. Total investment in Associate of Rs.30 lacs. How much the profit of the company?
a)
50 lakhs
b)
100 lakhs
c)
150 lakhs
d)
No profit No loss
e)
20 lakhs
17.
What is the maximum loan to employees of companies for purchasing shares of their own companies, under ESOP/ reserved by way of employee’s quota under IPO ?
a)
90% of the purchase price of the shares or Rs 20 Lacs, which is lower
b)
90% of the purchase price of the shares or Rs 20 Lacs, which is higher
c)
80% of the purchase price of the shares or Rs 20 Lacs, which is higher
d)
80% of the purchase price of the shares or Rs 20 Lacs, which is lower
e)
15 lakh
18.
Who can be identified as a non co-operative borrower
a)
Who does not engage constructively with the lenders and defaults timely
repayment of dues while having ability to pay
b)
Deliberately stone walls legitimate efforts of the lenders to recover their dues.
c)
Denying access to assets financed/ collateral securities, obstructing sale of
securities etc
d)
Only 1 & 2
e)
1 ,2 & 3
19.
QIS II is to be submitted in ________
a)
Withing six week after the end of the quarter
b)
Withing one week after the end of the quarter
c)
Withing three week after the end of the quarter
d)
Withing twelve weeks after the end of the quarter
e)
Bandhan Bank
20.
Stock and book debts audit has to be mandatorily carried out in fund and non fund based working capaital credit limits of Rs. _______
a)
50 lakhs and above
b)
1 crore and above
c)
2 crores and above
d)
5 crores and above
e)
None of above
21.
What is the maximum no of daily transactions for retail customers by NEFT/TPT in BOB Internet banking ?
a)
10
b)
15
c)
20
d)
25
e)
50
22.
What is the maximum amount for Fund transfer P2M transaction in Baroda Bhim Pay UPI
a)
25000
b)
50000
c)
100000
d)
500000
e)
None of above
23.
BOB World Pudhumai penn debit card can be issued in savings account having scheme code
a)
SB138
b)
SB136
c)
SB115
d)
SB150
e)
None of above
24.
To safeguard bank's customer interest against fraudulent siphoning of money from bank issued debitcard , our renewed debit card insurance policy is with
a)
IFLIC
b)
National Insurance Corp Ltd
c)
General Insurance Corporate of india
d)
United India Insurance Company
e)
None of above
25.
Which of the facilities are not available for retail customers under internet banking ?
a)
TDS Certificate generation
b)
Online dispute resolution system
c)
NEFT/RTGS transaction in bulk through file upload facility
d)
Interest certificate generation by date selection through Baroda Connect
e)
None of above
26.
Through BOB World Internet _ users can register /de register of the Whatsapp banking.
a)
Retail user only
b)
Corporate user only
c)
both retail and corporate users
d)
all of the above
e)
None of above
27.
What is the issuance fee of bob World "Agniveer" Debit Card under Rupay Platinum?
a)
NIL
b)
150
c)
200
d)
250
e)
None of these
28.
What is the menu for easy monitoring of compliance while opening current account
a)
ACFLAGGA
b)
AFCLAGHA
c)
ACFLAGCA
d)
ACFLACGA
e)
ACFLAGCA
29.
What is the menu for collection of locker rent in cash
a)
HLCSH
b)
HLCASH
c)
HLKCASH
d)
HKRCASH
e)
HLRCSH
30.
Which menu is required to add details of members of SHGs in agricultural advances ?
a)
AGRISHGVM
b)
AGRISHG
c)
AGSHGV
d)
AGRIMEMSHG
e)
None of above
31.
What is the menu for updating of locker data during merging of SOLs and shifting of locker cabinet from one branch to another
a)
HLKCMERG
b)
HMERSOLG
c)
HSOLMRG
d)
HLKRSOLMG
e)
None of above
32.
What is the new menu for updating the data related to interchanegability
a)
INTERCHG
b)
INTERCHANGE
c)
INTERCH
d)
INTERCHG
e)
None of above
33.
What is the name of new mobile application rolled out by our Bank for all Relationship Managers & Senior Relationship Managers from ICFS / CFS / Mid Corporate Branches?
a)
Relation24x7
b)
RM365
c)
RM360
d)
bobRM247
e)
None of above
34.
Which of the following Banks in India is NOT a designated domestic systemically important bank?
a)
SBI
b)
BOB
c)
ICICI BANK
d)
HDFC BANK
e)
None of above
35.
