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Food Protection Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most important thing to remember in preventing foodborne illnesses according to the text?

a)

Inspection

b)

Prevention

c)

Certification

d)

Training

2.

What can a foodborne-illness outbreak potentially cause for an establishment?

a)

Increased reputation

b)

Decreased expenses

c)

A temporary increase in customers

d)

Closure of the establishment

3.

What does the FDA Food Code require for a person in charge of a foodservice operation?

a)

To have a basic understanding of food safety

b)

To become a Certified Food Protection Manager (CFPM)

c)

To have a minimum of 5 years of experience in foodservice

d)

To pass a simple health inspection

4.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a challenge to food safety in the document?

a)

Language and culture

b)

Time and money

c)

Food packaging

d)

High-risk customers

5.

What is the role of a Food Protection Manager certification according to the study guide?

a)

To ensure the manager can cook food properly

b)

To guarantee the safety of the food in the operation

c)

To provide a discount on health insurance

d)

To allow the manager to work in multiple facilities

6.

What type of operations may not require a Certified Food Protection Manager (CFPM) according to the local or state regulatory authorities?

a)

Large chain restaurants

b)

Cashier less markets and convenience stores

c)

Hospitals and schools

d)

All foodservice operations require a CFPM

7.

According to the CDC, which of the following is NOT a documented reason for food to become unsafe?

a)

Purchasing food from unsafe sources

b)

Using contaminated equipment

c)

Cooking food to the wrong flavor profile

d)

Poor personal hygiene

8.

What is one of the potential costs associated with a foodborne illness outbreak?

a)

Increased product quality

b)

Decreased insurance premiums

c)

Loss of customers/Sales

d)

Higher staff morale

9.

What is the role of the Person in Charge (PIC) in preventing foodborne illnesses?

a)

To ensure that employees are properly trained and adhere to high standards while working

b)

To provide medical information to the public

c)

To cook food adequately

d)

To handle food at incorrect temperatures

10.

What should a manager do when a customer calls to report a foodborne illness?

a)

Immediately close the establishment.

b)

Take the complaint seriously and ask the person to describe the symptoms.

c)

Offer the customer a refund without asking any questions.

d)

Ignore the complaint as most are not serious.

11.

If there are similar customer complaints of foodborne illness, what is one of the steps that should be taken?

a)

Dismiss the complaints as coincidences.

b)

Contact the crisis-management team.

c)

Offer customers free meals as compensation.

d)

Wait for more complaints before taking action.

12.

What action should be taken regarding the suspected food that is still in the operation during a foodborne illness outbreak?

a)

Continue to sell the food until it is confirmed to be the source.

b)

Set aside the suspected product and label it with "DO NOT USE" and "DO NOT DISCARD".

c)

Discard the food immediately without any investigation.

d)

Serve the food to staff members only.

13.

What is a recommended action if a sick staff member is identified as the cause of a suspected foodborne illness outbreak?

a)

Promote the staff member to a position with less food contact.

b)

Maintain a list of food handlers scheduled at the time of the suspected contamination.

c)

Give the staff member a warning and allow them to continue working.

d)

Immediately terminate the staff member's employment.

14.

When the regulatory authority confirms that an operation is the source of a foodborne illness outbreak, what should the operation do?

a)

Deny any responsibility to avoid legal consequences.

b)

Cooperate with the regulatory authority to resolve the crisis.

c)

Temporarily change the name of the establishment.

d)

Relocate the operation to a different area.

15.

Which of the following is considered an imminent health hazard that may require a food service to be stopped?

a)

A significant increase in customer complaints

b)

A scheduled health inspection

c)

A power outage

d)

Introduction of a new menu item

16.

Who are considered to be part of the high-risk populations for foodborne illnesses?

a)

Teenagers and young adults

b)

Infants and preschool-age children

c)

Middle-aged individuals

d)

People with no known health issues

17.

Which group cannot be served raw or undercooked foods that are typically allowed for others due to their high risk for foodborne illnesses?

a)

Athletes

b)

Elderly people

c)

Office workers

d)

People who frequently dine out

18.

What is the required action for operations that serve high-risk populations when it comes to raw seed sprouts?

a)

They must be served only upon request.

b)

They can be served without restrictions.

c)

They must be cooked before serving.

d)

They cannot be served at all.

19.

What does the acronym TCS stand for in the context of food safety?

a)

Time Controlled for Safety

b)

Temperature Controlled for Safety

c)

Time / Temperature Controlled for Safety

d)

Temperature / Time Safety Control

20.

