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WorksheetsMSME MCQ
Total questions: 166
Worksheet time: 53mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The objective of our GCEMP is to ptimise EVA to share holders. Define EVA.
a)
ex value ante
b)
Economic Value Alternatives
c)
Earned Value Alternatives
d)
Economic Value Addition
2.
Who is responsible for providing outlooks for the industries as per GCEMP?
a)
CPC
b)
RMCB
c)
RMD
d)
PPAC
3.
Any proposed ‘fresh exposure’ / ‘Review’ / ‘Review with Increase’ of existing exposures shall not be treated as EXTERNAL RATED unless and until our Bank name as lender and corresponding facility details have been disclosed in the Press Releases issued by ECAIs. define ECAI.
a)
Exterior Credit Arrangement Institutions
b)
External Credit Arrangement Institutions
c)
External Credit Assessing Institutions
d)
External Credit Assessment Institutions
4.
Any proposed ‘fresh exposure’ / ‘Review’ / ‘Review with Increase’ of existing exposures shall not be treated as EXTERNAL RATED unless and until our Bank name as lender and corresponding facility details have been disclosed in the Press Releases issued by ECAIs (ECAIs here denotes the Credit Rating agencies identified by Bank from to time). In absence of above disclosures, the facility shall be treated as _________ for the purpose of RWA computation and pricing to be re-visited by in order to compensate additional capital charge.
a)
BOB10
b)
C
c)
B-
d)
UNRATED
5.
For PMMY loans upto Rs 2.00 Lacs, minimum acceptable score should be ______ out of 100, below which branches are advised to not consider the proposal
a)
30
b)
20
c)
40
d)
50
6.
Non- Indian Corporate Borrowers, the rating should be obtained from which of the following rating agencies?
a)
ACUITE
b)
CRISIL
c)
FITCH
d)
ICRA
7.
If there are three or more ratings accorded by the credit rating agencies chosen by the borrower that map into different risk weights, then which rating to be considered?
a)
Least of all ratings
b)
Highest of all ratings
c)
Higher of the two lowest ratings
d)
Lower of two higher ratings
8.
Authority for allowing change in External Rating Agency in between the review period, if it has been classified as SMA-1 or SMA-2 since last review of the account
a)
ZOCC - GM
b)
COCC - CGM
c)
Next level of previous reviewing/ sanctioning authority (for all proposals below ZOCC - GM)
d)
previous reviewing/ sanctioning authority (for all proposals below ZOCC - GM)
9.
Minimum external credit rating for Regulatory & Non regulatory MSME exposures of above Rs. 50 crore from the banking system is ______
a)
BBB
b)
BB
c)
B
d)
A
10.
External credit rating is exempted if the exposure is having Guarantee of CGTMSE, ECGC or any other bank is available. The coverage of he guarantee should be at least _____% of the exposure
a)
0.5
b)
0.75
c)
1
d)
No such exemption is existing.
11.
Who is the authority to consider reduction in margin by 5 percentage on merit basis?
a)
The next higher authority upto the DLP of COCC-GM
b)
Respective sanctioning authority
c)
COCC - CGM
d)
COCC - GM
12.
For Slum Rehabilitation Authority (SRA)/ redevelopment/ Joint Development Agreement (JDA) projects, construction cost of building/ developer share only is to be considered as project cost for the purpose of bank finance
a)
True
b)
.
13.
Ideally, as per GCEMP, In case of credit exposures falling within the DLP upto DNCC, minimum cash margin of _______ on LC/BG exposure is to be stipulated.
a)
10
b)
20
c)
100
d)
50
14.
____________ may consider issuing Bank Guarantee for a period exceeding 10 years.
a)
Management Committee of the Board
b)
CACB
c)
COCC - ED
d)
COCC - CGM
15.
As per latest GCEMP, Issuing guarantees on behalf of customers who do not enjoy credit facilities with the Bank is not permitted
a)
True
b)
.
16.
Prior approval from which authority is required to issue conditional bank guarantee?
a)
GM – Trade & Forex, BCC
b)
GM, TFBO
c)
COCC - CGM
d)
ZOCC - GM
17.
All the guarantees, where the payment has not been made on invocation, will be reported to MD & CEO, on ________ basis and to the Board on _________ basis by the Trade & Forex Deptt., BCC
a)
Monthly, Quarterly
b)
Quarterly, Monthly
c)
Monthly, Monthly
d)
Quarterly, Quarterly
18.
The Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR), Debt / EBIDTA and FACR shall not be applicable for exposures to ________________
a)
Only for term loans
b)
Export credit
c)
FIs
d)
Venture capital
19.
Proposals not meeting the acceptable level, mentioned in GCEMP under Indicative Bench Mark Ratios, and otherwise falling within the DLP upto DNCC will be considered by ____________
a)
ZOCC - GM
b)
Next higher authority
c)
Zonal Manager
d)
None of the above
20.
