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Oral Surgery Medal Exam 2019

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true about pterygomandibular space?

a)

I. Usually caused by infected mandibular 3rd molar (pericoronitis)

b)

II. It Contains inferior neurovascular bundle, lingual and auriculotemporal nerve and mylohoid nerve and vessels

c)

III. Severe trismus with obvious extra oral Swelling

d)

IV. It spread superiorly to infratemporal space and medially to later pharyngeal space.

2.

A 2-month-old male infant had a small pit at the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, with mucus dripping intermittently from the opening. The pit extended to the tonsillar fossa as a branchial fistula. Which of the following embryologic structure(s) is (are) involved in this anomaly?

a)

Second pharyngeal arch

b)

Second pharyngeal pouch and groove

c)

Third pharyngeal pouch

d)

Thyroglossal duct

3.

Which of the following statement is /are correct about mid face fractures?

a)

Orbital blow out fractures involve the orbital floor.

b)

Accumulation of CSF in cavernous sinuses after Lefort II fracture

c)

The sphenoidal bone traumatises the cribriform plate in mid facial fractures

d)

Leakage of CSF in mid facial fractures need no neurosurgical repair

e)

CSF rhinorrhea continues more than a week after reduction and stabilisation then neurosurgical repair is needed.

4.

Middle third fractures of face involves the cribriform plate with CSF rhinorrhea....which statement is true?

4 lines
5.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

a)

Important observation following trauma to the eyes is to test visual acuity

b)

Dilated pupil following trauma to occlumotor nerve,use of atrophine or Horners syndrome

c)

Diplopia resulting from enophthalmos due to fracture of orbital floor or wall

d)

Disruption of bony margins of superior orbital fissure leading to superior orbital fissure syndrome.

6.

Concerning injured patients, which of the following are true?

4 lines
7.

CSF rhinorrhoea characteristically...true statement?

4 lines
8.

Raised intracranial pressure after maxillofacial injury....true statement

4 lines
9.

Haemorrhage with loss of more than 20% of the blood volume typically causes

4 lines
10.

Zygomatic fractures....false statement

4 lines
11.

Mandibular fractures are typically associated with...........false statement?

4 lines
12.

The Dautrey procedure..........true statement

4 lines
13.

Osteotomies .......true statement

4 lines
14.

When a down fracture Le fort I osteotomy is performed.....true statement?

4 lines
15.

A 15 year old otherwise healthy female patient at 1.am with large, firm, brawny submandibular swelling on right side. The patient has severe trismus, pyrexia and radiograph shows grossly carious 6. The patient has some dysphagia but the tongue is not elevated, which of the following is indicated?.....identify false statement

4 lines
16.

Cryosurgery...true statement

4 lines
17.

Which of the following statements are true?

4 lines
18.

Which of the following statements is/are false?

4 lines
19.

Glycosuria may be found in....false statement

4 lines
20.

Postoperative chest complications after GA....false statement?

4 lines
21.

Acute mandibular dislocation typically

4 lines
22.

When a genioplasty is performed.......true statement

4 lines
23.

What is the temperature used in glass bead sterilizer?

a)

450 C-480 C

b)

425 F-475 F

c)

430 C-440 C

d)

218 F-246 F

24.

According to Mallampatti classification structures visualised in grade ii

a)

A.soft palate and uvula ,facial pillars,tongue base

b)

B.soft palate,faucial pillars,tongue base

c)

C.hard palate and tongue base

d)

D.posterior pharyngeal wall,soft palate and uvula, faucial pillars,tongue base

25.

According to Ilizarov the duration for latency period in distraction protocol is

a)

2-4 DAYS

b)

3-5 DAYS

c)

5-7DAYS

d)

7-9 DAYS

26.

If patient is taking heparin and we have to do surgery immediately, the effects of heparin can be reversed by:

a)

Vitamin K

b)

Protamine sulfate

c)

Fresh frozen plasma

d)

Hydrocortisone

e)

5% dextrose

27.

Which method of sterilization is used for metal instruments and endotracheal tubes?

a)

Isopropyl alcohol

b)

Glutaraldehyde

c)

Chlorhexidine

d)

Beta-Propiolactone

28.

Which of the following method of sterilization is ineffective?

a)

Ethylene oxide gas.

b)

Gamma Radiation

c)

UV radiation

d)

Autoclaving

e)

Hot air oven

29.

Lip switch procedure is also called:

a)

Simple alveoloplasty

b)

Sub mucosal vestibuloplasty

c)

Labial Frenectomy

d)

Transpositional flap vestibuloplasty

e)

Maxillary augmentation procedure

30.

Father of distraction is

a)

ILIZAROV

b)

CODVILLA

c)

WASSMUND

d)

CADWELL

31.

Ostemyelitis maxilla is rate due to all of the except ___________

a)

Extensive blood supply to maxilla

b)

Abundant medullary space

c)

Thick Corical plate

d)

Porous nature od membranous bone

32.

_______is the common syndrome associated with hemimandibular hypoplasia?

a)

Nager’s syndrome

b)

Goldenhar – gorlin syndrome

c)

Stickler’s syndrome

d)

Townes-brocks syndrome.

33.

Which of the following is false regarding danger space?

a)

Anterior border is alar layer of deep fascia

b)

Anterior border is prevertebral layer

c)

It extent border from skull base to trachea

d)

It is named danger space because it contains loose areolar tissue and offer less resistance to the spread of infection.

34.