The full form of FACE is ?
a)
Financial Associati on (against)
b)
Finance Accreditor for Consumer Enlightenment
c)
Finance-inclined Association of Consumer Education
d)
Fintech Association for Consumer Empowerment
e)
None of above
36.
With a view to provide benefits and offerings to our customers who are not mapped under radiance category but holding depositsr elationship with us valuing Rs. 10 lakh and above, our Bank has decided to provide them tiered benefits after classifying them intothree categories based on CASA Quarterly Average Balance. Whichof the following is NOT one of the category:
a)
Rise
b)
Shine
c)
Star
d)
Sparkle
e)
None of above
37.
As per Master Directi on on Informati on Technology Governance, Risk,Controls and Assurance Practi ces, __________ refers to user who, byvirtue of functi on, and/or role, has been allocated powers within aninformati on system, which are signifi cantly greater than those available tothe majority of users.
a)
Privileged User
b)
Master User
c)
Preferred User
d)
Crowned User
e)
None of above
38.
Which of the following website/platform/entity of RBI is related to IT and cyber security needs and is set up to ensure cyber resilience of Indian banking?
a)
FinTech
b)
Sachet
c)
ReBIT
d)
DBIE
e)
None of above
39.
What is regulatory sandbox?
a)
Framework set up by SEBI to allow small-scale, live testing of innovations by private firms in a controlled environment under itssupervision.
b)
Framework set up by RBI to allow small-scale, live testing of innovations by private firms in a controlled environment under itssupervision.
c)
Framework set up by Central Government to allow small-scale, live testing of innovations by private firms in a controlledenvironment under its supervision.
d)
Framework set up by NPCI to allow small-scale, live testing of innovations by private firms in a controlled environment under itssupervision.
e)
None of above
40.
If a Person enters into PMJJBY scheme at age of 45 years, his premium will continue to debit till he attains age of _____ years?
a)
50
b)
60
c)
48
d)
55
e)
None of the Above
41.
In which of the following case the account opening request be re-initiated at the BC Points
a)
customers whose CUST ID could not get generated
b)
customers who earlier came for account opening but journey was voluntarily stopped by customer
c)
customers whose CUST ID gets generated but account number could not generated
d)
Account number got generated but customer ID is in freeze stage
e)
None of the Above
42.
Select all the correct statement regarding the "Continue Account creation" option available at BC Points
a)
facilitate the request in account opened on or after 24th June 2022
b)
a/c opening requests can be initiated at any time by the BCs for customers whose Customer ID were generated but a/c number could not be generated.
c)
can be used for only SB 150 & SB160
d)
all are correct
e)
Option B & C
43.
The land area of the farmers should be mentioned in which unit in KCCISS portal
a)
Bigha
b)
ACRE
c)
HECTARE
d)
METER
e)
None of the Above
44.
Refinance facility is provided by NABARD. Which institutions can avail this facility?
a)
State co-operative banks
b)
Regional rural banks
c)
Commercial bank
d)
All of the above
e)
None of the Above
45.
For assessment of TL limit under Agriculture, _____ times of net anticipated annual income/profit from economic Activities / allied activities /salary income, if any, should be considered.
a)
6
b)
4
c)
3
d)
2
e)
None of the Above
46.
Regional Authority can grant Deviation of upto ____ % in LTV on "C - Category Asset" as per New Tractor Finance Scheme.
a)
5
b)
3
c)
10
d)
15
e)
None of the Above
47.
As per CVC guidelines frauds are mainly divided into ____ types
a)
5
b)
7
c)
6
d)
8
e)
None of the Above
48.
As per CVC guidelines Issue of chargesheet is to be donewithin 15 days from the date of commissions advice or one month from the date of receipt of investigation report?
a)
two months
b)
four months
c)
one month
d)
three months
e)
None of the Above
49.
Verification of Inter-SOL transaction is allowed only for_________
a)
BRH & BH2
b)
BRH
c)
BH2
d)
Any Officer except credit officer
e)
None of the Above
50.
If branch is unable to carry out EDD in an account within the timeline due to any reason then the branch has to raise behavioral alert through
a)
EDDALERT
b)
AMLALERT
c)
AMLSUS
d)
AMLERT
e)
None of the Above
51.
The CBS system allows the generation of physical notices for identified Customer IDs due for Re-KYC upon completion of how many days from the Customer ID identification date/record creation date?
a)
60 days
b)
90 days
c)
105 days
d)
141 days
e)
None of the Above
52.