Special Menu option __________ has been made available to the branches for entering the Automated Fund Transfer at the Day End (EOD) for available balance in CA 133 - Baroda RERA Collection Account to CA 134 and CA 135 / other operative account.
a)
TMRERA
b)
RERATM
c)
RERAFT
d)
FTRERA
21.
National Buidling Code 2016 is an important set of guidelines, that are to be complied by the builder. Banks to ensure that their finance are inline with NBC. Who had issued these NBC2016 guidelines?
a)
Real Estate Regulatory and Development Authority
b)
Bureau of Indian Standards
c)
Quality Council of India
d)
CII
22.
The Bank’s exposure per project is restricted to a ceiling of Rs. 1000.00 crore irrespective of size of the project(except AAA rated builders/ developers). If the funding requirement from banking system is more than Rs. 1000 crore, the Bank’s exposure will be restricted to Rs. 1000 crore or ____ of project cost, whichever is less
a)
0.25
b)
0.5
c)
0.75
d)
1
23.
In case drawings are to be allowed for book debts for more than 100 days, authorities not below the level of ZOCC-GM may allow the same within their respective DLP
a)
True
b)
.
24.
Finance should not grant for construction of buildings meant purely for Government/ Semi-Government offices, including Municipal and Panchayat offices
a)
True
b)
.
25.
Bank guarantees with assignment clause may be issued for large corporate borrowers each having aggregate FB and NFB limits of more than Rs.________ crore with the Bank and with External Rating A & above (OR) Internal Rating BOB-4 & above
a)
50
b)
100
c)
250
d)
500
26.
Normally, a bank guarantee with maturity period exceeding 5 years should not be issued. Any guarantee with maturity period exceeding 5 years & upto 10 years may be issued in which of the following cases?
a)
For account rated BOB1 to BOB-5, RMMC & Above
b)
The bank guarantee is issued against 100% cash margin and the purpose for issuance of BG should be linked to the business of the borrower
c)
The bank guarantee is issued against Indemnity / counter guarantee of another bank,
d)
For account rated BOB-6: Next higher authority up to the DLP of COCC-GM
e)
All the above
27.
Your branch has opened a current account to a borrower, who is enjoying CC/ OD facility. Now, the customer has approached you for BG facility and providing you the credit balance in that current account as margin for the BG. As a branch head what is your decision?
a)
Yes, I will accept, as that current account is owned by borrower.
b)
As per our bank guidelines, we should not accept balance in that current account as a margin for any non fund based facility
c)
Yes, with prior approval from ZOCC - GM
d)
Yes, if the balance in the current account is unencumbered.
28.
Our Bank has decided to waive the stipulation of publishing notice in one of the local newspapers calling for objections, if any, in accepting such property or mortgage for all Retail Loans where the value of a property is Rs. _______ crores or above
a)
1
b)
2
c)
5
d)
10
29.
The menu for entering details of Stock/ Book Debts audit in Finacle is
a)
HSCLM
b)
HCLM
c)
HBAIM
d)
HACM
30.
Bank has to obtain a report from CEIB on borrower/ applicant for all advances Rs. 50.00 Cr & above. What is CEIB?
a)
Credit and Economic Information Board
b)
Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
c)
Credit Enforcement & Information Board
d)
Central Enforcement Intelligence Bureau
31.
If the exposure under BKCC, BAHFKCC & Planters card schemes is 30 lacs and the exposure in other Agriculture schemes i.e. other than BKCC, BAHFKCC & Planters card schemes is 15 lacs. Then the valuation isto be done by
a)
Branch Official
b)
Panel Valuer
c)
Local Revenue Authority
d)
No separate valuation is needed. Value of the land should be the Guidelines value as per revenue records.
32.
Scahem code for "Baroda Health Care" is
a)
LA552
b)
LA553
c)
LA554
d)
LA555
33.
Provided all conditions are satisfied, what is the maximum rent, in urban areas, can be added to net income under HL revised guidelines?
a)
25000
b)
15000
c)
12000
d)
7500
34.
Guarantee coverage under CGTMSE for entrepreneurs from SC/ST & PwD categories __________
a)
80% & 85%
b)
85% & 80%
c)
90% & 85%
d)
85% & 85%
35.
What is the threshold limit for waiver of legal action while invoking the CGTMSE?
a)
100000
b)
200000
c)
500000
d)
1000000
36.
Name the menu that is used for interchangeability between Non fund based and Fund based limits.
a)
FBNFB
b)
INTERCH
c)
INTCHNG
d)
LNINTCHNG
37.
PRADHAN MANTRI UCHCHATAR SHIKSHA PROTSAHAN (PM-USP) YOJANA is provided by
a)
Ministry of Human Resource Development
b)
Ministry of Education
c)
Ministry of child and women development
d)
Ministry of Finance
38.
