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QUIZ 7 OFFICERS BATCH 2023-24

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Maximum Concession that can be given to applicants purchasing electric vehicle under Auto Loan Scheme is
a)

0.05%

b)

0.50%

c)

0.10%

d)

0.25%

e)
NIL concession
2.
What is the maximum loan that can be granted to regular pensioner for age above 70 years
a)
8.00 lacs
b)
5.00 Lacs
c)
3.00 Lacs
d)
1.50 Lacs
e)
None of above
3.
What is the margin requirement to finance Mortgage Loan in case of Industrial Property
a)

25%

b)

35%

c)

40%

d)

50%

e)

10%

4.
Maximum repayment period for loan against Life insurance policy is                        .
a)
Maximum 60 EMIs or upto maturity period which ever is lower
b)
Maximum 36 EMIs or upto  maturity period whichever is  higher
c)
Maximum 36 EMIs or upto  maturity period whichever is  lower
d)
Maximum 60 EMIs or upto  maturity period whichever is  higher
e)
None of these
5.
Unified Processing fees for all pension excluding staff is
a)
500+ GST
b)
1000 + GST
c)
1500 + GST
d)
NIL
e)
None of these
6.
In case of retail loans 13 years NEC is now permitted to be accepted in following cases
a)
Minor / interest is involved
b)
In properties, where advocates prima facie find any litigation in the property
c)
In case of the legal opinion, NEC to be obtained for open land / plot
d)
1 & 3 only
e)
All of the above
7.
What is maximum collateral free loan limit under Baroda education loan scheme for executive development programme under Baroda Gyan Scheme?
a)
20 lacs
b)
7.50 lacs
c)
15 lacs
d)
4 lacs
e)
50 lacs
8.
Whats is the Maximum deduction that is required to be taken under Baroda Auto loan scheme for 2 wheelers with GMI less than 20000
a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

