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Sports Med Final Review

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The back is my ____________ side
a)
posterior 
b)
anterior
c)
 ventral
d)
sagital
2.
My toes are _________________ to my femur
a)
proximal
b)
distal
3.

The ears are ___ to the nose.

a)

lateral

b)

medial

c)

ventral

d)

dorsal

4.

What type of plane is number 3?

a)

Transverse

b)

Coronal/frontal

c)

Sagittal

5.

away from center

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

6.

below

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

anterior

d)

posterior

7.

toward the center

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

8.

above

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

anterior

d)

posterior

9.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Femur

b)

Cranium

c)

Ribs

d)

Skull

10.

Long bones have a _____ that makes up most of bone's length and is composed of compact bone

a)

epiphyseal plate

b)

yellow marrow

c)

diaphysis

d)

articular cartilage

11.

Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

a)

clavicle

b)

frontal

c)

vertebrae

d)

sternum

12.

Which of the following statements about joints is NOT true?

a)

ball and socket joints allow the greatest range of motion

b)

fibrous joints allow no movement

c)

the only hinge joint is the elbow

d)

joints are also called articulations

13.

How many vertebrae are in the neck?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

7

d)

12

14.

How many vertebrae are in the thoracic region?

a)

12

b)

20

c)

10

d)

7

15.
Name the bone located at number 3.
a)
Scapula
b)
Humerus
c)
Sternum
d)
Clavicle
16.
Name the bone located at number 14.
a)
Femur
b)
Fibula
c)
Tibia
d)
Radius
17.
What are the "bumps" on the ankle called?
a)
talus
b)
calcaneus
c)
malleolus
d)
tarsals
18.
Rolling the foot so the sole of the foot goes towards the middle of the body is called-
a)
eversion
b)
inversion
c)
rotation
d)
adbuction
19.
Rolling the foot to the outside is called-
a)
adduction
b)
inversion
c)
eversion
d)
torsion
20.
The bones found between your phalanges and your ankle bones are 
a)
metacarpals
b)
metatarsals
c)
medial Cuneiform
d)
Intermediate Phalanges 
21.
Sprain of the 1st or great toe
a)
Toe Fracture
b)
Lisfranc Injury
c)
Turf Toe
d)
Toe Dislocation
22.
What ligament can be damaged with an inversion sprain?
a)
ATF, PTF, ACL
b)
PTF, ATF, LCL
c)
ATF, PTF, Calcaneofibular
d)
Calcaneofibular, ACL, PCL
23.
What is another name for shinsplints?
a)
medial tibial stress syndrome
b)
medial fibular stress syndrome
c)
compartment syndrome
d)
lateral tibial stress syndrome
24.
The three classes of nutrients that supply our body with energy are
a)
Glucose, Sucrose, Lactose
b)
Fat, proteins, carbohydrates
c)
Vitamins, minerals, fiber
d)
Protein, water, carbohydrates
25.
Fats should only make up_______ percent of your daily caloric intake
a)
20-35
b)
0-10
c)
40-50
d)
10-20
26.
WHAT ARE THE 6 NUTRIENTS?
a)
Carbs, Meats, Fibers, Water, Protein, and Dairy
b)
Fruits, Milk, Fibers, Water, Pork, and Vitamins
c)
Carbs, Fats, Fibers, Water, Protein, and Vitamins
d)
Carbs, Fats, Fibers, Cheese, Protein, and Vegtables
27.
Organic compounds that control several body functions. e.g. A, C, K
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Metabolism
c)
Vitamins
d)
Digestion
28.

These nutrients supply your body with energy and aid in the growth and repair of your body's tissues.

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Fats

d)

Vitamins and Minerals

29.
Which one is a form of observation?
a)
Objection
b)
Objective
c)
Observatory
d)
Obsession
30.

Which test can be used to assess stability of these ligaments?

a)

Bump test

b)

Talar tilt test

c)

Thompson test

d)

Squeeze test

31.

Where in a SOAP note would you record the information the patient tells you about their injury?

a)

S: subjective portion

b)

O: objective portion

c)

A: assessment portion

d)

P: plan portion

32.

Where in a SOAP note would the doctor record the observations observations he/she has made regarding a patient's injury?

a)

S: subjective portion

b)

O: objective portion

c)

A: assessment portion

d)

P: plan portion

33.

What is the first stage of HOPS

a)

Humerus

b)

History

c)

Hazard

d)

Health

34.

Medications the patient is prescribed for the injury would go under what category?

a)

S

b)

O

c)

A

d)

P

35.

Where does this information belong?

Swelling

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

36.

Where does this information belong?

Patient is feeling numbness & tingling going down his arm.

a)

History

b)

Observation

c)

Palpation

d)

Stress Tests/Special Tests

37.

What is E?

a)

Posterior Cruciate Ligament

b)

Medial Collateral Ligament

c)

Lateral Collateral Ligament

d)

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

38.

What is F?

a)

Posterior Cruciate Ligament

b)

Lateral Collateral Ligament

c)

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

d)

Medial Collateral Ligament

39.

What two main movements occur at the knee?

a)

Flexion and Extension

b)

Rotation and Flexion

c)

Abduction and Flexion

d)

Adduction and Flexion

40.

How many muscles make up the quadriceps?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

41.

The cushion between the femur and tibia is the ________.

a)

Ligament

b)

Meniscus

c)

LCL

d)

Patellar Tendon

42.
Inflammation of the area just below the knee where the patella tendon attaches to the tibia.
a)
Osgood Schlatter
b)
Patella Tendinitis
c)
Tibial Plateau Fracture
43.
Which of these tests do not check the ACL for stability?
a)
Lachman's
b)
Pivot Shift
c)
Anterior Drawer
d)
McMurray's
44.

Shock that occurs because of some type of infection.

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Hemorrhagic

c)

Septic

d)

Anaphylactic

45.

Bleeding that is dark red, heavy but not spurting is considered which type?

a)

Artery

b)

Venous

c)

Capillary

d)

Coronary

46.

Type of shock that occurs because of some type of severe allergic reaction.

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Septic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Hemorrhagic

47.

Type of shock that occurs due to major blood loss.

a)

Hemorrhagic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Anaphylactic

d)

Septic

48.

What is the first step a responder does when encountering an injured person?

a)

Call 000

b)

Ensure scene safety

c)

Stop the bleeding

d)

Take pictures

49.
When performing CPR what is the ratio of compressions to rescue breaths? 
a)
20 compressions 2 rescue breaths 
b)
30 compressions 2 rescue breaths 
c)
30 compressions 1 rescue breath
d)
40 compressions 2 rescue breaths 
50.

When using an AED, you place the pads ...

a)

Anywhere on the body

b)

One on the front of each shoulder

c)

Upper right side of the chest and lower Right of the chest.

d)

Upper left side of heart and lower left side of the heart.

e)

Upper right side of the chest and the lower left side of the chest,

51.

An emergency lifesaving procedure preformed when the heart stops beating is called ___.

a)

Automated External Defibrillator

b)

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

c)

Emergency Medical Services

d)

Heimlich Maneuver

52.

How long should you check for breathing in a patient?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

20 seconds

d)

30 seconds

53.

What method is used to open the airway of a patient so you can deliver breaths?

a)

jaw thrust

b)

neck lift

c)

head tilt / chin lift

d)

jaw lift / neck lift

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