What is the timeframe given for updation of dispatch/tracking detail in CBS after the generation of physical notices?
a)
T+1 Day
b)
T+2 Day
c)
T+4 Day
d)
T+3 day
e)
T+5 Day
53.
The CBS system allows the regeneration (2nd Notice)of physical notices for identified Customer IDs due for Re-KYC upon completion of how many days from the Customer ID identification date/record creation date
a)
60 days
b)
90 days
c)
105 days
d)
141 days
e)
None of the Above
54.
Which form is to be used for pre mature closure of PPF accounts?
a)
Form no. 5
b)
Form No. 3
c)
Form No.2
d)
Form No.4
e)
None of the Above
55.
Which of the following document is required to view total SCSS investment amount of the customer in GBM
a)
Mobile Number
b)
Date of Birth
c)
PAN Number only
d)
Either Pan or AADHAR along with Mobile No./ Date of Birth
e)
None of the Above
56.
What is the maximum limit for deposit in an account held by an account holder under this Mahila Samman Saving certificate?
a)
Rs. 1 Lakh
b)
Rs. 2 Lakh
c)
Rs. 5 Lakh
d)
Rs. 10 lakh
e)
None of the Above
57.
What is the interest rate applicable to deposits made under this Mahila Samman Saving certificate Scheme?
a)
7.00%
b)
7.25%
c)
8%
d)
7.50%
e)
None of the Above
58.
When does the deposit under this Scheme mature, and how much maximum can be withdrawn after the expiry of one year from the date of opening of the account and before maturity?
a)
2 years from the date of the deposit, up to 50% of the eligible balance
b)
1 years from the date of the deposit, up to 40% of the eligible balance
c)
2 years from the date of the deposit, up to 40% of the eligible balance
d)
5 years from the date of the deposit, up to 40% of the eligible balance
e)
None of the Above
59.
Under TIN2.0 for collection of CBDT Challan under OTC mode the commission is Rs. ___ per challan.
a)
Rs. 10
b)
Rs. 9
c)
Rs.5
d)
Rs.20
e)
None of the Above
60.
Which digital mode has been recently made available to avail e-KVP (E-Kisan Vikas Patra) ?
a)
Base Branch
b)
BOBWORLD
c)
Baroda Connect
d)
TAB Banking appllication- BOBWORLD TAB
e)
None of the Above
61.
As per Section 17 of Banking Regulation Act, 1949, every banking company incorporated in India is required to create a reserve fund and to transfer to it at least.
a)
50% of profit after dividend
b)
20% of profit before dividend
c)
15% of total profits
d)
20% of total profits
e)
None of the Above
62.
As per Section 23 (1) of Banking Regulation Act 1949, a banking company is exempted from obtaining prior permission from RBI for :
a)
Change of premises within the same city, town or village
b)
Opening of an extension counter
c)
Providing temporary banking facilities in any institution
d)
Cash Reserve Ratio
e)
None of the Above
63.
Identify the regulatory authority for all securitization and reconstruction companies.
a)
SEBI
b)
RBI
c)
Company Law Board
d)
SIDBI
e)
None of the Above
64.
-------------- pools money from investors and invests in stocks, bonds, shares etc.
a)
a bank
b)
a factor
c)
a mutual fund
d)
a company
e)
None of the Above
65.
With regard to restructuring guidelines of RBI, what is full form of “SDR” ?
a)
Strategic Debt Restructuring
b)
Systematic Debt Restructuring
c)
Selective Debt Restructuring
d)
Strategic Drawings Restructuring
e)
None of the Above
66.
In case of collection of cheques and bills, the relationship of the banker with the customer is that of...
a)
Bank as agent and customer trustee
b)
Bank as trustee and customer debtor
c)
Banker as debtor and customer creditor
d)
Bank as agent and customer principal
e)
None of the Above
67.
"CTS-2010 standard", is related to:-
a)
computer language
b)
security feature in bank note
c)
The benchmark prescriptions for standardization of cheque books
d)
accounting standards
e)
None of the Above
68.
“Account Payee” in crossing with two transverse parallel lines is :-
a)
Special crossing
b)
General Crossing
c)
Restricted crossing
d)
It is not a crossing at all
e)
None of the Above
69.
”Once a Bearer is always a bearer” is applicable in respect of
a)
A bill of lading
b)
A cheque
c)
A demand promissory note
d)
A Certificate of Deposit
e)
None of the Above
70.