70%

e)
None of the above
9.
What is the maximum term loan that can given to Business Correspondents in urban areas
a)
25000
b)
30000
c)
40000
d)
50000
e)
60000
10.
Following capital expenditures are to be considered while under MSME Capex Card and CAPEX Loan
a)
Replacement of old machinery
b)
Purchasing of balancing euipments
c)
Investment in research and developments
d)
Only 1 and 3
e)
All of the above
11.
Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inventory with:
a)
average sales,
b)
cost of goods sold,
c)
total purchases,
d)
total assets.
e)
None of these
12.
Which one of the following is not the determinant of the working capital?
a)
size of the firm
b)
operating cycle
c)
terms of credit
d)
competitors
e)
None of these
13.
Under PMMY Scheme Tarun Loans may be classified as
a)
Upto rs.50000
b)
Between 5 lakh to 10 lakhs
c)
between 50000 to rs.5.00 lakhs
d)
between 10 lakhs to 20 lakhs
e)
None of these
14.
Factoring involves:
a)
providing short term loan
b)
providing long term loan
c)
financing of export receivables
d)
management of receivables of borrower
e)
None of these
15.
One of the following is false about BOB Premium LAP scheme
a)
Loan for purchase of commercial shops/ offices may be closed.
b)
Hypothecation of P & M is preferred and is to be explored.
c)
Takeover loans is not allowed.
d)
Only 2
e)
Only 1 and 2
16.
What is the maximum loan that can be given in Metros under Baroda Property pride
a)
5 crores
b)
10 crores
c)
20 crores
d)
25 crores
e)
none of these
17.
What is the maximum loan that can be granted under PMSvanidhi Scheme for the 3rd time
a)
10000
b)
20000
c)
50000
d)
40000
e)
5000
18.
Identify which of the three mututally reinofrcing pillers Base III Capital regulations are based ? a. Minimum Capital standards b.Supervisory review of capital adequacy c. credit risk management d, market discipline e. management control choose the mose appropirate answer
a)
a, b and c only
b)
a, b and d only
c)
c, d and e only
d)
a, c and d only
e)
b, d and e only
19.
Frequency for stock /book debt audit in case of borrower who is externally rated as “A” consistently for latest 2 years is ______.
a)
Quarterlly
b)
Annualy
c)
Bi-annually
d)
Half yearly
e)
None of these
20.
What is the maximum amount that can be sanctioned under tranche 1 of PM Vishwakarma Scehem
a)
50000
b)
100000
c)
150000
d)
200000
e)
300000
21.
Short review is to be enter in CBS using menu
a)
HBAIM
b)
SHORTEV
c)
HCLM
d)
SHTREV
e)
HSCLM
22.
Vetting of loan documents from bank's law officer @ zone, regional office in following cases
a)
Loan exposure is above Rs.1 crore
b)
Loan exposure is above Rs. 2.00 Crores
c)
Loan exposure is above Rs. 5.00 Crores
d)
Loan exposure is above Rs. 10.00 Crores
e)
None of above
23.
Following proposals are required to be routed through CREP
a)
Fresh/ RWI exposure of 5 crores and above to single party
b)
Decline in rating beyond 2 notches in BOB1 rated a/c and 1 notch in BOB2 and below rated accounts with exposure of 5 crores and above
c)
Dilution of security in case of proposal above 5 crores
d)
All of the above
e)
Only 1 & 2
24.
Green Pin Facility available in BOB World Internet only for customers
a)
Retail Customers only
b)
Corporate customers only
c)
Both retail and corporate customers
d)
Non individual
e)
None of these
25.
Baroda Gift card is a _________________ card.
a)
RuPay Platinum Mag stripe card
b)
VISA Platinum Mag stripe card
c)
RuPay Platinum EVM Chip card
d)
VISA Platinum EVM Chip card
e)
None of these
26.
Proprietor wants to access both Savings account and proprietorship Current account (Firm account) in Mobile Banking.
a)
Both (B) and ©
b)
Savings account should be registered for Mobile Banking. Proprietor should be authorized signatory in the Firm Account under related party details
c)
Not allowed
d)
Firm account is registered for Mobile Banking. Proprietor should be authorized signatory in the Firm Account under related party details
e)
None of these
27.
________can open a B3 digital savings account instantly using remote Video KYC.
a)
Existing customers of having 6 months account relationship
b)
New to bank customers
c)
Existing customers of having 1 year account relationship
d)
Existing customers
e)
None of these
28.
The bob world application has been designed on the following 4 pillars, encompassing nearly 220 services________.
a)
SAVE, INVEST, BORROW, SHOP
b)
SAVE, INVEST, BORROW, SECURE
c)
SAVE, SECURE, BORROW, SHOP
d)
SECURE, INVEST, BORROW, SHOP
e)
None of these
29.
Baroda Travel Easy Card can be used in following Country
a)
Bhutan
b)
Nepal
c)
Zambia
d)
India
e)
None of these
30.
How much maximum amount can be paid as BOB Credit Card payment from BOB World Application
a)
100000
b)
25000
c)
No limit
d)
50000
e)
None of these
31.
What is the menu for allowing closure of unverified savings accounts generated through TAB banking application by branch branches ?
a)
RBLCCAAC
b)
RBLLCAAC
c)
RLLBOCAAC
d)
RBELOCAAC
e)
None of above
32.
What is the menu for lodgment of interest subsidy claim under "Padho Pradesh" Scheme for education loan
a)
EDULODGE
b)