Which characteristic is NOT associated with TCS foods?

a)

They contain protein.

b)

They are high in carbohydrates.

c)

They contain moisture.

d)

They have a neutral or slightly acidic pH.

21.

Which of the following is NOT included in the Time/Temperature Control for Safety (TCS) Foods list?

a)

Baked potatoes

b)

Poultry

c)

Sugars

d)

Shell eggs

22.

What is the primary reason that Ready-to-Eat (RTE) foods are at an increased risk for foodborne illness?

a)

They contain high levels of preservatives.

b)

They are often consumed without further washing or cooking.

c)

They are always served cold.

d)

They are high in sugar content.

23.

According to the CDC, which of the following is NOT one of the four main causes of foodborne illness?

a)

Time-temperature abuse

b)

Cross-contamination

c)

Properly cooked foods

d)

Poor personal hygiene

24.

What is cross-contamination?

a)

The process of cooking food to the proper internal temperature.

b)

The transfer of microorganisms from one food to another.

c)

The growth of microorganisms in a nutrient-rich environment.

d)

The prevention of foodborne illness through proper food storage.

25.

Which of the following is an example of poor personal hygiene that can contaminate food?

a)

Food handlers washing their hands with soap and water

b)

Food handlers wearing gloves while handling food

c)

Food handlers touching their face, hair, or other body parts, and then touching food

d)

Food handlers using sanitizer solution on food-contact surfaces

26.

What is known as the fecal-oral transmission route?

a)

Cleaning food-contact surfaces with a sanitizer

b)

Food handlers failing to wash their hands properly after using the restroom

c)

Storing wiping cloths in a sanitizer solution

d)

Cooking food to the appropriate internal temperature

27.

Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of foodborne illness?

a)

Nausea

b)

Headache

c)

Vomiting

d)

Diarrhea

28.

What is the term used for the time it takes for symptoms to appear in a person after they consume contaminated food?

a)

Duration

b)

Onset

c)

Interval

d)

Window

29.

Which of the following practices can lead to cross-contamination?

a)

Cooking food to the right temperature

b)

Allowing cooked or ready-to-eat food to touch food-contact surfaces that have not been cleaned or sanitized

c)

Storing raw meat below ready-to-eat food in the refrigerator

d)

Washing hands before handling food

30.

Who is considered the "responsible" party for ensuring that a facility's staff understands the importance of food safety according to the study guide?

a)

The local health department

b)

The Food Protection Manager Certification (CFPM)

c)

Each individual employee

d)

The food suppliers

31.

What is one of the Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) that focuses on controlling Food Safety Hazards?

a)

Proper storage of office supplies

b)

Time and Temperature abuse

c)

Efficient energy usage

d)

Marketing and advertising strategies

32.

What is a method for identifying the training needs of staff?

a)

Conducting customer satisfaction surveys

b)

Observing performance on the job

c)

Implementing new technology systems

d)

Increasing product prices

33.

Which if the following is a Ready to Eat (RTE) food?

a)

Uncooked Rice

b)

Unwashed Tomatoes

c)

Raw Chicken

d)

Sea Salt

34.

leaving left over stock on the counter to completely cool is an example of...

a)

Cross-contamination

b)

Poor personal hygiene

c)

Time-temperature abuse

d)

Poor cleaning and sanitating

35.

A food handler that is prepping sandwiches stops to scratch an itch on their face. This is

an example of what?

a)

Time-temperature abuse

b)

Poor personal hygiene

c)

Poor cleaning and sanitization

d)

Cross-contamination

36.

Vanilla ice cream, Grilled chicken, Chocolate milk, and Fresh oysters are all considered to be...

a)

TCS - Time and Temperature Controlled Foods

b)

RTE - Ready to Eat

c)

ASE - Always safe to eat

d)

RFC - Required for Consumption

37.

The temperature danger zone is:

a)

42°F (6°C) to 145°F (63°C)

b)

70°F (21°C) to 125°F (52°C)

c)

41°F (5°C) to 135°F (57°C)

d)

32°F (0°C) to 100°F (38°C)

38.

The food most connected to parasites are:

a. Rice b. Poultry

c. Seafood d. Canned foods

a)

Crackers

b)

Poultry

c)

Seafood

d)

Canned Foods

39.

Food service workers should change single use gloves:

a)

Food service workers should change single use gloves:

b)

When they start a new task

c)

After taking a break

d)

All other answers are correct

40.

