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kiem 1 NTHoa 1

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following departments is most likely responsible for pay rate changes and changes in deductible amounts for employees?

a)

general accounting department

b)

human resources department

c)

treasurer

d)

controller

2.

The payroll and personnel cycle ends with which of the following events?

a)

interviewing job candidates

b)

hiring a new employee

c)

existing employees submitting requests for payment for work performed

d)

issuance of paychecks

3.

Which of the following includes all payroll transactions processed by the accounting system for a given period of time?

a)

payroll journal

b)

payroll transaction file

c)

time report

d)

payroll summary

4.

Records that include data about employees such as employment date, performance ratings and pay rates are the

a)

human resource records

b)

employee screening forms.

c)

summary payroll reports

d)

employee folders.

5.

Which of the following is not one of the business functions for the payroll and personnel cycle?

a)

payment of payroll

b)

timekeeping and payroll preparation

c)

reconciliation of payroll account

d)

human resources and employment

6.

Actual interest expense is significantly higher than the auditor's estimate. This would most likely lead the auditor to conclude that the client has not

a)

recorded all long-term interest bearing debt in the accounting records.

b)

recorded all interest expense paid or accrued.

c)

properly accounted for the discount of bonds payable account.

d)

properly recorded interest income.

7.

The total of the individual employee earnings in the payroll master file should equal the total

a)

balance of gross payroll in general ledger accounts.

b)

of the checks drawn to employees for payroll.

c)

gross payroll plus the total contributed by the employer for payroll taxes.

d)

gross pay for the current week's payroll.

8.

Which department should be authorized to add and delete employees from the payroll or change pay rates and deductions?

a)

the supervising department

b)

the accounting department

c)

the human resources department

d)

the treasurer's department

9.

Which of the following would have the least amount of importance regarding controls over the processing of payroll?

a)

The person authorized to sign paychecks should not be otherwise involved in the preparation of the payroll.

b)

A check-signing machine should not be used to replace a manual signature.

c)

Distribution of pay checks should be performed by someone who is not involved in the other payroll functions.

d)

Unclaimed paychecks should be immediately returned for redeposit.

10.

An auditor is vouching a sample of hourly employees from the payroll master file to approved time clock or time sheet data in order to provide evidence that

a)

employees work the number of hours for which they are paid.

b)

payments are made at the contractual rate.

c)

product cost information is accurate.

d)

segregation of duties is present between the payroll function and the payment function for cash disbursements.

11.

The primary concern in determining whether retained earnings is correctly disclosed on the balance sheet is

a)

correct calculation of the net income or loss for the year.

b)

whether prior-period adjustments have been made correctly

c)

correct calculation of dividend payments for the year.

d)

whether there are any restrictions on the payment of dividends.

12.

When verifying if capital stock is accurately recorded,

a)

the ending balance in the account does not need to verified.

b)

the number of shares outstanding at the balance sheet date is verified by examining the corporate minutes.

c)

the recorded par value can be determined by multiplying the number of shares by the market price of the stock.

d)

a confirmation from the transfer agent is the simplest way to verify the number of shares outstanding at the balance sheet date.

13.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the audit of dividends?

a)

The emphasis is on the ending balance in the dividends account.

b)

When auditors verify that the dividends are paid to stockholders that exist, they are concerned with the completeness objective.

c)

If the client uses a transfer agent to disburse dividends, the total can be traced to a cash disbursement entry to the agent and also confirmed.

d)

All of the above are correct statements.

14.

When conducting the audit of stockholders' equity, it is normal practice to verify all capital stock transactions

a)

only when the client is small

b)

that are in excess of a material amount.

c)

if there aren't very many during the year.

d)

regardless of the controls in existence, because of their materiality and permanence in the records.

15.

If a company employs a capital stock registrar and/or transfer agent, the registrar or agent, or both, should be requested to confirm directly to the auditor the number of shares of each class of stock

a)

surrendered and canceled during the year

b)

authorized at the balance sheet date.

c)

sold at a price above par during the year.

d)

issued and outstanding at the balance sheet date.

16.

An imprest petty cash fund would least likely be used to pay for which of the following items?

a)

minor office supplies

b)

monthly interest expense

c)

stamps for small mailings

d)

small contributions to a local charity

17.

