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DATU PUTI

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a classification of signals?

a)

Continuous-time

b)

Discrete-time

c)

Dynamic-time

d)

Analog

2.

What defines a periodic signal?

a)

It has a repeating pattern over a specific interval

b)

It has a continuous spectrum

c)

It does not repeat its pattern

d)

It has no fundamental frequency

3.

What is the Nyquist rate?

a)

Half the sampling frequency

b)

  Twice the highest frequency component in the signal

c)

  Equal to the highest frequency component in the signal

d)

Equal to the sampling frequency

4.

Aliasing in signal processing occurs when:

a)

  The sampling frequency is too low

b)

The sampling frequency is too high

c)

  The signal is continuous

d)

  The signal is periodic

5.

What differentiates a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter from an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) filter?

a)

  FIR filters use feedback

b)

IIR filters have a finite number of coefficients

c)

IIR filters have an infinite impulse response

d)

FIR filters have recursive difference equations

6.

Which type of filter exhibits linear phase characteristics?

a)

IIR Filter

b)

  FIR Filter

c)

Both FIR and IIR

d)

Neither FIR and IIR

7.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

a)

They exhibit recursive behavior

b)

  They have an infinite impulse response

c)

They can have feedback loops

d)

They have a finite duration impulse response

8.

The z-transform is used to:

a)

Convert time-domain signals to frequency-domain signals

b)

Convert frequency-domain signals to time-domain signals

c)

Evaluate poles and zeros of a system

d)

Perform convolution operations

9.

  Pole-zero-gain filters are characterized by:

a)

  Number of poles and gain

b)

  Number of zeros and gain

c)

  Number of poles, zeros, and gain

d)

  Only the gain

10.

In signal processing, Fourier transforms are primarily used for:

a)

  Time-frequency analysis

b)

  Evaluating system poles and zeros

c)

  Modifying phase response of a filter

d)

  Converting frequency-domain signals to time-domain signals

11.

  What is the main purpose of a modulator in a communication system?

a)

To convert digital signals into analog signals

b)

  To amplify signals for transmission

c)

  To encode data into a carrier wave

d)

  To convert analog signals into digital signals

12.

  Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of digital communication?

a)

  High noise immunity

b)

Increased bandwidth requirement

c)

  Reduced error rate

d)

  Greater security in transmission

13.

What does the term ‘bandwidth’ refer to in communication systems?

a)

The frequency range of the modulated signal

b)

The capacity of data transmission

c)

  The range of available radio frequencies

d)

  The amount of noise in the system

14.

What component of a communication system is responsible for signal reception?

a)

Transmitter

b)

Modulator

c)

Receiver

d)

Antenna

15.

Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a specified frequency band.

a)

Thermal noise

b)

Gaussian noise

c)

White noise

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

16.

The signal in the channel is measured to be 23dB white while noise in the same channel is measured to be 9dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore___.

a)

9/23

b)

23/9

c)

32dB

d)

14dB

17.

What factor affects thermal noise in a communication system?

a)

Temperature

b)

Bandwidth

c)

Bandwidth

d)

Antenna height

18.

An amplifier has an output S/N that I half of its input S/N. What is its noise figure?

a)

3dB

b)

-3dB

c)

2dB

d)

-2dB

19.

If an amplifier has a bandwidth B=20kHz and a total noise power N=2x10^-17W, determine the total noise power in dBu if the bandwidth increases to 80kHz.

a)

100 dBu

b)

101 dBu

c)

-100 dBu

d)

-101 dBu

e)

50 dBu

20.

Modulation is the process of

a)

Generating constant frequency radio waves

b)

Combining audio and radio frequency waves at the transmitting end of a communication system

c)

Reducing distortion in the RF amplifiers

d)

Improving the thermal stability of a transistor

21.

What does the term ‘carrier suppression’ refer to in modulation?

a)

Reducing the power of the carrier wave

b)

Completely removing the carrier wave

c)

Minimizing interference from other carriers

d)

Amplitude reduction of the carrier wave

22.

