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database

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

________ database specification indicates all the parameters for data storage that are then input to database implementation.

a)

Logical

b)

Physical

c)

Schematic

d)

Conceptual

2.

A form of database specification which maps conceptual requirements is called:

a)

logical specifications

b)

response specifications

c)

security specifications

d)

physical specifications

3.

Data is represented in the form of: A)data trees. B)tables. C)data notes. D)chairs.

a)

data trees

b)

tables

c)

data notes

d)

chairs

4.

A two-dimensional table of data sometimes is called a: A)group. B)set. C)declaration. D)relation.

a)

group

b)

set

c)

declaration

d)

relation

5.

________ is a component of the relational data model included to specify business rules to maintain the integrity of data when they are manipulated.

a)

Business rule constraint

b)

Data integrity

c)

Business integrity

d)

Data structure

6.

An attribute (or attributes) that uniquely identifies each row in a relation is called a: A)column. B)foreign field. C)primary key. D)duplicate key.

a)

column

b)

foreign field

c)

primary key

d)

duplicate key

7.

An attribute in a relation of a database that serves as the primary key of another relation in the same database is called a:

a)

link attribute

b)

link key

c)

foreign key

d)

foreign attribute

8.

A primary key whose value is unique across all relations is called a(n):

a)

global primary key

b)

inter-table primary key

c)

enterprise key

d)

foreign global key

9.

A primary key that consists of more than one attribute is called a:

a)

foreign key

b)

composite key

c)

multivalued key

d)

cardinal key

10.

In the SQL language, the ________ statement is used to make table definitions.

a)

create session

b)

create table

c)

create index

d)

select

11.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an instance of a relational schema with sample data?

a)

Sample data can be used to improve user communications.

b)

Sample data can be used for prototype generation.

c)

Sample data can reverse database implementation errors.

d)

Sample data provide a convenient way to check the accuracy of your design.

12.

A domain definition consists of all of the following components EXCEPT:

a)

domain name

b)

datatype

c)

integrity constraints

d)

size

13.

Which of the following are properties of relations?

a)

Each attribute has the same name.

b)

No two rows in a relation are identical.

c)

There are multivalued attributes in a relation.

d)

All columns are numeric.

14.

Which of the following violates the atomic property of relations?

a)

Sam

b)

Hinz

c)

SamHinz

d)

Atomic

15.

The entity integrity rule states that: A)no primary key attribute can be null.

a)

no primary key attribute can be null.

b)

referential integrity must be maintained across all entities.

c)

each entity must have a primary key.

d)

a primary key must have only one attribute.

16.

The ________ states that no primary key attribute may be null.

a)

referential integrity constraint

b)

entity integrity rule

c)

partial specialization rule

d)

ranged domain rule

17.

All of the following are the main goals of normalization EXCEPT:

a)

minimize data redundancy.

b)

simplify the enforcement of referential integrity.

c)

maximize storage space.

d)

make it easier to maintain data.

18.

When all multivalued attributes have been removed from a relation, it is said to be in:

a)

first normal form.

b)

second normal form.

c)

Boyce-Codd normal form.

d)

third normal form.

19.

A relation that contains no multivalued attributes and has non-key attributes solely dependent on the primary key but contains transitive dependencies is in which normal form?

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

20.

A constraint between two attributes is called a(n):

a)

functional relation.

b)

attribute dependency.

c)

functional dependency.

d)

functional relation constraint.

21.

 A candidate key must satisfy all of the following conditions EXCEPT:


a)

the key must uniquely identify the row.

b)

the key must indicate the row's position in the table.

c)

the key must be non-redundant.

d)

each non-key attribute is functionally dependent upon it.

22.

The attribute on the left-hand side of the arrow in a functional dependency is the:

a)

candidate key.

b)

determinant.

c)

foreign key.

d)

primary key.

23.

A functional dependency in which one or more non-key attributes are functionally dependent on part, but not all, of the primary key is called a________ dependency.

a)

partial key-based

b)

partial functional

c)

cross key

d)

merged relation

24.

A functional dependency between two or more non-key attributes is called a:

a)

partial functional dependency

b)

partial nonkey dependency

c)

transitive dependency

d)

partial transitive dependency

25.

________ problems are encountered when removing data with transitive dependencies.

a)

Insertion

b)

Modification

c)

Deletion

d)

Merging

26.

A relation that contains minimal redundancy and allows easy use is considered to be:

a)

clean

b)

simple

c)

complex

d)

well-structured

27.

The logical representation of an organization's data is called a(n):

a)

database model

b)

entity-relationship model

c)

relationship systems design

d)

database entity diagram

28.