An imprest petty cash fund

a)

is a bank account.

b)

is used for large, unusual purchases.

c)

is usually reimbursed at least once a week for good internal control.

d)

is being replaced by pre-approved purchase cards in many companies.

18.

Which of the following misstatements is most likely to be uncovered during an audit of a client's bank reconciliation?

a)

duplicate payment of a vendor's invoice

b)

billing a customer at a lower price than indicated by company policy

c)

failure to record a collection of a note receivable by the bank on the client's behalf

d)

payment to an employee for more than the hours actually worked

19.

Which of the following is likely to be detected as part of the audit of the bank reconciliation?

a)

failure to bill a customer

b)

duplicate payment of a vendor invoice

c)

cash received by the client after year-end, but included in cash receipts in the current year

d)

an embezzlement of cash by intercepting cash receipts from customers before they are recorded

20.

Which of the following would normally be discovered as part of the audit of the bank reconciliation?

a)

failure to bill a customer

b)

failure to include a deposit in transit on the bank reconciliation

c)

duplicate payment of a vendor's invoice

d)

payment to an employee for more hours than she worked

21.

The general cash account is considered a significant account in almost all audits

a)

where the ending balance is material.

b)

even when the ending balance is immaterial.

c)

except those of not-for-profit organizations.

d)

where either the beginning or ending balance is material.

22.

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding cash?

a)

The amount of cash flowing into and out of the cash account is often larger than that for any other account in the financial statements.

b)

The susceptibility of cash to embezzlement is greater than that for other types of assets.

c)

Auditors must verify whether recorded cash in the general ledger correctly reflects all cash transactions that took place during the year.

d)

All of the above are accurate statements.

23.

Which of the following cycles does not affect cash in bank?

a)

capital acquisitions cycle

b)

inventory and warehousing

c)

payroll and personnel cycle

d)

acquisitions and disbursements

24.

The test of details of balances procedure that requires the auditor to trace the book balance on the reconciliation to the general ledger is an attempt to satisfy the audit objective of

a)

detail tie-in.

b)

existence

c)

completeness

d)

accuracy

25.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Auditors must obtain bank confirmations for audits of nonpublic entities.

b)

Auditors are required to obtain bank confirmations under international auditing standards.

c)

Auditing standards do not address specific requirements regarding bank confirmations.

d)

Auditing standards do not require bank confirmations.

26.

A partial-period bank statement and the related copies of or digital access to cancelled checks, duplicate deposit slips, and other documents included in bank statements, mailed by the bank directly to the CPA firm's office, is called

a)

a four-column proof of cash.

b)

a year-end bank statement.

c)

a cutoff bank statement.

d)

a short-period bank statement

27.

In addition to confirming bank balances of your audit client, a bank confirmation would normally contain

a)

the client's bank loans with due date, interest rate, and collateral requested.

b)

the client's credit history as regards to paying back loans.

c)

the client's managements bank account information.

d)

the client's business prospects

28.

Which of the following balance-related audit objectives typically is assessed as having high inherent risk for cash?

a)

existence

b)

cutoff

c)

detail tie-in

d)

presentation and disclosure

29.

Because cash is the most desirable asset for people to steal, it has a higher

a)

control risk

b)

inherent risk

c)

detection risk

d)

liquidity risk

30.

The starting point for the verification of the balance in the general bank account is to obtain

a)

a bank reconciliation from the client.

b)

the client's cash account from the general ledger.

c)

a cutoff bank statement directly from the bank.

d)

the client's year-end bank statement.

31.

Discussions with management regarding potential financial difficulties -

Evaluation of management's plans to avoid bankruptcy

a)

Yes - Yes

b)

Yes - No

c)

No - Yes

d)

No - No

32.

There are three classes of transactions within the payroll cycle — salaried employees, hourly employees, and commissioned employees.

a)

No No Yes

b)

Yes No Yes

c)

No Yes Yes

d)

No Yes No

33.

Which of the following departments is most likely responsible for pay rate changes and changes in deductible amounts for employees?

a)

general accounting department

b)

human resources department

c)

treasurer

d)

controller

34.

The payroll and personnel cycle ends with which of the following events?

a)

interviewing job candidates

b)

hiring a new employee

c)

existing employees submitting requests for payment for work performed

d)

issuance of paychecks

 

35.

Which of the following includes all payroll transactions processed by the accounting system for a given period of time?

a)

payroll journal

b)

payroll transaction file

c)

time report

d)

payroll summary

 

36.