A transmitter supplies 10kW of a carrier power to the antenna. The total radiated power with 45% modulation is___kW.

a)

14

b)

10.8

c)

1.6

d)

25

23.

100% modulation is produced in AM when the carrier.

a)

Frequency equals signal frequency

b)

Frequency exceeds signal frequency

c)

Amplitude equals signal amplitude

d)

Amplitude exceeds signal amplitude

24.

Which of the following statement regarding single sideband transmission is not correct?

a)

In such transmission, only one sideband is transmitted, leaving off the other side and the carrier

b)

It has gained general acceptance for the use home entertainment equipment

c)

It is generally reserved for point to point communication

d)

The amount of power and the bandwidth necessary to be transmitted for a given amount of information are appreciably reduced

25.

The difference between phase and frequency modulation

a)

is purely theoretical because the same in practice

b)

Is too great to make the two systems are compatible

c)

Lies in the poorer audio response of the phase modulation index

d)

Lies in the different definition of the modulation index

26.

In superheterodyne broadcast receiver, the frequency of the local oscillator is ___ the incoming signal frequency.

a)

Higher than

b)

Lower than

c)

Equal to

d)

Cannot be determine

27.

What is the primary function of a mixer in superheterodyne receiver?

a)

To amplify the received signal

b)

To convert the received signal to fixed frequency

c)

To filter out unwanted frequencies

d)

To detect the modulated signal

28.

The standard intermediate frequency for the FM radio is

a)

10.7 MHz

b)

4.5 MHz

c)

27 kHz

d)

15 kHz

29.

Which type of modulation is commonly used in digital communication systems?

a)

Amplitude modulation (AM)

b)

Phase modulation (PM)

c)

Pulse width modulation (PWM)

d)

Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)

30.

What is the primary function of a modem in a communication system?

a)

To convert digital signals into analog signals

b)

To amplify signals for transmission

c)

To encode data into a carrier wave

d)

To decode modulated signals

31.

An analog pulse modulation technique in which the duration of each resulting pulse is varied in step with the amplitude of the modulating signal at the time it is sampled and that the sampled pulses have the same amplitude.

a)

Pulse width modulation (PWM)

b)

Pulse duration modulation (PDM)

c)

Pulse length modulation (PLM)

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

32.

What does pulse code modulation (PCM) primarily involve?

a)

Modulating pulse width

b)

Converting analog signals to digital signals

c)

Varying pulse amplitude

d)

Modulating pulse position

33.

What is the advantage of using differential pulse code modulation (DPCM) over pulse code modulation (PCM)?

a)

Higher data transmission rate

b)

Lower quantization noise

c)

Reduced bandwidth requirement

d)

Better resistance to channel noise

34.

What is the primary characteristic of spread spectrum modulation techniques?

a)

Concentrating signal energy into narrow bandwidth

b)

Spreading signal energy over a wider bandwidth

c)

Transmitting signals at high frequencies

d)

Using multiple carrier frequencies for modulation

35.

What is the main advantage of digital modulation over analog modulation?

a)

Higher power efficiency

b)

Greater resistance to noise

c)

Simplicity in modulation

d)

Wider frequency range

36.

What is the primary advantage of digital communication over analog communication?

a)

Higher power efficiency

b)

Simplicity in modulation

c)

Greater resistance to noise

d)

Wider frequency range

37.

Which of the following is not a component of a digital communication system?

a)

Modulator

b)

Demodulator

c)

Receiver

d)

Carrier wave generator

38.

What is the primary difference between pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) and pulse width modulation (PWM)

a)

PAM encodes information in pulse width, while PCM encodes in pulse amplitude

b)

PAM uses a fixed pulse width, while PWM uses variable pulse widths

c)

PAM is digital, while PWM is analog

d)

PWM is used in audio applications, while PAM is used in video applications

39.