A good data definition will describe all of the characteristics of a data object EXCEPT:

a)

subtleties

b)

examples

c)

who determines the value of the data.

d)

who can delete the data.

29.

A fact is an association between two or more:

a)

words

b)

terms

c)

facts

d)

nuggets

30.

Data modeling may be the most important part of the systems development process because:

a)

data characteristics are important in the design of programs and other systems components.

b)

the data in a system are generally less complex than processes and play a central role in development.

c)

data are less stable than processes.

d)

 it is the easiest.

31.

The most common types of entities are:

a)

strong entities

b)

weak entities

c)

associative entities

d)

smush entities

32.

In an E-R diagram, there are/is________ business rule(s) for every relationship.

a)

two

b)

three

c)

one

d)

zero

33.

Business policies and rules govern all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

managing employees

b)

creating data

c)

updating data

d)

removing data

34.

A________ defines or constrains some aspect of the business.

a)

business constraint

b)

business structure

c)

business control

d)

business rule

35.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good business rule?

a)

Declarative

b)

Atomic

c)

Inconsistent

d)

Expressible

36.

Which of the following is NOT a good characteristic of a data name?

a)

Readable

b)

Repeatable

c)

Relates to business characteristics

d)

Relates to a technical characteristic of the system

37.

Customers, cars, and parts are examples of:

a)

entities

b)

attributes

c)

cardinals

d)

relationships

38.

Which of the following is an entity that exists independently of other entity types?

a)

Codependent

b)

Weak

c)

Strong

d)

Variant

39.

An entity type whose existence depends on another entity type is called a________ entity.

a)

strong

b)

weak

c)

codependent

d)

variant

40.

A(n)________ is the relationship between a weak entity type and its owner.

a)

member chain

b)

identifying relationship

c)

jump path

d)

chain link

41.

An entity type names should be all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

concise

b)

specific to the organization.

c)

as short as possible.

d)

a singular noun.

42.

A property or characteristic of an entity type that is of interest to the organization is called a(n):

a)

attribute

b)

coexisting entity

c)

relationship

d)

cross-function

43.

An attribute that must have a value for every entity (or relationship) instance is a(n):

a)

composite attribute

b)

required attribute

c)

optional attribute

d)

multivalued attribute

44.

A person's name, birthday, and social security number are all examples of:

a)

attributes

b)

entities

c)

relationships

d)

descriptors

45.

An attribute of an entity that must have a value for each entity instance is a(n):

a)

optional attribute

b)

composite attribute

c)

required attribute

d)

fuzzy attribute

46.

An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts is called a(n)________ attribute.

a)

associative

b)

simple

c)

composite

d)

complex

47.

The number of entity types that participate in a Unary relationship is:

a)

zero

b)

one

c)

two

d)

three

48.

The number of entity types that participate in a relationship is called the:

a)

number

b)

identifying characteristic

c)

degree

d)

counter

49.

 A relationship between the instances of a single entity type is called a ________ relationship.

a)

ternary

b)

primary

c)

binary

d)

unary

50.

A simultaneous relationship among the instances of three entity types is called a ________ relationship.

a)

ternary

b)

tertiary

c)

primary

d)

binary

51.

 An attribute that can be calculated from related attribute values is called a ________ attribute.

a)

simple

b)

composite

c)

multivalued

d)

derived

52.

The total quiz points for a student for an entire semester is a(n) ________ attribute.


a)

derived

b)

mixed

c)

stored

d)

addressed

53.

Which of the following criteria should be considered when selecting an identifier?

a)

Choose an identifier that is not stable.

b)

Choose a null identifier

c)

Choose an identifier that doesn't have large composite attributes

d)

Choose the most complex identifier possible.

54.

An attribute that uniquely identifies an entity and consists of a composite attribute is called a(n):

a)

composite attribute

b)

composite identifier

c)

identifying attribute

d)

relationship identifier

55.

An entity that associates the instances of one or more entity types and contains attributes specific to the relationships is called a(n):

a)

associative entity

b)

build entity

c)

gateway entity

d)

smush entity

56.

 A ________ specifies the number of instances of one entity that can be associated with each instance of another entity.

a)

degree

b)

cardinality constraint

c)

counter constraint

d)

limit

57.

A relationship where the minimum and maximum cardinality are both one is a(n) ________ relationship.

a)

optional

b)

unidirectional

c)

mandatory link

d)

mandatory one

58.

A requirement to begin designing physical files and databases is:

a)

normalized relations

b)

physical tables created

c)

implementation complete

d)

all datatypes determined

59.