Who are NOT eligible for home loan under Baroda Home loan to corporates?
a)
Sole proprietor
b)
Partnership
c)
Public Lts Company
d)
Pvt Ltd Company
39.
Who is having DLP for conversion from normal HL to Broda Premium HL?
a)
RMCC
b)
ZOCC
c)
At branch level subject to DLP of BM
d)
No such DLP is required.
40.
As per SOP of EWS, all alerts in high risk to be attended on/ within _____________ days
a)
Same day
b)
T + 1 days
c)
2
d)
3
41.
Which of the following offers a platform for electronic issuance of BGs with a centralized e-BG repository?
a)
BOBINSTA
b)
National e-Governance Services Ltd
c)
eBGINDIA
d)
TFBO
42.
An online portal has been developed by our bank for onward vetting and verification by Law Officers
posted at RO and ZO. What is maximum size of the document that can be uploaded on the portal?
a)
2
b)
5
c)
10
d)
No such limit on size of document
43.
How many categories are available in ZED certification?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
7
44.
What are the benefits for a firm classified under Silver category under ZED certification?
A. 25% concession in Processing
B. ROI concession of 25 bps subject to, applicable ROI is not lower than BRLLR/ MCLR+SP
C. No commitment & Mortgage creation charges
a)
Only A
b)
A & C
c)
A & B
d)
A, B & C
45.
CERSAI search to be conducted at the time of
a. Credit processing
b. Review/ RWI/ RWD
c. Modifications
d. account appears in SMA1/ SMA2
e. account turns NPA
a)
a, b, d, e
b)
a, c,d, e
c)
a, b, d, e
d)
All of the above
46.
DRTs were established as per provisions of RDB Act 1993. Expand RDB.
a)
The Recovery of Debts to Bank Act
b)
The Debt Recovery Tribunal Act
c)
The Recovery of Debts and Bankrupcy Act
d)
The Bank Debts Recovery Act
47.
As per Standard Operating Procedure (Sop) On Enforcement Agents / Recovery Agents/ Seizure Agents (EA/RA/SA), entrustment of accounts to EA/ RA/ SA shall be valid for _____ months
a)
12
b)
6
c)
3
d)
24
48.
Fresh sanction or “Review with increase” of all Spoke accounts i.e. Dealer Finance & Vendor Finance with limits up to Rs. _________ Crore will now be carried out by various sanctioning authorities up to Zonal or Cluster level as per their DLP without obtaining “Approval in principal” or AIP from Supply Chain Finance department.
a)
5
b)
10
c)
20
d)
50
49.
What is the present ROI under fixed rate of interest option for a car loan whose CIBIL score is 771 & above? (after considering festive offer)
a)
8.75
b)
8.7
c)
8.8
d)
90
50.
Under fixed ROI for Car loans, The Borrower to bear Prepayment/Part payment charges at a rate of ______ plus GST on amount pre-paid in case the cumulative pre paid amount exceeds Rs. ________ within the initial 2-years from the date of first disbursement of loan amount.
a)
1%, 40000
b)
2%, 40000/-
c)
1%, 50000
d)
2%, 50000
51.
Under Baroda Home Loan Top-up Overdraft Facility, menu to be used to reduce drawing power is _______
a)
AHACMOD
b)
HACLHM
c)
DPREDUCE
d)
HLDPRED
52.
Name the web portal (powered by CIBIL) that gives triggers to our Bank, in the event of customers whose Home loan and Mortgage loan accounts with outstanding Rs. 10 Lacs & above and Auto loan accounts with outstanding Rs. 5 Lacs & above, approaching any banks/HFC/NBFC for any other retail Loan facility.
a)
Trigger Optimization Engine (TOE)
b)
CIBIL Trigger API (CPA)
c)
Digi Trigger Portal (DTP)
d)
Baroda Trigger Engine (BTE)
53.
New scheme code for students who avail Baroda Scholar loans for overseas education in Premier Institutes is _______
a)
LA135
b)
LA239
c)
LA329
d)
LA235
54.
Certificate issued by Udyam registration Portal and ___________________ (UAP) shall be considered for the purpose of Priority Sector Classification. What is UAP?
a)
Udyam Agency Portal
b)
Udyam Assist Portal
c)
Udyam Assist Platform
d)
Udyam Agency Platform
55.
PMEGP is implemented by ______
a)
DIC
b)
KVIC
c)
CGTMSE
d)
SIDBI
56.
As per new initiation, SMS is replaced by Retail Assets Processing Centre (RAPC). CPC is replaced by ____________
a)
Retail Assets Approval Committee (RAAC)
b)
Retail Assets Processing Committee (RAPC)
c)
Retail Assets Processing and Approval Committee (RAPAC)
d)
Central Retail Assets Approval Committee (CRAAC)
57.