An imprest payroll account that has a significant balance may indicate the presence of

a)

employees have not yet cashed their payroll checks.

b)

fraudulent transfer of funds by the company.

c)

lack of controls over payroll distribution.

d)

the company is overpaying its employees.

37.

Records that include data about employees such as employment date, performance ratings and pay rates are the

a)

human resource records.

b)

employee screening forms

c)

summary payroll reports.

d)

employee folders.

38.

The computer file used for recording payroll transactions for each employee and maintaining total wages paid for the year to date is the

a)

payroll transaction file

b)

payroll master file.

c)

payroll bank account reconciliation.

d)

payroll tax returns

39.

Which of the following is not one of the business functions for the payroll and personnel cycle?

a)

payment of payroll

b)

timekeeping and payroll preparation

c)

reconciliation of payroll account

d)

human resources and employment

40.

The total of the individual employee earnings in the payroll master file should equal the total

a)

balance of gross payroll in general ledger accounts.

b)

of the checks drawn to employees for payroll.

c)

gross payroll plus the total contributed by the employer for payroll taxes.

d)

gross pay for the current week's payroll.

41.

Which department should be authorized to add and delete employees from the payroll or change pay rates and deductions?

a)

the supervising department

b)

the accounting department

c)

the human resources department

d)

the treasurer's department

 

42.

Employees will likely complain if underpaid. -- Payroll transactions are typically uniform and uncomplicated. -- Payroll transactions are subject to audit by federal and state governments.

a)

Yes - Yes - Yes

b)

No - Yes - No

c)

No - No - Yes

d)

Yes - No - No

43.

Perform alternative procedures -- Send a second

Request -- Ask the client to communicate with the bank to ask them to complete and return the confirmation

a)

No - Yes - yes

b)

no no yes

c)

yes no yes

d)

yes yes no

44.

All recorded cash disbursements were paid by the bank. -- All amounts that were paid by the bank were recorded.

a)

yes yes

b)

no no

c)

yes no

d)

no yes

45.

Tests of details of balances -- Substantive tests of transactions -- Tests of controls

a)

no yes yes

b)

yes no yes

c)

no yes no

d)

yes no no

46.

Perform alternative procedures -- Send a second

request -- Ask the client to communicate with the bank to ask them to complete and return the confirmation

a)

no yes yes

b)

no no yes

c)

yes no yes

d)

yes yes no

47.

Rights -- Classification -- Realizable value

a)

Yes no yes

b)

no yes no

c)

yes yes yes

d)

no no no

48.

Subsequent events that have a direct effect on the financial statements and require adjustment -- Subsequent events that do not have a direct effect on the financial statements but for which disclosure may be required

a)

yes yes

b)

no no

c)

yes no

d)

no yes

49.

The date of the original last day of fieldwork only. -- The date of the subsequent event only. -- The date on which the last day of fieldwork occurred along with the date of the subsequent event.

a)

yes yes no

b)

no yes yes

c)

no yes no

d)

no no yes

50.

When should auditors generally assess a client's ability to continue as a going concern?

a)

upon completion of the audit

b)

during the planning stages of the audit

c)

throughout the entire audit process

d)

during testing and completion phases of the audit

51.

Auditing standards require that the auditor evaluate whether there is a substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern for at least

a)

one quarter beyond the balance sheet date.

b)

one quarter beyond the date of the auditor's report

c)

one year beyond the balance sheet date.

d)

one year beyond the date of the auditor's report

52.

Auditing standards require auditors to evaluate whether there is substantial doubt about a client's ability to continue as a going concern. One of the most important audit procedures to perform to assess the going concern question is

a)

analytical procedures.

b)

confirmations from creditors.

c)

statistical sampling procedures

d)

tests of internal controls

53.

Which of the following statements regarding the letter of representation is not correct?

a)

It is prepared on the client's letterhead.

b)

It is addressed to the CPA firm.

c)

It is signed by high-level corporate officials, usually the president and chief financial officer.

d)

It is optional, not required, that the auditor obtain such a letter from management.

54.

Refusal by a client to prepare and sign the representation letter would require the auditor to issue a(n)

a)

qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.

b)

adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.

c)

qualified or an adverse opinion.

d)

unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph.

55.

A management representation letter is

a)

prepared on the CPA's letterhead

b)

addressed to the client.

c)

signed by high-level corporate officials.

d)

dated as of the balance sheet date.