A key decision in the physical design process is:

a)

ignoring the size of the database.

b)

selecting structures.

c)

deciding on the monitor.

d)

deciding the e-r diagrams

60.

Designing physical files requires ________ of where and when data are used in various ways.

a)

maps

b)

descriptions

c)

keys

d)

hints

61.

A detailed coding scheme recognized by system software for representing organizational data is called a(n):

a)

DBMS code

b)

data type

c)

SQL

d)

DB layout

62.

All of the following are objectives when selecting a data type EXCEPT:

a)

represent all possible values.

b)

 improve data integrity.

c)

support all data manipulations.

d)

use a lot of storage space.

63.

The smallest unit of application data recognized by system software is a:

a)

field

b)

row

c)

datatype

d)

column

64.

 An appropriate datatype for one wanting a fixed-length type for last name would include:

a)

VarChar

b)

Char

c)

Blob

d)

Date

65.

 An appropriate datatype for adding a sound clip would be:

a)

VarChar

b)

Char

c)

Blob

d)

Date

66.

he value a field will assume unless the user enters an explicit value for an instance of that field is called a:

a)

default value

b)

null value

c)

range control

d)

gurand

67.

A database is an organized collection of ________ related data.

a)

logically

b)

physically

c)

loosely

d)

badly

68.

 Older systems that often contain data of poor quality are called ________ systems

a)

controlled

b)

legacy

c)

database

d)

mainframe

69.

Program-data dependence is caused by:

a)

file descriptions being stored in each database application.

b)

data descriptions being stored on a server.

c)

data descriptions being written into programming code.

d)

 data cohabiting with programs.

70.

Because applications are often developed independently in file processing systems:

a)

the data is always non-redundant.

b)

 data can always be shared with others.

c)

there is a large volume of file I/O.

d)

unplanned duplicate data files are the rule rather than the exception.

71.

Relational databases establish the relationships between entities by means of common fields included in a file called a(n):

a)

entity

b)

relationship

c)

relation

d)

association

72.

kh có xóa đcnfjankfnaef

a)

chọn này đi

b)

đừng chọn này

73.

A(n)________ is often developed by identifying a form or report that a user needs on a regular basis.

a)

enterprise view

b)

reporting document

c)

user view

d)

user snapshot

74.

A graphical system used to capture the nature and relationships among data is called a(n):

a)

XML data model

b)

hypertext graphic

c)

relational database

d)

data model

75.

Data that describe the properties of other data are:

a)

relationships

b)

logical

c)

physical

d)

metadata

76.

All of the following are properties of metadata EXCEPT:

a)

data definitions

b)

processing logic

c)

rules or constraints

d)

data structures

77.

A person, place, object, event, or concept about which the organization wishes to maintain data is called a(n):

a)

relationship

b)

object

c)

attribute

d)

entity

78.

________ are established between entities in a well-structured database so that the desired information can be retrieved.

a)

Entities

b)

Relationships

c)

Lines

d)

Ties

79.

All of the following are primary purposes of a database management system(DBMS) EXCEPT:

a)

creating data

b)

updating data

c)

storing data

d)

providing an integrated development environment

80.

With the database approach, data descriptions are stored in a central location known as a:

a)

server

b)

mainframe

c)

PC

d)

repository

81.

A userview is:

a)

what a user sees when he or she looks out the window

b)

a table or set of tables

c)

a logical description of some portion of the database

d)

a procedure stored on the server

82.

Which organizational function should set database standards?

a)

Management

b)

Application development

c)

Technical services

d)

Database Administration

83.

________ is a tool even non-programmers can use to access information from a database.

a)

ODBC

b)

Structured query language

c)

ASP

d)

Data manipulation query language

84.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of database systems?

a)

Redundant data

b)

Program-data independence

c)

Better data quality

d)

Reduced program maintenance

85.

The most common source of database failures in organizations is:

a)

lack of planning

b)

inadequate budget

c)

inadequate hardware

d)

failure to implement a strong database administration function

86.

A rule that CANNOT be violated by database users is called a:

a)

password

b)

constraint

c)

program

d)

view

87.

In a file processing environment, descriptions for data and the logic for accessing the data are built into:

a)

application programs

b)

database descriptors

c)

fields

d)

records

88.

Which of the following is NOT an objective that drove the development and evolution of database technology?

a)

The need to provide greater independence between programs and data

b)

The desire to manage increasing complex data types and structures

c)

The desire to require programmers to write all file handling functionality

d)

The need to provide ever more powerful platforms for decision support applications

89.

A relatively small team of people who collaborate on the same project is called a:

a)

server group

b)

workgroup

c)

data collaborative

d)

typical arrangement

90.