As per existing Baroda Home Loan scheme guidelines, an additional cost up to 20% can be considered in Project cost. Now the same hass been increased from 20% to ____%
a)
40
b)
45
c)
50
d)
35
58.
Ms. Neelam is Chief Manager heading a branch. A HL takeover proposal of Rs. 2.00 Cr from PNB. Whose approval is required for the takeover.
a)
No prior approval is required for takeover of retail loans
b)
COCC - CGM
c)
ZOCC - GM
d)
COCC - ED
59.
Name the ED of our Bank, who joined recently.
a)
Lal Singh Chadda
b)
Lal Ram Sigh
c)
Lal Singh
d)
Lal P Singh
60.
Which of the external rating agency has been depanelled by SEBI?
a)
CARE
b)
SMERA
c)
BRICKWORK
d)
INFOMERICS
61.
Under newly launched "PM Viswakarma" scheme what is the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned in 2nd tranche?
a)
1.00 lac
b)
2.00 lacs
c)
3.00 lacs
d)
5.00 lacs
62.
In PM Viswakarma scheme, what is interest subvention available from Ministry of MSME, GOI?
a)
0.13
b)
0.05
c)
0.08
d)
0.04
63.
Name the menu that is used for updating the details of education loans covered under Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme for Education loan (CGFSEL).
a)
CGFSEL
b)
CGFSD
c)
NCGTC
d)
CGTMSE
64.
Branches to incorporate Code ____________ in finacle (HBAIM) in all NPA borrowers where OTS/compromise is sanctioned after 08.06.2023 with payment term exceeds three months and compromise is effective.
a)
850
b)
855
c)
870
d)
875
65.
How much fine is imposed per day, if branch is failed to return all property documents to the borrower after closure of the account?
a)
1000
b)
5000
c)
500
d)
10000
66.
CERSAI registration is to be done within _________ days from date of execution of documents.
a)
3
b)
7
c)
30
d)
Same day
67.
PSR to be sent for all HLs at the time of review. What is the minimum threshold limit?
a)
above 10 lacs
b)
above 5 lacs
c)
above 20 las
d)
above 25 lacs
68.
Short review valid for ___
a)
3 months
b)
3 months from date of review
c)
3 months from due date of review
d)
As per latest guidelines, short review is now ceased.
69.
What is the frequency of inspection for primary security for an account with rating BOB3?
a)
Monthly
b)
Once in two months
c)
Quarterly
d)
Half yearly
70.
SARFAESI notice to be issued within ___ days after account becomes NPA.
a)
on the same day
b)
by next day
c)
3 days
d)
7 days
71.
Maximum threshold limit for Lokadalat is _-
a)
10 lacs
b)
20 lacs
c)
50 lacs
d)
30 lacs
72.
Vasooli Sankalp is valid up to _______
a)
31.03.2024
b)
31.12.2023
c)
30.11.2023
d)
30.09.2023
73.
Credit Audit is to be conducted in accounts having sanctioned limit or reviewed limits of Rs. ___ & above.
a)
5 Cr
b)
10 Cr
c)
1 Cr
d)
50 lacs
74.
commitment charges will be levied in case of non-utilization / under-utilization of working capital limits for advances accounts with fund-based & non fund based working capital limits of Rs. ______ and above
a)
1 Cr
b)
5 Cr
c)
50 lacs
d)
10 Cr
75.
Expand IA in DRT process.
a)
Important Application
b)
Indefinite Adjournment
c)
Immediate Application
d)
Interim Application
76.
Fixed ROI option is available in personal loan.
a)
.
b)
True
77.
Under Baroda Auto loan scheme - winback programme, what is the maximum limit for Pre-approved top up personal loan?
a)
Rs. 20.00 lacs
b)
Rs. 10.00 lacs
c)
Rs. 5.00 lacs
d)
Rs. 15.00 lacs
78.
In case the balance outstanding in cash credit account is less than the sanctioned limit / drawing power but there are no credits continuously for 90 days as on the date of balance sheet, the account will be termed as
a)
Out of Order
b)
SMA
c)
Non Cooperative
d)
wilful defaulter
79.
Drawings in a cash credit account is considered irregular if it has been permitted against stock statement older than
a)
1 month
b)
2 months
c)
3 months
d)
6 months
80.
Which of the following is a current asset on a balance sheet?
a)
Depreciation
b)
Raw material
c)
Accounts payable
d)
Retained earnings
81.
Which of the following is a current liability on a balance sheet?
a)
Term Liability
b)
Cash Credit
c)
Capital
d)
Fixed asset
82.
Minimum annual income of NRI to avail HL.
a)
1 lac
b)
2 lacs
c)
5 lacs
d)
10 lacs
83.
Which of the following is subsidiary of our Bank?
a)
Indo Zambia Bank Ltd
b)
India Infradect Ltd
c)
India International Bank
d)
Nainital Bank
84.