EDUMGLOD
c)
EDULOANM
d)
EDULDLNM
e)
None of above
33.
What is the finnacle menu for Tax deducted at source report for account level tax by custom
a)
HTDSRP
b)
HTDSREP
c)
HTDERP
d)
HTDREP
e)
None of above
34.
What is the menu for CBDT Collection - depositing clearing intruments ?
a)
TINDTC
b)
CBDTITC
c)
CBDTOTC
d)
TINOTC
e)
None of above
35.
Which CBS menu is created for collection of direct tax from customers?
a)
OLTAS
b)
TINOTC
c)
BOBMENU
d)
CA118
e)
None of above
36.
As per recent amendments in PMLA Act, a _______________ shall only be a management level officer of the reporting entity forreporting of suspicious transactions to the FIU.
a)
Beneficial Owner
b)
Principal Officer
c)
Partner of Partnership fi rm
d)
Company Secretary
37.
As per RBI guidelines, in case of delay in releasing of original movable / immovable property documents or failing to file charge satisfaction form with relevant registry beyond 30 days after full repayment/ setlement of loan, the Banks shall compensate the borrower at the rate of Rs. _____ for each day of delay where the delay is a ributable to the Bank
a)
Zero, no such guidelines
b)
Rs.5000
c)
Rs. 10,000
d)
Rs. 50,000
38.
Which Bank recently launched Aadhaar-based enrolment for social security schemes.
a)
BANK OF BARODA
b)
STATE BANK OF INDIA
c)
HDFC BANK
d)
ICICI BANK
39.
The Cygnet Platform of Bank gives analysis based on databases pulled from three important sources to help making credit decisions or as a tool of due diligence. Which of the following is NOT one of the sourced database?
a)
Goods & Service Tax data
b)
Income Tax Data
c)
CIBIL / CRIF Data
d)
Bank Statement Data
40.
Which of the following portal/registry is meant for reporting of Foreign Investment in India –
a)
DAKSH Portal
b)
CRA Portal
c)
FIRMS Portal
d)
UDGAM Portal
41.
Who is the designer of Indian Rupee Symbol ₹
a)
Shri Pingali Venkayya
b)
Shri Udaya Kumar Dharmalingam
c)
Ms. Priya Sharma
d)
Shri Dinanath Bhargava
42.
Which of the following due diligence tool/website will be helpful in knowing the parent and subsidiary organizations (including direct and ultimate) of the company in India and abroad?
a)
Cygnet Fame
b)
CEIB Database
c)
Central Fraud Registry
d)
LEI database
43.
Please choose the correct option for BPLR & Base rate effective from 12-04-2023 in our Bank
a)
13.45 % & 9.15 %
b)
13.70 % & 9.40 %
c)
13.70% & 9.15 %
d)
13.45 % & 9.40 %
44.
GLOAN menu has been introduced to reduce TAT in Gold Loans and to have uniform compliance in processing of Gold Loans. Select the odd one
a)
GLDRTM entry and authorization
b)
Loan account opening and authorization
c)
Auto enrichment of HBAIM security details for Loan account
d)
Loan ac modification
e)
Collection of processing Charges with GST
45.
What can be Minimum number of members of SHG under remote areas ar places with scarce population?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
5
d)
8
e)
None of the Above
46.
Capital subsidy at _____ of own corpus of SHG will be provided by DAY-NRLM?
a)
10
b)
25
c)
40
d)
50
e)
No capital subsidy will be sanctioned to any SHG under DAY-NRLM.
47.
Scheme for Financing under Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund, what can be nature of facility?
a)
Term loan
b)
Cash Credit
c)
Overdraft
d)
As required by the borrower
e)
None of the Above
48.
Under the Scheme for Financing Facility under PM Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PM FME Scheme), what is the maximum repayment period for Term Loan?
a)
5 Years
b)
7 Years
c)
10 Years
d)
15 Years
e)
None of the Above
49.
For Fresh Enrolment of PMJJBY & PMSBY, branches have to use which of the following options?
a)
Bank of Baroda website
b)
Tab Banking
c)
Jansuraksha Portal
d)
PMY Menu
e)
None of the Above
50.
The Whistle Blower Policy Guidelines for employees and Directors in BOB is prepared by …………….Department?
a)
HRM Department
b)
Operations & Services, HO
c)
Fraud risk management
d)
Digital banking
e)
None of the Above
51.
The ownership of the whistle blower policy rests with……..
a)
CVO of the Bank
b)
Chief Learing Officer of the Bank
c)
Chief Risk Officer of the Bank
d)
MD & CEO of the Bank
e)
None of the Above
52.
What assets are required to be registered with CERSAI, regardless of the date of charge creation?
a)
Only immovable assets
b)
Only movable assets
c)
Only intangible assets
d)
Both immovable and movable assets
e)
None of the Above
53.
What is the full form of FATF ?
a)
Financial Assessment Task Force
b)
Financial Action Task Force
c)
Fintech Assessment Task Force
d)
Financial Analysis Task Force
e)
None of the Above
54.
PPF account opened at branch of Maharashtra can be transferred to branch of which state?
a)
Manipur
b)
Delhi
c)
Rajasthan
d)
Anywhere in INDIA
e)
None of the Above
55.
Withdrawal from PPF account can be made from the ____financial year
a)
8th
b)
7th
c)
9th
d)
10th
e)
None of the Above
56.
The central govt declares rate of interest on PPF and SCSS on every?
a)
Month
b)
Quarter
c)
Half year
d)
Fortnight
e)
None of the Above
57.
what is the penalty rate for premature closure of PPF account?
a)