In pulse code modulation (PCM), what does quantization refer to?

a)

Encoding the analog signal into binary code

b)

Sampling the analog signal at regular intervals

c)

Modulating the amplitude of pulses

d)

Assigning numerical values to each signal level

40.

Which modulating technique encodes information in the timing of pulses?

a)

Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)

b)

Pulse width modulation (PWM)

c)

Pulse position modulation (PPM)

d)

Pulse code modulation (PCM)

41.

What is the primary advantage of quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) over other modulation techniques?

a)

Higher data transmission rates

b)

Simpler demodulation process

c)

Lower power consumption

d)

Greater resistance to noise

42.

What is the main advantage of frequency shift keying (FSK) over amplitude shift keying (ASK)?

a)

Higher spectral efficiency

b)

Simpler modulation process

c)

Greater resistance to noise

d)

Higher data transmission rates

43.

In digital communications, what does ASK stand for?

a)

Amplitude shift keying

b)

Angle shift keying

c)

Analog signal keying

d)

Amplitude sampling keying

44.

In phase shift keying (PSK), how many phase states can a signal have to encode information?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

45.

Which information theory concept measures the average amount of information produced by a source of data?

a)

Entropy

b)

Bit rate

c)

Redundancy

d)

Channel capacity

46.

What is the primary purpose of error detection codes in digital communication?

a)

To correct errors in transmitted data

b)

To minimize the occurrence of errors

c)

To identify if errors have occurred during transmission

d)

To compress the data for efficient transmission

47.

CDMA stands for:

a)

Code-division multiple access

b)

Carrier division multiple access

c)

Compact digital multiplex arrangement

d)

None of the choices

e)

All of the choices

48.

An analog multiplexing technique where the optical fiber data rate is higher than the data rate of the metallic transmission cable. It is also used to combine optical signals.

a)

FDM

b)

WDM

c)

CDMA

d)

TDM

49.

Which of the following is not a common FDM application?

a)

Telephone

b)

Stereo broadcasting

c)

Secure communications

d)

Telemetry

50.

It is the basic building block of the FDM hierarchy.

a)

Voice channel

b)

Group

c)

Baseband channel

d)

Message channel

e)

None of the choices

51.

A quarter-wave length of a line is used as a/an

a)

Impedance transformer

b)

Lecher line

c)

Stub matching

d)

Grounding

52.

What cause the characteristic impedance of a transmission line to change?

a)

Lengthening the transmission line

b)

Changing the frequency of the signal

c)

Altering the cross-sectional area of the line

d)

Varying the temperature of the transmission line

53.

A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6mm has 50ohms characteristic impedance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation in 1.60, calculate the inner diameter.

a)

2.09mm

b)

2.90mm

c)

2.09cm

d)

2.90cm

54.

Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is terminated in

a)

A pure reactance

b)

A short circuit

c)

An open circuit

d)

A complex impedance

55.

Which parameter of a transmission line determines its ability to transfer signals without distortion?

a)

Attenuation

b)

Characteristic impedance

c)

Propagation constant

d)

Phase velocity

56.

What factors affects the power density of transmitted signal?

a)

Frequency of the signal

b)

Transmitting antenna height

c)

Atmospheric pressure

d)

Transmitting antenna material

57.

A microwave transmitting antenna is 550ft high. The receiving antenna is 200ft high. The minimum transmission distance is

a)

20 mi

b)

38.7 mi

c)

53.2 mi

d)

32.3 mi

58.

Effective earth radius to true earth radius ratio

a)

Fresnel zone

b)

Index of refraction

c)

Path profile

d)

K-factor

59.

A measure of distribution of radiated power over a given area is called

a)

Power density

b)

Filed strength

c)

Attenuation

d)

Polarization

60.

The power density at a certain distance from a 5kW isotropic source in free space is 15.9x10^-14W/m2. How far away is the source?

a)

50,024.36 mi

b)

50,024.36 m

c)

50,024.36 km

d)

50,024.36 ft

61.