M/s ABC, a real estate firm has approached for a mortgage loan. Your decision.
a)
Yes Can be provided
b)
Yes, with deviation
c)
No mortgage loan to be sanctioned a firm
d)
No, as the firm is engaged in real estate business
85.
In case of Mortgage loan Overdrafts, Repayment capacity norms should be applied as if a Term Loan is sanctioned for a period of ________ months or maximum maturity as per the age criteria of the borrower whichever is lower.
a)
180
b)
120
c)
144
d)
84
86.
A firm having annual sales turnover of Rs. 3.30 Cr and investment in P&M and equipement is Rs. 1.09 Cr. Then the classification of firm is ___
a)
Micro
b)
Small
c)
Medium
d)
MSME Expanded
87.
Finance for Agri allied activities can now be sanctioned in Stand Up India.
a)
True
b)
.
88.
In general, TEV study is not required for the limit up to Rs. _______ Cr.
a)
10
b)
5
c)
25
d)
50
89.
Margin for a term loan sanctioned for the purpose of construction of factory building is _______
a)
10
b)
25
c)
30
d)
40
90.
What is minimum bench mark for average DSCR?
a)
1.33
b)
1.25
c)
1.75
d)
4.5
91.
Applicable internal benchmark reference rate for MSME expanded units is __
a)
BRLLR
b)
MCLR
c)
Base Rate
d)
Repo Rate
92.
Which of the following committee proposed turnover method for calculation of working capital
a)
Tandon
b)
Gosh
c)
Jilani
d)
Nayak
93.
Which of the below is not a deciding factor in fixing rate of interest for MSME units for limit up to 7.50 Cr is __________
a)
CMR rank
b)
MSME Classificaion
c)
Security
d)
BOBICON rating
94.
DLP of non corporate borrowers is ___% of DLP of corporate customers. (in case of other than retail & agri)
a)
0.25
b)
0.5
c)
0.75
d)
1
95.
Minimum threshold limit to approach DRT is _______
a)
10 lacs
b)
25 lacs
c)
20 lacs
d)
50 lacs
96.
CC/ OD account never classified as ___________
a)
SMA0
b)
SMA1
c)
SMA2
d)
NPA
97.
Our bank has modified set of LDOCs to be taken for. As per new loan documents policy, DP Note is to be taken for _______ loans.
a)
Agri
b)
Retail
c)
MSME
d)
DP note is not required to be taken for any loan in all locations other than Maharashtra.
98.
Commitment charges will be levied in case of under-utilization of limits for advances accounts with fund-based & non fund based working capital limits. Identify under utilisation for FB and NFB facilities.
a)
50%, 60%
b)
75%, 50%
c)
60%, 50%
d)
50% , 50%
99.
PSR to be sent for all auto loans at the time of review. Review has been done for a auto loan with outstanding balance Rs. 8.75 lacs, which was in SMA2 for 3 months during the review period. Do we need to send PSR for this account?
a)
Yes, PSR to be sent
b)
Not required, PSR to be sent for auto loans reviews, where balance is 10.00 lacs and above.
100.
PM Viswakarmaa scheme is implemented by which of the following ministries?
a)
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
b)
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
c)
Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance
d)
All of the above
101.
Limit calculation for supply chain finance (Inventory Finance) is lower of three items. First one is Limit recommended by the Anchor. Second one is Limit requested by the Dealer. Find the third one.
a)
Limit derived from Projected Sales turnover
b)
Limit derived from Inventory
c)
Limit derived from Estimated puchases
d)
Limit derived from Sundry debtors
102.
Surplus of long term sources over long term uses called ________(Find the most appropriated)
a)
Quick assets
b)
Net working capital
c)
Current Assets
d)
Cash
103.
Cash purchases
a)
Increases assets
b)
Results in no change in the total assets
c)
Decreases assets
d)
Decreases liabilities
104.
Tax deducted at source appears in the balance sheet
a)
On the asset side under current asset
b)
On the asset side under loans and advances
c)
On the liabilities side under current liabilities
d)
On the liabilities side under provisions
105.
Current ratio is 3:6 Current Liability is Rs. 30, 000. The Net working capital is
a)
Rs. 12,000/-
b)
Rs. (-) 45,000/-
c)
Rs. (-) 15,000/-
d)
Rs. 15000/-
106.
Sundry Debtors of a company is Rs. 90, 000 which includes Rs. 30, 000 as non-trade debt. Debtors‘ velocity is 3 months. Calculate annual credit sales
a)
Rs. 2 lakhs
b)
Rs. 3.6 lakhs
c)
Data insufficient
d)
Rs. 2.4 lakhs
107.
The Tandon committee - second method of lending prescribe the margin of
a)
25% of Working Capital Gap
b)
25% of Net Working Capital
c)
25% of Tangible Net Worth
d)
25% of Current assets
108.