A workgroup database is stored on a central device called a:

a)

client

b)

server

c)

remote PC

d)

network

91.

Which of the following is NOT a cost and/or risk of the database approach?

a)

Specialized personnel

b)

Cost of conversion

c)

Improved responsiveness

d)

Organizational conflict

92.

The need for consensus on data definitions is an example of which type of risk in the database environment?

a)

Specialized personnel needs

b)

Organizational conflict

c)

Conversion costs

d)

Legacy systems

93.

Which of the following is software used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to databases?

a)

Network operating system

b)

Userview

c)

Database management system (DBMS)

d)

Attribute

94.

Database development begins with ________, which establishes the range and general contents of organizational databases.

a)

database design

b)

cross-functional analysis

c)

departmental data modeling

d)

enterprise data modeling

95.

hé lô

a)

b)

lo qq

96.

34) The traditional methodology used to develop, maintain and replace information systems is called the:

a)

Enterprise Resource Model

b)

Systems Development Life Cycle

c)

Unified Model

d)

Systems Deployment Life Cycle

97.

35) The SDLC phase in which every data attribute is defined, every category of data is listed and every business relationship between data entities is defined is called the ________ phase.

a)

planning

b)

design

c)

analysis

d)

implementation

98.

36) The SDLC phase in which database processing programs are created is the ________ phase.

a)

planning

b)

design

c)

analysis

d)

implementation

99.

38) Organizing the database in computer disk storage is done in the ________ phase.

a)

design

b)

maintenance

c)

analysis

d)

implementation

100.

42) ________ do NOT concentrate on determining the requirements for the database component of an information system.

a)

Database analysts

b)

System analysts

c)

Programmers

d)

End Users

101.

43) The three-schema approach includes which of the following schemas?

a)

Internal

b)

Logical

c)

Cross-functional

d)

Dissecting

102.

45) ________ is the most popular RDMS data model notation.

a)

ERD

b)

END

c)

DRE

d)

RED

103.

The property by which subtype entities possess the values of all attributes of a supertype is called:

a)

hierarchy reception

b)

class management

c)

attribute inheritance

d)

generalization

104.

Which of the following is a generic entity type that has a relationship with one or more subtypes?

a)

Megatype

b)

Supertype

c)

Subgroup

d)

Class

105.

Subtypes should be used when:

a)

there are attributes that apply to some but not all instances of an entity type.

b)

supertypes relate to objects outside the business.

c)

the instances of a subtype do not participate in a relationship that is unique to that subtype.

d)

a recursive relationship is needed.

106.

The process of defining one or more subtypes of a supertype and forming relationships is called:

a)

specialization

b)

generalization

c)

creating discord

d)

selecting classes

107.

The process of defining a more general entity type from a set of more specialized entity types is called:

a)

generalization

b)

specialization

c)

normalization

d)

extrapolation

108.

The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance of a supertype is allowed not to belong to any subtype.

a)

semi-specialization

b)

total specialization

c)

partial specialization

d)

disjointedness

109.

The ________ rule specifies that each entity instance of the supertype must be a member of some subtype in the relationship.

a)

semi-specialization

b)

total specialization

c)

partial specialization

d)

total convergence

110.

Which of the following is a completeness constraint?

a)

Total specialization

b)

Partial generalization

c)

Total recall

d)

Partial hybridization

111.

A(n) ________ constraint is a type of constraint that addresses whether an instance of a supertype must also be an instance of at least one subtype.

a)

disjoint

b)

overlap

c)

completeness

d)

weak

112.

The ________ rule specifies that an entity instance can be a member of only one subtype at a time.

a)

exclusion

b)

disjoint

c)

removal

d)

inclusion

113.

A ________ addresses whether an instance of a supertype may simultaneously be a member of two or more subtypes.

a)

disjointedness constraint

b)

disjoint rule

c)

partial specialization

d)

total specialization

114.

An attribute of the supertype that determines the target subtype(s) is called the:

a)

determinant

b)

subtype decision

c)

disjoint indicator

d)

subtype discriminator

115.

The ________ rule states that an entity instance can simultaneously be a member of two (or more) subtypes.

a)

disjoint

b)

overlap

c)

partial specialization

d)

total specialization

116.

The subtype discriminator is a composite attribute when there is a(n):

a)

overlap rule

b)

disjoint rule

c)

partial specialization

d)

full specialization

117.

In a supertype/subtype hierarchy, each subtype has:

a)

only one supertype

b)

many supertypes

c)

at most two supertypes

d)

at least one subtype