What is the free space loss (FSL) in dB at 300MHz between the earth station and a satellite at 37,00km?

a)

167.4 dB

b)

173.4 dB

c)

185.4 dB

d)

197.4 dB

62.

A 500-kHz transmitter produces a field strength of 100uV/m at 100mi. What is the theoretical strength at 200mi?

a)

25uV

b)

50uV

c)

75uV

d)

100uV

63.

A space that does not interfere with the normal radiation and propagation of waves.

a)

Free space

b)

Space wave

c)

Normal space

d)

Space jam

64.

What does the term ‘polarization’ refer to in antenna systems?

a)

The shape of the antenna

b)

The frequency of the transmitted signal

c)

The orientation of the electromagnetic wave’s electric field

d)

The distance between the antenna and the receiver

65.

A device designed to radiate electromagnetic energy into space.

a)

Transmission lines

b)

Matching transformer

c)

Antenna

d)

Conductors

66.

The amount of electromagnetic spectrum needed or allocated for a particular communication channel or group of channels.

a)

Power density

b)

Bandwidth

c)

Beamwidth

d)

Field strength

67.

In a given direction, the relative gain of a transmitting antenna with respect to the maximum directivity of a half-wave dipole multiplied by the net power accepted by the antenna from the connected transmitter.

a)

Power density

b)

Field strength

c)

Effective isotropic power

d)

Effective radiated power

68.

What is meant by antenna gain?

a)

The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line loss (including any phasing lines present)

b)

The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output power of the transmitter

c)

The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the backward direction

d)

The numeric ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna

69.

What is the primary function of a directive antenna?

a)

To radiate electromagnetic waves equally in all directions

b)

To concentrate electromagnetic waves in one direction

c)

To reduce the frequency of transmitted waves

d)

To amplify received signals

70.

What is the cut-off wavelength of a 6cmx3cm waveguide? Assume the dominant mode of operation.

a)

6cm

b)

9cm

c)

12cm

d)

15cm

71.

What is the primary advantage of using waveguides for transmission compared to from space transmission?

a)

Higher power losses

b)

Limited bandwidth capacity

c)

Lower propagation speed

d)

Better confinement of electromagnetic waves

72.

What is the primary reason for using fiber optics in communication systems?

a)

Higher susceptibility to electromagnetic interference

b)

Greater signal distortion over long distances

c)

Higher data transmission rates

d)

Lower bandwidth capacity

73.

What property of optical fibers allows them to transmit data over long distances?

a)

High attenuation

b)

Low dispersion

c)

Limited bandwidth

d)

High numerical aperture

74.

What characteristic defines a thermocouple as a temperature sensor?

a)

It measures temperature by changes in resistance

b)

It generates voltage proportional to temperature differences

c)

It uses light emission to detect temperature variations

d)

It directly measures heat flow

75.

What is the primary function of a photodiode in an optoelectronic system?

a)

To emit light when a current passes through it

b)

To convert light energy into electrical current

c)

To amplify electrical signals

d)

To control the intensity of light emitted by an LED

76.

What does the term ‘GPIO’ stand for concerning interfacing techniques?

a)

Graphic process input/output

b)

General purpose input/output

c)

Geographical positioning in/out

d)

Global peripheral input/output

77.

What is the primary role of an analog-to-digital converter (ADC) in interfacing systems?

a)

To convert digital signals into analog signals

b)

To amplify analog signals for better reception

c)

To convert analog signals into digital signals

d)

To control the flow of digital data

78.

Which component is essential in a fire and life safety control system?

a)

Temperature sensor

b)

Motion detectors

c)

Access control system

d)

Carbon monoxide detectors

79.

What is the primary function of a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system in building management?

a)

To control fire and life safety systems

b)

To supervise and collect data from various sensor and equipment

c)

To manage audio-video and lighting controls

d)

To regulate HVAC systems

80.

What is the primary function of an HVAC control system in a building management system?

a)

To monitor and control the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning

b)

To manage the security and surveillance systems

c)

To control the lighting and audio-video systems

d)

To supervise and acquire data from different sensors

81.