Basic purpose of _________ is for part funding the Capital cost
a)
Cash Credit
b)
Overdraft
c)
1 & 2
d)
Term Loan
109.
Which of the following is to be deducted from networth to find ATNW?
a)
Intangible assets
b)
Investment in group concerns
c)
Revaluation reserves
d)
Depreciation reserves
e)
All the above
110.
Depreciation is kind of erosion in fixed asssets. Likewise, ammortization is erosion of ____________
a)
Current Assets
b)
Non Current Assets
c)
Intangible asset
d)
Deferred Tax Asset
111.
As per latest MasterDirections from RBI, buyer has to make payment to supplier (MSMEs) within maximum of ___________ days. If such payment not made, then buyer liable to pay compound interest with monthly rests at ______________?
a)
30, 4 times of Bank rate
b)
45, 3 times of Bank rate
c)
60, 2 times of Bank rate
d)
90, Bank rate
112.
As per SOP for EWS adopted by our bank, all advance accounts of Rs.______ lakhs and above irrespective of lending anargement, to be brought under EWS.
a)
100
b)
25
c)
50
d)
irrespective of amount
113.
Who is the authority for initiating furrther investigalion in account based on EWS ______________
a)
Zonal Head
b)
Head, Credit Quality & Portfolio Monotoring
c)
Credit Monitoring Dept, BCC
d)
RM
114.
"Delay observed in payment of outstanding dues" is an internally sourced _____________based EWS.
a)
Transaction
b)
Financial
c)
Non Financial
d)
Paymnent
115.
In a borrowal account with an exposure of 78 lacs, it has been observed requent Crystallization of Export Bills. Which authority has to attend the EWS.
a)
Branch level
b)
Regional Office level
c)
Zonal Office level
d)
CQPM dept
116.
Which authority is to take action on High Risk alerts on Rs 50 Crs and above?
a)
Zonal Head
b)
Head, Credit Quality & Portfolio Monotoring
c)
Credit Monitoring Dept, BCC
d)
Respective vertical
117.
The threshold limit for reporting of accounts classified as RFA / Fraud to CRILC is Rs. _______ Crores.
a)
10
b)
5
c)
3
d)
1
118.
Frauds involved in borrowal accounts having balance 3.00 Cr & above should be reported to CBI. What are the threshold limits for to report state police if fraud comitted by Staff & public?
a)
For staff & Public up to Rs. 3.00 Cr
b)
For staff Rs. 50000/- & above to Rs. 3.00 Cr, for Public Rs. 10000/- to Rs. 3.00 Cr
c)
For staff Rs. 10000/- & above to Rs. 3.00 Cr, for Public Rs. 50000/- to Rs. 3.00 Cr
d)
For staff Rs. 10000/- & above to Rs. 3.00 Cr, for Public Rs. 1.00 lac to Rs. 3.00 Cr
119.
Drafting & vetting of complaint in fraud cases of Rs.3.00 Clore & above would be undertaken centrally by the Law Officers attached to ___________ dept within ____ days s from the date of reporting of fraud to RBI.
a)
Credit Monitoring Dept, 10
b)
Legal Dept, 10
c)
Fraucl Risk Management Departrnent,10
d)
Legal Officer posted at respective zone, 10
120.
A complaint which is duly drafted and vetted should get approval of ________________ before filing with CBI, in fraud cases.
a)
Head, Fraud Risk Management
b)
MD & CEO
c)
Chief Vigilance Officer
d)
Head, Credit Monitoring
121.
In normal cases, __________ would be the competent authority to sign the CBl-Complaint as Complainant.
a)
The Deputy General Manager & Head-Fraud Risk Management Department, BCC
b)
the Assistant General Manager, Fraud Risk Management DePaltment, BCC
c)
MD & CEO
d)
Chief Vigilance Officer
122.
In fraud cases above Rs. 3.00 Cr, the complaint would be got filed with CBI within ________ days from the date of reporting of the fraud to RBI.
a)
14
b)
15
c)
21
d)
30
123.
Aggregate fund-based and non-fund based facilities of Rs.5.00 Crores and above from the concerned bank/FI irrespective of lending arrangementare are eligible to be declared as Non Cooperative borrower. In this regard, COE plays an important role. What is the quoram of Committee of Executives?
a)
ED + 2 members
b)
ED + 3 members
c)
ED + 4 members
d)
2 EDs
124.
The Credit Quality and Portfolio Monitoring department at BCC is required to report information on their Non-cooperative Borrowers (Global Operations) to CRILC under CRILC-Main on _________ basis within _______ days from the close of the relevant _________
a)
Monthly, 7, Month
b)
Quarterly, 14, Quarter
c)
Monthly, 3, Month
d)
Quarterly, 21, Quarter
125.