A is having a current account and the minimum balance required is Rs. 5000/-. The present balance is Rs 6000/-. A cheque is presented in clearing for Rs 5500/-. Now
a)
You will return the cheque
b)
You will pass the cheque
c)
You will pass the cheque and close the account
d)
You will pass the cheque, only if the customer deposits the required cash in the account, well in time
e)
None of the Above
71.
A bank as a collecting banker has misplaced the cheque accepted for collection. The customer when he approached to know about the realization of the cheque, then only the bank could realize it has misplaced the Cheque. In this case,
a)
The bank is responsible
b)
Till the cheque is realized or returned, the bank is not responsible
c)
If the cheque had been purchased, then the bank would have been responsible and not for collection item
d)
The bank is not responsible
e)
None of the Above
72.
A Bill of Exchange has been defined under section -------- of N.I. Act
a)
10
b)
131
c)
5
d)
4
e)
None of the Above
73.
What does CSM stand for in the Radiance structure?
a)
Client Service Executive
b)
Client Service Manager
c)
Wealth Strategist
d)
Territory Heads
e)
None of the Above
74.
What is the minimum Total Relationship Value (TRV) required for individuals/non- individuals to be eligible for 'Baroda Radiance'?
a)
INR 25 Lakhs or above
b)
INR 10 Lakhs or above
c)
INR 30 Lakhs or above
d)
INR 3 Crores or above
e)
None of the Above
75.
Nominations pending in Current, Saving and Term Deposit accounts can be checked on which portal
a)
bobinside.nominations.org
b)
CERMO
c)
OCRMS
d)
Qlik Portal
e)
None of the Above
76.
What is the newly created customer type code for Staff Unions to avail staff interest benefit?
a)
STUNI
b)
UNASS
c)
STUAC
d)
UNASU
e)
None of the Above
77.
What is the name of the revamp exercise of the Wealth management structure?
a)
Project BOBNOWW
b)
Baroda Radiance 2.0
c)
Radiance Di Hub
d)
Baroda Radiance
e)
None of the Above
78.
Minimum Amount of default for going to DRT is Rs. _____
a)
Rs. 50 lakh
b)
Rs. 20 lakh
c)
Rs. 25 lakh
d)
Rs. 40 Lakh
e)
None of the Above
79.
Presiding officer of DRT issues Recovery Certificates to be executed by ___________?
a)
Zonal Head
b)
Regional Head
c)
Recovery officer
d)
Presiding Officer
e)
None of the Above
80.
An NPA Account is of Rs. 50 lakh is under SARFAESI proceedings. Who is the competent authority for stop/ defer action under SARFAESI
a)
Zonal Head
b)
Regional Head
c)
CGM- Recovery
d)
Any one of the above
e)
None of the Above
81.
Detail of Accounts where action under SARFAESI Act has been deferred shall be reported by Zonal Offices to the GM Head- NPA Recovery in every ____ days
a)
7
b)
15
c)
30
d)
45
e)
None of the Above
82.
If any objection is raised by Borrower after receiving Demand Notice u/s 13(2), its reply should be given by Authorised Officer with in _____ days.
a)
30
b)
60
c)
7
d)
15
e)
None of the Above
83.
In staff Related accounts, No Compromise by way of sacrifice/ waiver may be sanctioned by any authority below_________
a)
RMCC
b)
ZOCC- GM
c)
Head NPA Recovery
d)
ED
e)
None of the Above
84.
Type of Loan Facility available under Baroda Kisan Tatkal Scheme is
a)
Cash Credit
b)
Term Loan
c)
Overdraft
d)
B & C Both
e)
None of the Above
85.
A Red Flagged Account (RFA) is one where a suspicion of
a)
Economic distress is thrown by EWS in the account
b)
Resolution is thrown in the account
c)
fraudulent activity is thrown up by the presence of one or more Early Warning Signals (EWS).
d)
The account is sure of becoming an NPA in future.
e)
None of the Above
86.
Applicable TCS on Purchase of Overseas tour program package
a)
5% (without threshold)
b)
5% till Rs 7 lakh, 20% thereafter
c)
Nil upto Rs 7 lakh ,20 % above Rs 7 lakh
d)
Nil upto Rs 7 lakh , 5 % above Rs 7 lakh
e)
None of the Above
87.
What is the maximum limit of Trade Credit for per import transaction equivalent in USD for oil/gas refining & marketing, airline and shipping companies
a)
USD 50 MILLION
b)
USD 100 MILLION
c)
USD 150 Million
d)
USD 750 MILLION
e)
None of the Above
88.