What type of network topology uses a central node to connect all other nodes?

a)

Bus topology

b)

Star topology

c)

Ring topology

d)

Mesh topology

82.

A ___ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical data link and network layers.

a)

Node

b)

Router

c)

Bridge

d)

Gateway

83.

Which category of data communication involves transmitting data over short distances within a building or campus?

a)

WAN (Wide Area Network)

b)

LAN (Local Area Network)

c)

MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

d)

GAN (Global Area Network)

e)

Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)

84.

What is the main advantage of a mesh network topology?

a)

Ease of installation and maintenance

b)

Redundancy and fault tolerance

c)

High-speed data transmission

d)

Centralized control of the network

85.

In which network configuration are all devices connected to a single, continuous cable?

a)

Mesh configuration

b)

Ring configuration

c)

Bus configuration

d)

Star configuration

86.

What distinguishes a four-wire circuit from a two-wire circuit?

a)

Four-wire circuits use separate wires for transmission and reception, while two-wire circuits use the same wire for both

b)

Two-wire circuits have higher bandwidth than four-wire circuits

c)

Four-wire circuits are used for analog transmission, while two-wire circuits are used for digital transmission

d)

Two-wire circuits are used in telephony, while four-wire circuits are used in data communication

87.

In which transmission mode can data be transmitted in both directions but not simultaneously?

a)

Simplex

b)

Half-duplex

c)

Full-duplex

d)

Multiplex

88.

What is the primary advantage of using a full-duplex transmission mode?

a)

Simplicity in implementation

b)

Higher data transmission rates

c)

Lower error rates

d)

Reduced of hardware

89.

Which transmission mode allows simultaneous transmission and reception of data?

a)

Simplex

b)

Half-duplex

c)

Full-duplex

d)

Multiplex

90.

Which network component acts as an interface between a computer and a network?

a)

Terminal

b)

FEP (Front-End Processor)

c)

Serial interface

d)

LCU (Line Control Unit)

91.

What type of synchronization ensures that sender and receiver clocks are synchronized periodically during data transmission

a)

Asynchronous synchronization

b)

Synchronous synchronization

c)

Isochronous synchronization

d)

Plesiochronous synchronization

92.

What network component manages multiple data streams onto single communication channel?

a)

Terminal

b)

Multiplexer

c)

Concentrator

d)

LCU (Line Control Unit)

93.

In the OSI model, which layer ensures data integrity and provides error detection?

a)

Data link layer (Layer 2)

b)

Network layer (layer 3)

c)

Physical layer (layer 1)

d)

Transport layer (layer 4)

94.

What character-oriented protocol is commonly used for email communication?

a)

ASCII

b)

Baudot

c)

EBCDIC

d)

Unicode

95.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating connections between applications?

a)

Transport layer (layer 4)

b)

Presentation layer (layer 6)

c)

Application layer (layer 7)

d)

Session layer (layer 5)

96.

Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for routing packets across different networks?

a)

Transport layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Application layer

d)

Data link layer

97.

Which bit-oriented protocol is widely used for synchronous communication in WANs?

a)

HDLC (high-level data link control)

b)

BSC (binary synchronous communication)

c)

PPP (point-to-point protocol)

d)

LAPB (link access procedure, balanced)

98.

What distinguishes a WAN from a LAN?

a)

WANs cover larger geographical areas than LANs.

b)

WANs area easier to set up than LANs

c)

WANs have lower transmission speeds compared to LANs

d)

WANs use wireless technology while LANs use wired technology

99.

What does ISDN stand for in telecommunications?

a)

Integrated switched digital network

b)

International subscriber dialing network

c)

Intelligent system data network

d)

Integrated services digital network

100.

Which network type covers a broad geographical area, such as a city or town?

a)

LAN (Local area Network)

b)

MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

c)

WAN (Wide Area Network)

d)

GAN (Global Area Network)