As a part of newly revamped structuer for martgage based retail loans, there will be 112 RAPCs, 6 is headed by AGMs (at Ahmedabad, Mumbai, New Delhi, Bengaluru, Hyderabad and Pune) and remaining 106 will be headed by Chief Manager or Sr. Manager. For purpose of deviation/concession in respect of
files of 106 RAPCs, RAAC - DGM shall excercie the power of _________
a)
GM
b)
ZOCC - GM
c)
COCC - GM/ BCC
d)
As per normal DLP of DGM
126.
As per our latest Corporate Policy for Management & Recovery of Non performing Assets, Stock Audit to be conducted on _________ basis in all NPA, TWO and PWO accounts with Working Capital limits of Rs. _____ Crores and above.
a)
Yearly, 1
b)
Half yearly, 3
c)
Yearly, 5
d)
Half yearly, 10
127.
Monthly Monitoring reports are to be submitted for balances (FB + NFB) above 10 Cr to _________, above Rs.5.00 crore to Rs.10.00 Crore to __________ & above Rs.1.00
Crore to Rs.5.00 Crores to ___________
a)
ZM, RM, DRM
b)
ZM, DZH, RM
c)
BCC, ZM, RM
d)
ZM, NDGM, RM
128.
Frequency for stock audit for an account is with external rating AA, is _________
a)
Annually, if WC limit is above 1.00 Cr & below 5 cr
b)
Half yearly, if WC limit is above 5 cr
c)
Annually, irrespective of balance
d)
Half yearly for unlisted companies, Quarterly for listed companies
129.
Menu to enter details of short review
a)
HBAIM
b)
HACLHM
c)
SHRTREV
d)
SHORTREV
130.
Enterprise Wide Fraud Risk Management System (EFRMS) has been integrated with CBS on real-time basis by generating pop up messages at the time of verification in which of following menus?
a)
HTM
b)
HXFER
c)
HCASHWD
d)
HPORDM
e)
All of the above
131.
What % of provision is to be kept for Standard category project loans under second extnsion?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7.5
132.
RBI has also lowered limit of RFA from Rs.50 crs. to Rs.______ crs
a)
25
b)
10
c)
5
d)
3
e)
1
133.
Special category codes to be fed in HBAIM menu for Red Flagged Account (RFA) and Fraud account are ________ & ____________
a)
875, 870
b)
870, 875
c)
890, 870
d)
870, 890
134.
The ZFMG to take a call on whether an account in which Early Warning Signal (EWS) is observed should be classified as Red Flagged Account (RFA) or not within __ days
a)
14
b)
90
c)
30
d)
60
135.
After declaring the account as RFA, within __ months, the ZFMG will stipulate the nature and level of further investigations or remedial measures to protect the Banks interest.
a)
6
b)
3
c)
2
d)
4
136.
As per RBI guidelines, the decision on fraud classification/ RFA status shall be taken and inform to Fraud Monitoring group, RBI in _____ days, in all cases where forensic audit is assigned.
a)
3
b)
7
c)
14
d)
21
137.
The forensic audit should be completed within a period of ____ months including submission of report to the Bank
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
138.
Competent Authority for assigning Forensic Audit in all accounts having outstanding balance up to 50 Cr is ______--
a)
RM or Head of ZOSARB/ CFS Head
b)
ZM of Head of ZOSARB/ CFS Head
c)
RM
d)
ZM
139.
The period to be covered for Forensic Audit in case of NPA/ Restructure accounts.
a)
1 year from date of NPA/ restructure
b)
From date of disbursement
c)
2 year from date of NPA/ restructure
d)
From date of sanction
140.
Security details entered in Finacle are having great impact on asset classification and provisioning. To avoid duplication of security, our bank has made available of duplicate security report. The report is avaialble in which Menu?
a)
BOBMENU>IRACRPT>DUPSEC
b)
DUPSEC
c)
BOBMENU>DUPSEC
d)
IRAC>DUPSEC
141.
Our Bank has implemented digitalisation of stock & book debt. The data stored ia available for ___ years?
a)
3
b)
5
c)
10
d)
for ever
142.
Our bank has paftnered with CRISIL as external dala aggregator for our EWS data. Name the platform that was developed for customized a company report.
a)
CYGNET FAME
b)
QUANTIX
c)
CRISILEWS
d)
CRISCOM
143.
Our Bank has introduced a new platform to supplement the Credit assessment & Decision making by analysing GST, ITR & Bank
Statement. Name the platform.
a)
CYGNET FAME
b)
QUANTIX
c)
AP Connect
d)
CRISCOM
144.
Minimum threshold limit to allot account to Agencies for Specialised Monitoring is _________
a)
100 Cr
b)
250 Cr
c)
200 Cr
d)
500 Cr
145.
Who is authority for accepting BG in lieu of cash and FD in case of DSRA for exposures up to 10 Cr(other than mid corporate cases)?
a)
RMCC in the rank of AGM
b)
RMCC in the rank of DGM
c)
ZOCC - GM irrespective of balance
d)
COCC - GM irrespective of balance
146.