1%

b)

2%

c)

3%

d)

4%

e)
None of the Above
58.
The ROI for E-KVP for FY 2023-24 is ?
a)

8%

b)

8.5%

c)

7%

d)

7.50%

e)
None of the Above
59.
What is the fee payable under RTI ACT, for getting the required information:-
a)
Rs. 5/-
b)
Rs. 2/-
c)
No fees
d)
Rs. 10/-
60.
What is the relationship of the bank and RBI when bank is handling the currency chest at its branch?
a)
bailee and bailor
b)
bailor and bailee
c)
Agent and principal
d)
Beneficiary and trustee
61.
Which is not the function of RBI
a)
Regulates Banking activities in India
b)
Decides Bank rate, CRR and SLR from time to time
c)
Issuance of Bank Guarantee an LC
d)
Acts as a banker to the Government
62.
Who conducts integrated supervision over commercial banks, FIs and NBFCs and other para banking financial institutions in India
a)
Security Exchange Board of India
b)
Ministry of Finance, Government of India
c)
Board for Financial Supervision, RBI
d)
Department of Banking Operations, RBI
63.
Which of the following statement matches its answer.
a)
Bearer cheque can be negotiated with endorsement and delivery only
b)
Order cheque can be negotiated with endorsement only
c)
After a blank endorsement on an order cheque, the cheque can be negotiated further with delivery only
d)
Endorsement on a bearer cheque makes it an order instrument
64.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a)
A bill of exchange is an instrument in writing
b)
A bill of exchange may be drawn conditionally
c)
A bill of exchange directs a certain person to pay certain amount of money
d)
A.   A bill of exchange is payable to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument as per NI Act
65.
Which of the following statements is not correct as per NI Act
a)
The holder can convert special crossing into general crossing or he can cancel any crossing under his signature
b)
The holder can cross a cheque
c)
If a cheque is simply crossed, he can add special crossing
d)
If cheque is simply or specially crossed he can add the words ‘not negotiable’ in it
66.
Which of the following types of cheques can be endorsed
a)
Account payee cheques
b)
Bearer cheques
c)
Cheques payable to the order
d)
Cheque with restricted endorsement
67.
Which section of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, deals with penalties in case of dishonour of cheques
a)
Section 6
b)
Section 1
c)
Section 81
d)
Section 138
68.
Who among the following can endorse a negotiable instrument?
a)
a insolvent
b)
a lunatic
c)
an illiterate person
d)
Pensioner
69.
Who among the following is not a competent to endorse a cheque
a)
A minor
b)
An insolvent person on behalf of the other competent person who has given him a mandate
c)
An illiterate person who cannot sign
d)
A pardanashin lady
70.
What is the purpose of the "KUSHAL MANGAL CAMPAIGN" launched by the bank?
a)
Contact customers to reactivate their dormant accounts / Claim funds back from DEAF
b)
Promote awareness about the Depositors Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF)
c)
Recover lost deposits through the RBI's assistance
d)
Encourage customers to open new accounts with the bank
e)
None of the Above
71.
How much concession will be offered to Baroda Radiance customer under Locker rental charges w.e.f. 1st Jan 2024?
a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

e)
None of the Above
72.
Baroda Premium Current account can not be opened by
a)
Individual
b)
NRI
c)
Minors
d)
Bank & Financial Institutions
e)
option 2,3,4
73.
Baroda Start Up curreent Account cheme Code is
a)
CA 126
b)
CA 127
c)
CA 128
d)
CA 129
e)
None of the Above
74.
For Pre Mature closure of any TD account of more than 1 crore, ____ days prior notice is to be given by Borrower.
a)
45 days
b)
50 days
c)
30 days
d)
31 days
e)
None of the Above
75.
How much prefrential rate of interest is given by bank under NON Callable Deposit for Rs. Up to 2 Crore?
a)