Food can sit in the temperature danger zone for how long before it must be thrown

out?

a)

1 hour.

b)

2 hours.

c)

3 hours.

d)

4 hours.

41.

How far above the floor should food be stored?

a)

At least 1 inch

b)

At least 2 inches

c)

At least 4 inches

d)

At least 6 inches

42.

At what temperature can cold TCS foods be received?

a)

32°F

b)

70°F

c)

41°F

d)

135°F

43.

What may happen as a result of storing raw ground beef above potato salad?

a)

Poor personal hygiene.

b)

Cross-contamination.

c)

Time-temperature abuse.

d)

cross-contact with allergens.

44.

When storing TCS foods that were prepared in-house for longer than 24 hours, what

information must be on the label?

a)

The name of the person that made the salad.

b)

The name of the main ingredient.

c)

The date the food must be discarded.

d)

A list of all allergens.

45.

Shellstock ID tags must be kept on file for how long after the last item was removed

from the original package?

a)

6 weeks.

b)

One year.

c)

90 days.

d)

One month.

46.

What is the best way to check the temperature of vacuum packaged TCS foods?

a)

Place a thermometer stem or prob on the top of the package.

b)

Insert a thermometer stem or prob through the package into the food.

c)

Place a thermometer stem or prob between two packages of the food.

d)

Insert a Thermometer stem or prob into the thickest part of the food.

47.

During the preparation of TCS foods, what are the greatest risks to food safety?

a)

Time-temperature abuse and allergens.

b)

Cross-contamination and time-temperature abuse.

c)

Cross-connection and cross-contact.

d)

Personal hygiene and improper storage.

48.

The steps taken to identify and solve a problem, error, or nonconformity in a process,

system, or product is called?

a)

A variance.

b)

A personal problem.

c)

A corrective action.

d)

An emergency.

49.

What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for ground beef?

a)

165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds.

b)

145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds.

c)

155°F (68°C) for 17 seconds.

d)

135°F (57°C) for 17 seconds.

50.

When cooling foods, the temperature must go from 135°F (57°C) to 70°F (21°C) in...

a)

2 hours.

b)

4 hours.

c)

6 hours.

d)

8 hours.

51.

What is the required minimum internal cooking temperature for poultry?

a)

165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds.

b)

155°F (68°C) for 15 seconds.

c)

145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds.

d)

135°F (57°C) for 15 seconds.

52.

When thawing food in the microwave oven, what should happen immediately after?

a)

Freeze it solid.

b)

Cool it to 41°F

c)

Cook it to 165°F

d)

Put it on the buffet line.

53.

What is the minimum internal cooking temperature of a stuffed pork chop?

a)

135°F

b)

145°F

c)

155°F

d)

165°F

54.

During the cooling process if the food reached the 70°F (21°C) mark within 2 hours,

you must now cool the food to 41°F (5°C) or below within?

a)

The end of the shift.

b)

2 hours.

c)

4 hours.

d)

6 hours.

55.

What is the worst way to thaw frozen foods?

a)

Under running cold water

b)

In the Refrigerator

c)

On the counter at room temperature.

d)

In the microwave oven

56.

Hot TCS foods must be held at an internal temperature of ______ or higher.

a)

41°F

b)

70°F

c)

135°F

d)

165°F

57.

Cold TCS food must be held at an internal temperature of ______ or lower.

a)

41°F

b)

75°F

c)

140°F

d)

165°F

58.

When holding food with temperature control, how often do you need to check the

temperature?

a)

At least every 2 hours

b)

At least every 4 hours

c)

At least every 6 hours

d)

At least every 8 hours

59.

Any food being hot held must be discarded after _____ hours.

a)

Every 2 hours

b)

Every 4 hours

c)

Every 6 hours

d)

Every 8 hours

60.

Utensils can be stored in the food if:

a)

the food is cold

b)

the handle extended above the rim of the container.

c)

they are changed out every hour

d)

the food handler wears gloves.

61.

A pan of lasagna at 165°F was packed in a heated cabinet for off-site delivery.

What is the minimum information that should be on the label?

a)

Used-by date and time, reheating, and service instructions

b)

Use-by date, reheating, and service instructions

c)

Use-by time, reheating, and service instructions

d)

Use-by date and time, and reheating instructions

62.

The purpose of a food safety management system is to...

a)

Keep all areas of the facility clean and pest-free.

b)

Identify, tag and repair faulty equipment within the facility.

c)

Prevent foodborne illnesses by controlling risks and hazards.

d)

Use the correct methods for purchasing and receiving food.

63.