56.

Which of the following is correct regarding supplementary information?

a)

The auditor must express an opinion on the supplementary information.

b)

When reporting on supplementary information, the auditor uses a different materiality threshold from that used in forming an opinion on the basic financial statements.

c)

If the auditor's report on the audited financial statements contains an adverse opinion, the auditor can still issue an unqualified opinion on the supplementary information.

d)

The auditor can issue a separate report on the supplementary information; it does not need to be part of the report on the financial statements.

57.

Which of the following is not one of the categories of items included in the letter of representation?

a)

subsequent events

b)

completeness of information

c)

recognition, measurement, and disclosure

d)

materiality

58.

Which of the following audit procedures would most likely assist an auditor in identifying conditions and events that may indicate there could be substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern?

a)

review compliance with the terms of debt agreements

b)

confirmation of accounts receivable from principal customers

c)

reconciliation of interest expense with debt outstanding

d)

confirmation of bank balances

59.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

A letter of representation is documentation of management's acceptance of responsibility for the financial statements and is deemed to be reliable evidence.

b)

A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because of the potential incompetence of management

c)

A letter of representation is documentation of the CPA's acceptance of responsibility for the audit of the financial statement and is deemed to be reliable.

d)

A letter of representation is not deemed to be reliable evidence because it is a written statement from a non independent source.

60.

Which of the following best describes the systems of internal control for payroll for large companies?

a)

loosely structured but well controlled

b)

loosely structured and loosely controlled

c)

highly structured and well controlled

d)

highly structured but loosely controlled

61.

When testing for fraudulent hours or fraudulent expense reports

a)

it is easy for the auditor to discover fraudulent hours because of the abundance of available evidence.

b)

it is difficult to prevent fraud in these two areas with adequate internal controls.

c)

management falsification of expense reports can be an indicator of disregard for internal controls and the potential for fraud in other areas

d)

examining payroll records for approval is an important substantive tests of transactions to uncover fraudulent hours

62.

The ________ has the responsibility for approving the number of hours worked for each employee.

a)

employee's supervisor

b)

human resources department

c)

chief financial officer

d)

budgeting supervisor

63.

Which of the following audit procedures would be the most effective in testing for nonexistent employees?

a)

Trace transactions recorded in the payroll journal to the human resources department to determine employment status

b)

Examine cancelled checks for proper endorsement.

c)

Recalculate net pay

d)

Reconcile the disbursements in the payroll journal with the disbursements on the payroll bank statement.

64.

The careful and timely preparation of all payroll tax returns is necessary to avoid penalties and criminal charges. The most important control in the timely preparation of these returns is

a)

computerized preparation of tax returns

b)

a well-defined set of policies that indicate when each form must be filed.

c)

independent verification of computer output by a competent individual.

d)

the use of an outside payroll service.

65.

If an auditor wishes to test the completeness transaction-related audit objective in the payroll and personnel cycle, which of the following would be a reasonable test of control?

a)

Account for a sequence of payroll checks.

b)

Examine the procedures manual and observe the recording of transactions.

c)

Examine the payroll records for indication of pay rate approval

d)

Reconcile the payroll bank account.

66.

Verifying that an adequate chart of accounts is used is a key internal control for the transaction-related objective of

a)

classification

b)

accuracy

c)

existence

d)

occurrence

67.

Which of the following errors gives the auditor concern in auditing payroll transactions?

a)

an error that indicates possible fraud

b)

computational errors in formulas when a computerized system is used

c)

classification errors in charging labor to inventory and job cost accounts

d)

Each of the above gives the auditor significant concern.

68.

The auditor's independent estimate of interest expense from notes payable uses average interest rates and

a)

average notes payable outstanding.

b)

year-end notes payable outstanding

c)

only notes payable above the level of materiality.

d)

only notes payable to major lenders.

69.

The tests of details of balances procedure which requires the auditor to trace the totals of the notes payable list to the general ledger satisfies the audit objective of

a)

accuracy

b)

existence

c)

detail tie-in.

d)

completeness

70.

The audit objective to determine that notes payable in the schedule actually exist is verified by the test of details of balances procedure to

a)

foot the notes payable list.

b)

confirm notes payable.

c)

recalculate interest expense.

d)

examine the balance sheet for proper disclosure of noncurrent portions.