0.20%

b)

0.15%

c)

0.10%

d)

0.25%

e)
None of the Above
76.
SAC approach is to be used for compromise. What is SAC?
a)
Strict Advisory committee
b)
Settlement Advisory committee
c)
Security auction committee
d)
Stressed asset committee
e)
None of the Above
77.
Sacrifice power of scale III branch manager headed SAC for write off is?
a)
Rs. 5.00 Lakh
b)
Rs. 10.00 lakh
c)
Rs. 25.00 Lakh
d)
Rs. 12.50 lakh
e)
None of the Above
78.
Sacrifice power of chief manager headed SAC for Waiver is?
a)
Rs. 20.00 Lakh
b)
Rs. 50.00 Lakh
c)
Rs. 100 lakh
d)
Rs. 35.00 Lakh
e)
None of the Above
79.
In any Comprmise settlement, if time line is extended beyond agreed timeline for 9 months, then how much ROI is to be charged on Loan account as penalty?
a)
1yr MCLR+ 1.50%
b)
1yr MCLR+ 1.00%
c)
1yr MCLR+ 0.50%
d)
1yr MCLR+ 2.00%
e)
None of the Above
80.
In the event of unsuccessful auction, reserve price may be reduced by ____till sucessful auction?
a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

25%

e)

30%

81.
What is the % of provisioning for CRE advance in standard account?
a)

2%

b)

3%

c)

1%

d)