What is the maximum limit of Trade Credit for per import transaction equivalent in USD for company other than oil/gas refining & marketing, airline and shipping companies
a)
USD 50 MILLION
b)
USD 100 MILLION
c)
USD 150 Million
d)
USD 750 MILLION
e)
None of the Above
89.
In trade credit All-in-cost ceiling per annum for transaction
a)
a ) Benchmark Rate plus 350 bps spread: For existing TCs linked to LIBOR whose benchmarks are changed to ARR.
b)
b) Benchmark rate plus 300 bps spread: For new TCs
c)
c) Benchmark rate plus 400 bps spread: For new TCs
d)
d) both a & b
e)
None of the Above
90.
Under UPAS L/C payment to Exporter will be made on
a)
Sight Basis
b)
Usance Basis
c)
None
d)
Both A&B
e)
None of the Above
91.
Under Summer Bonanza 2023 General Insurance campaign our bank has tie up partners with _______________
a)
Chola MS
b)
TATA AIG
c)
NICL
d)
ALL
e)
None of the Above
92.
Our Bank has introduce a __________________ platform for both Life and Non-Life insurance business.
a)
bob World Smart Insure
b)
Smart Invest
c)
bob world M invest
d)
bob World Internet
e)
None of the Above
93.
As per the Master Direction on Counterfeit Notes, 2023 which among the following office is having the authority to impound the Counterfeit Notes.
a)
All Banks
b)
All RBI offices
c)
All Branches of PSU including Currency Chest
d)
All PSU Branches including BC Points
e)
None of the Above
94.
If the Counterfeit Notes are detected in the tender received over the counter, what should be the course of action?
a)
Stamp the note as "COUNTERFEIT NOTE"
b)
Impound the note in the Bank’s prescribed format.
c)
Record the note in a separate register.
d)
All of above are true
e)
None of the Above
95.
For cases of detection of Counterfeit Notes up to four (04) pieces in a single transaction, which of the following option is correct?
a)
Nodal Bank Officer to send Counterfeit Notes to police authorities
b)
Branch officer to submit the Counterfeit Notes to Police Station
c)
All the Counterfeit Notes to be submitted within week to Police Station
d)
Less than four Counterfeit Notes to be submitted to Currency Chest.
e)
None of the Above
96.
What is CFT under KYC / AML regulations?
a)
Combating the financing of the terrorism
b)
Calculating financial terrorism
c)
Commission on financial terrorism
d)
Committee on financial terrorism
e)
None of the Above
97.
Submission of details of PAN (Permanent Account Number) is compulsory for Fixed Deposits, Remittances, such as DDs/ TTs/ Rupee TCs, etc, if the amount exceeds-
a)
Rs 10,000/-
b)
Rs 25,000/-
c)
Rs 50,000/-
d)
No such Limit
e)
None of the Above
98.
In case of Demat Account opening branches mandetorily obtain apart from other OVDs.
a)
PAN Card
b)
Aadhaar Card
c)
Voter ID
d)
Driving Licence
e)
None of the Above
99.
All whsitle blower complaints/disclosures enclosed ducments/annexures,and the investigation reports sahll be retained by the bank ………….
a)
for 3 Years
b)
For 5 Years
c)
For 7 Years
d)
As per policy on preservation and destruction of records and Document handling.
e)
none of these
100.
The whistle blower can escalate the complaint/disclosure raised under "Internalwhistle blower policy for employees and directors" to………if he/she is not satisfied with the proceedings of investigations.
a)
CGM Hrm
b)
CMD of the Bank
c)
Chairperson, Audit Committee of the Board
d)
CVO at Central Govt.
e)
none of these
101.
How many pillars are available as per the Policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
e)
none of these
102.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, System of Red Flags and White Flags fall under pillar.
a)
2nd
b)
3rd
c)
1st
d)
4th
e)
none of these
103.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, the High- Risk Area carries Red Flag Points.
a)
1
b)
3
c)
5
d)
10
e)
none of these
104.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, employees accumulating Red Flag in Category 1 will be put under a mentor for months.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
6
d)
10
e)
none of these
105.
What is the purpose of social Media Policy of our Bank
a)
Do’s and Don’ts of Social Media for Employees, consultants, contractors, trainees, part time and fixed time employees and agency staff
b)
To update and caution the employees about the consequences of violating the Bank’s social media policy.
c)
Regulations, Legal and compliance involved in implementing social media.
d)
Provide guidelines for information security
e)
All of the above
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