Normally security creation /perfection of security should be completed before disbursement. But, in special cases ZOCC - GM for accounts falling up to DLP of ZOCC - GM, can allow time period for security creation/ security perfection is _________.
a)
90 days
b)
180 days
c)
2 months
d)
1 month
147.
Valuation can be done by branch officer for agri exposure up to Rs.35.00 Lakhs under BKCC, BAHFKCC & Planters card schemes single or jointly with any other Agriculture Schemes (However, the exposure in other Agriculture schemes should not exceed Rs.10.00 lacs). Which of the following should be considered?
lakhs)
a)
Recent sales of similar properties in the neighborhood on the basis of recorded sale value
b)
Enquiries from parties having good knowledge of local land values
c)
Valuation as per records of Registrar of Assurances
d)
the value may be estimated by multiplying the land revenues (as per revenue authorities) by 500 times
e)
Any of the above
148.
For used/ second hand machineries, Residual life should be at least ______ years and the repayment period shall be fixed as ____________
a)
12 years, Repay period = Residual period - 5 years
b)
7 years, Repay period should be 7 years
c)
10 years, Repay period = Residual period - 5 years
d)
7 years, Repay period should be 5 years
149.
Which institution launched Rajmargyatra app?
a)
National Autochannelled Highways of India
b)
Boarder Road organization
c)
National Haighways Authority of India
d)
National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited
150.
Who bagged National Film Award for best actor for the year 2021?
a)
Ramcharan Teja
b)
Prabhas
c)
Shahrukh Khan
d)
Allu Arjun
151.
Name the lander and rover name in Chandrayaan 2 mission?
a)
Vikram & Pragyan
b)
Pragyan & Vijay
c)
Vijay & Pragyan
d)
Pragyan & Vikram
152.
What is the motto of Asian Games 2022?
a)
Heart to Soul, @ future
b)
Soul to Heat, @ future
c)
Soul to Soul, @ future
d)
Heart to Heart, @ future
153.
Name the online life skill learning initiative taken by UNICEF in collaboration with ICC, which was launched during cricket match between India and Sri Lanka at Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai on 02.11.2023.
a)
Criiio4best
b)
Cricket4good
c)
Criiio4good
d)
Criket for best
154.
What is the motto of G20 summit conducted in India.
a)
Vasudhaika Kutumbam
b)
Vasudhiava Kutumbam
c)
Vasudha kutumbam
d)
One earth & one family
155.
Name the train that involved in train collision in Odisha on June02, 2023.
a)
Grandtrunk Exp
b)
Tamilnadu Exp
c)
Keral Exp
d)
Coromandel Exp
156.
Which country won Men's FIH Hockey world cup2023
a)
Germany
b)
Holland
c)
Australia
d)
India
157.
Name the vice president of USA
a)
Kamala Harris
b)
Nicky Heli
c)
Vivek Raman
d)
Donald Trump
158.
Name the documentary from India that won Oscar award in 95 Academy Awards under Best Documentary short subject category
a)
RRR
b)
Smell of Lotus
c)
I too laugh
d)
The Elephant Whisperers
159.
Against whome Gradmaster Praggyananda lost in World cup Finals.
a)
Magnus Calsen
b)
Pragnananda
c)
Arjun Eragesi
d)
Gukesh
160.
Who is Chairman of Financial Services Institutions Bureau (BBB)
a)
Adhik Ranjan
b)
Arundhathi Battacharys
c)
Bhanu Pratap Sharma
d)
S S Mundra
161.
Who represented India in Miss Universe pageant 2023?
a)
Swetha Sharda
b)
Swetha Gupta
c)
Swetha Paul
d)
Swetha Roy
162.
Total capital of Bank of Baroda as of Sept30, 2023 is
a)
1,13,000 Cr
b)
1,13,855 Cr
c)
1,10,739 Cr
d)
1,12,380 Cr
163.
Our Bank has organised Shramdaan Activity across the country on October1st, 2023 under the slogan _________
a)
Har ek haptha, Ek gHanta
b)
Ek Ghanta, Har Ek Mahina
c)
One Family, One Hour, One week
d)
Ek Taareek, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath
164.
Who is Union Minister for MSMEs
a)
Narayan Rane
b)
Bhanu Pratap Singh Verma
c)
Girija Singh
d)
Rajaneesh Mahapatra
165.
Which Union Ministry is the top buyer of goods and services from MSMEs in FY2022?
a)
Ministry of Aeorospace
b)
Ministry of Road & Transport
c)
Ministry of Defence
d)
Ministry of Urban Development
166.
Name the athlete who won Gold medal in women's javelin throw at Asian Games2022 conducted ifrom 23Sept2023 to 8th october 2023.
a)
K Hampi
b)
Annu Rani Dharayan
c)
Ann Hanna
d)
Vaishali R
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