When selecting materials for floors, walls, and ceilings, what important features must

you look for?

a)

Hard and attractive

b)

Porous and durable

c)

Smooth and durable

d)

Hard and durable

64.

The only backflow technique that is 100 percent effective is?

a)

A ball valve

b)

A cross-connection

c)

An air gap.

d)

A vacuum breaker.

65.

If there is a buildup of grease and condensation on the walls of an operation, what is

the most likely cause.

a)

The ventilation system is not working properly.

b)

The staff are not cleaning correctly.

c)

The dishwasher is running at too high of a temperature.

d)

Degreasers are not being used properly.

66.

If the water in your operation is brown because of a broken water main, the manager

should...

a)

Boil the water for 3 minutes before using.

b)

Allow the water to be used for everything except washing dishes.

c)

Contact the local regulatory authority before using the water.

d)

Allow the water to be used for everything except washing hands.

67.

Food stored in an operation must be stored at least ____ inches off the floor.

a)

2 inches

b)

4 inches

c)

6 inches

d)

8 inches

68.

After cleaning and sanitizing flatware, how should they be stored?

a)

With handles facing up.

b)

Below cleaning supplies.

c)

In drawers that have been cleaned and sanitized.

d)

Four inches above the floor.

69.

When washing items in either a three-compartment sink or a dish machine, the

last step for either of these methods is always.

a)

Wash.

b)

Rinse.

c)

Sanitize

d)

Air-dry.

70.

To make sure a food handler is using a sanitizer solutions that is effective for food

contact surfaces, they must:

a)

Mix the solutions with equal parts of water.

b)

Try out the solution on a food contact surface.

c)

Test the solution with a sanitizer kit.

d)

use very hot water when making the solution.

71.

A dishwasher is about to wash dishes in a three-compartment sink, what is the first

thing they need to do?

a)

Remove the leftover food from the dishes.

b)

Fill the first sink with detergent and water.

c)

Clean and sanitize the sinks and drain boards.

d)

Make sure there is a clean liner in the trash can.

72.

The FDA's ALERT tool is most applicable in the context of ...

a)

Preventing intentional contamination in a food service establishment

b)

Contacting employees with work schedules

c)

Avoiding cross contamination

d)

Making sure employees are happy with their positions

73.

Fruit should be washed under running water to?

a)

keep it fresh

b)

help it ripen

c)

remove dirt and bacteria

d)

make it pretty

74.

The A in ALERT is for Assure. It means...

a)

all relevant food safety protocols and procedures are in place and continually updated

b)

Employees assure customers are happy

c)

Assurance that the restaurant is rated with an A

d)

all employees are certified in ServSafe

75.

The L in ALERT represents Look. It means...

a)

food handlers need to look out for any unusual or suspicious acts

b)

customers should look out for infestations

c)

food handlers should look at their appearance before helping customers

d)

managers should look for ways to improve service

76.

The E in ALERT is for Employees. It means...

a)

Every employee involved in food preparation and service must be aware of the procedures and practices that minimize risk

b)

Every employee is responsible for their own actions and behaviors

c)

Every employee in food preparation must be aware of practices that minimize risk

d)

Every employee in food service must be aware of procedures that minimize risk

77.

The R in ALERT is for Reports. It means...

a)

Food handlers should report suspicious activity and incidents immediately to supervisors

b)

Food handlers should report suspicious activity and incidents to supervisors at the end of their shift

c)

Food handlers should mind their own business and not report anything they see

d)

Food handlers should report suspicious activity and incidents only if they cause personal harm

78.

The T in ALERT is for Thread. It means...

T - Threat

The "T" in ALERT food defense awareness programs highlights the importance of being vigilant and aware of potential threats to food safety. These threats can be physical, chemical, or microbiological hazards. Food handlers should be aware of potential threats and take steps to prevent this.

a)

Food handlers should stay vigilant, be aware of potential threats and take steps to prevent this

b)

Food handlers are the biggest threat to the food industry

c)

Customers need to be vigilant of potential risks when eating outside their homes

d)

Food handlers only need to worry about physical threats in foods

79.

Food can be contaminated with...

a)

Physical Objects

b)

Chemicals Contaminants

c)

Biological Hazards

d)

Physical objects, Chemical Contaminants, and Biological Hazards

80.

What is a virus?

a)

A microorganism that reproduces in the cells of other living things

b)

Single-celled microscopic organisms that reproduce very rapidly under ideal conditions

c)

An organism that must live in another living thing in order to survive and gets its nourishment from the host