5%

e)
None of the Above
82.
What is the minimum & Maximum duration of deposit for for FCNR deposit .
a)
12months,12 months
b)
12months,120months
c)
12 months,60months
d)
6 months,60months
e)
No Limit
83.
Which is NOT True for Baroda RFC above 12 months deposit
a)
No interest payable if withdrawn prematurely before 12 months
b)
Acceptable in USD,GBP,JPY,AUD&EURO
c)
Fully repatriable
d)
No Income tax liability
e)
Maximum deposit limit USD2,50,000
84.
Incase of FCNR & NRE accounts NRIs are permitted to open joint accounts with resident close relatives .The mandate must be ____
a)
Either or Survivor
b)
Former or survivor
c)
Anyone can operate
d)
Later or survivor
e)
A&B
85.
NRIs who have come back to India for permanent settlement are allowed to maintain a foreign currency account known as
a)
Resident Foreign Currency account
b)
FCNR account
c)
Resident Foreign Currency - Domestic Account
d)
EEFC Account
e)
Not allowed
86.
NRE account can be opened by NRI by
a)
Conversion of existing domestic account
b)
By remittance from abroad or transfer of funds from existing NRE,FCNR Accounts in the name of the same person
c)
By transfer fund from existing NRO Account
d)
Any eligible local credit
e)
Both B & C
87.
The CBS system allows the regeneration (2nd Notice)of physical notices for identified Customer IDs due for Re-KYC upon completion of how many days from the Customer ID identification date/record creation date
a)
60 days
b)
90 days
c)
105 days
d)
141 days
88.
If Re-KYC is not carried out, at what intervals does the CBS system prompt for the generation of physical notices?
a)
60 days
b)
75 days
c)
105 days
d)
141 days
89.
Baroda Medicare Apka Plan B is a plan by which insurance provider
a)
Niva Bupa Health Insurance company Ltd
b)
TATA AIG
c)
Star Health & allied Insurance company Ltd
d)
National Insurance Co. Ltd
90.
What is the age eligibility for Top-up Plan under Baroda Medibare -Aapka Plan B> Select all that is applicable
a)
(a) For adult- 18 to 60 yrs
b)
(b) For Adult - 19 - 60 yrs
c)
(c) For children -91 days - 25 yrs
d)
Option (b) and (c)
91.
What is the purpose of setting up of CEMU
a)
immediate rectification of reported irregularities in FINACLE
b)
immediate rectification of reported expceptions in FINACLE
c)
data enrichment to curtail such irregularities
d)
all the above
92.
Strict adherence to KYC norms is achieved through
a)
following the statutory authority guideines
b)
identification of customers with appropriate documents
c)
strict Implementation of the Banks Systems and procedures while opening the account
d)
All of the above
93.
What is the menu to identify existing customer ID?
a)
CUSTDDUP
b)
FINDCUST
c)
MERGCUST
d)
None of the above
94.
What is the menu for finding duplicate customer ID?
a)
CUSTDDUP
b)
FINDCUST
c)
MERGCUST
d)
None of the above
95.
The Whistle Blower Policy Guidelines for employees and Directors in BOB is prepared by Department?
a)
HRM Department
b)
Operations & Services,HO
c)
Fraud Risk Management
d)
Digital Banking
e)
none of these
96.
What are the objectives of Whistle Blower Policy :
a)
To build and promote robust whistle blowing mechansim
b)
To ensure adequate safeguards to whistle blowers againsts risk of victimaization
c)
To empower and encourage employees and Directors to report genuine complaint/Disclosures
d)
All of these
e)
none of these
97.
Following complaints /disclosures shall be covered under Whistle Blower Policy except:
a)
Corruption
b)
Misuse of Office for illegal purpose
c)
Suspected or actual Fraud
d)
Employment related concerns .i.e Salary,Leave,LTC
e)
none of these
98.
Who is the Designated Authority at present to receive complaints/disclosures under the "Internal whistle blower policy for employees and Directors in BOB ?
a)
Chief Compliance Officer
b)
Chief Learning Officer
c)
Chief Risk Officer
d)
Chief Vigilacne Officer
e)
none of these
99.
Whi is Chief Designated officer(DO) under Whsitle Blower Policy?
a)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of AGM to assist the Deginated Authority
b)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of Chief Manager to assist the Deginated Authority
c)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of DGM to assist the Deginated Authority
d)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of Senior Manager to assist the Deginated Authority
e)
none of these
100.
Complaints/Disclosures under Internal Whistle Blower policy for employees and Directors against Board Level Executives and the designated Authority may be addressed to :
a)
Chairperson,Audit Committee of the Baord
b)
CVO of the bank
c)
CGM Hrm
d)
CVO at Central Govt.
e)
none of these
101.
Anonymous complaints /disclosures are also acceptable under whistle blower policy?
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
102.
If the complaint is admissable under whistle Blower policy and the designated authority may refer the matter to CIAD for getting investigated by the concerned ZIAD.Investigation report should be submitted to the designated authority (DA) within ……….days of the matter referring to the CIAD.
a)
7
b)
15
c)
21
d)
30
e)
none of these
103.
If the Designated Authority after coducting an inquiry, is of the opinion that there are no sufficient graounds for the proceeding with the inquiry, he /she may ……….
a)
Clsoe the complaint.
b)
May further ask the complainant to provide more inputs
c)
Ask the concerned ZIAD to investigate further
d)
May leave the complaint unatended.
e)
none of these
104.
Which of the following is the finacle menu to downloand report on clearning transactions outside home MICR centre in live CBS
a)
TRNRPT
b)
BOBMENU
c)
MICRRPT
d)
CLRRPT
e)
none of these
105.
Off SOL Inward Clearing Transaction Report has to be generated at            
a)
9 am / 10 am, 12 noon, 3 pm
b)
9 am / 10 am, 1 pm, 3 pm
c)
8 am / 10 am, 12 noon, 4 pm
d)
9 am / 10 am, 1 pm, 4 pm
e)
none of these
106.
Which of the following is the finacle menu to freeze the debit transactions in the account ?
a)
HAFSA
b)
HAFSM
c)
HAFSD
d)
HAFTS
e)
none of these