In distractor which movements moves the distraction plates apart

a)

CLOCKWISE

b)

ANTICLOCKWISE

c)

INVERSION

d)

REMOVING THE DISTRACTION SCREW

35.

______ test is positive in case of patient with frey’s syndrome?

a)

BENEDICT’S TEST

b)

PAUL-BUNNELL TEST

c)

BENZIDINE TEST

d)

MINOR STARCH IODINE TEST

36.

Fracture of floor of orbit is characterized by

a)

Anaesthesia of upper lip

b)

Paralysis of neck muscles

c)

Paralysis of lower eyelid muscle

d)

Anesthesia of ear lobe

37.

Elective dental procedures in a myocardial infarction patient must be deferred for _______ months?

a)

2 months

b)

4 months

c)

6 months

d)

8 months

38.

Hyperplasia of the crest of the alveolar ridge is most commonly found in

a)

Maxillary posterior region

b)

Maxillary anterior region

c)

Mandibular anterior region

d)

Mandibular posterior region

39.

Zygomatic arch fracture that is unstable after reduction is the one displaced

a)

Medially

b)

Superiorly

c)

Inferiorly

d)

Laterally

40.

The number of millimeters per day at which the bone surfaces are distracted apart is

a)

0.5 MM /DAY

b)

0.7MM /DAY

c)

1MM/DAY

d)

2MM/DAY

41.

Beta propiolectone is product of __________________

a)

Propane+butane

b)

Glutaraldehyde+Acetone

c)

Ketone+Formaldehyde

d)

Acetaldehyde+Ketone

42.

If stones are present in salivary duct there are chances of:

a)

Hypertrophy of salivary gland

b)

Hyperplasia of salivary gland

c)

Hyperplasia of salivary duct

d)

Dysplasia of salivary gland

e)

Metaplasia of lining of salivary duct.

43.

This is a two stage technique that combines the two standard procedures in first marsupialization is performed and the entire tissue is examined for histology

a)

Waldron’s methods

b)

Warts incisions

c)

Enucleation

d)

Suturing

44.

Cortical trephination is a procedure

a)

INVOLVING PERFORATION OF THE CORTICAL PLATE TO ACCOMPLISH RELEASE OF PRESSURE FROM THE ACCUMULATION OF EXUDATES

b)

PLACING A RETIROGRADE MATERIAL

c)

CORRECTION OF DEFECTS IN THE BODY OF ROOT OTHER THAN THE APEX

d)

REMOVAL OF ONE OR MORE ROOTS IN A MULTIROOTED TOOTH

45.

Advantages of using THORP plating system is all of the following except

a)

Less possibility for devascularization and resorption of bone beneath the plate that may lead to plate loosening

b)

Developed by raveh

c)

Reduced risk of infection

d)

Difficult to remove

46.

Which of these branches of trigeminal never contain somatic motor process?

a)

Supraorbital nerve

b)

Infraorbital nerve

c)

Mental nerve

d)

Frontal nerve

47.

Autogenous rib graft for ridge augmentation is usually harvested from

a)

FIRST RIB

b)

2ND TO 4TH RIB

c)

5TH TO 9TH RIB

d)

11TH TO 12TH RIB

48.

Which is of the following is not a phase of distraction osteogenesis

a)

Latency phase

b)

Distraction phase

c)

Consolidation phase

d)

Enlargement phase

49.

You wake one morning to discover that your alarm has not worked and you are running late. Desperate to get to your biochemistry lecture in time, yet unbearably hungry, you quickly throw some bread in the toaster as you get ready. Despite the toast burning a little, you eat it quickly as you rush out the door. The burnt parts of the toast scratch the roof of your mouth, leaving you with a stinging sensation there. What nerve is collecting this sensation from the hard palate?

a)

Posterior superior alveolar nerve

b)

Inferior alveolar nerve

c)

Lingual nerve

d)

Greater palatine nerve

e)

Lesser palatine nerve

50.

Transverse fracture of symphysis. Treatment options are all except

a)

2 lag screws

b)

2.5mm reconstruction plates

c)

2mm compression plate

d)

1.5mm single plate

51.

Which of the following is one of the components of composition of whitehead’s varnish?

a)

BENZOIN

b)

ETHYL ALCOHOL

c)

SODIUM BICARBONATE

d)

SODIUM METHABISULPATE

52.

The nucleus involved in papez circuit

a)

pulvinar

b)

intralaminar

c)

VPL nucleus

d)

anterior nucleus of thalamus.

53.

Fracture of angle of mandible is best managed by

a)

Compression plates

b)

2 Miniplates on lateral surface

c)

One miniplate on external oblique ridge

d)

IMF

54.

When a mandibular fracture is transferred to an emergency room under what is mandibular fracture examined.

a)

Primary survey

b)

Secondary survey

c)

Resuscitation room

d)

Next day in the clinic

55.

MRND 1 involves preservation of which structure

a)

SPINAL ACCESSORY NERVE

b)

INTERNAL JUGULAR VEIN

c)

STERNOCLEIDOMASTOID PROCESS

d)

NODES 1-5

56.

Chronic paroxysmal hemicranial headache is an orofacial pain of ______________ origin.

a)

extra cranial

b)

vascular

c)

psychogenic

d)

referred

57.

Gorlin goltz syndrome is most commonly associated with which type of carcinoma

a)

Squamous cell carcinoma

b)

Basal cell carcinoma

c)

Ewing’s sarcoma

d)

Malignant melanoma

58.

Recommended time gap between radiation exposure and surgery to avoid osteoradionecrosis ________.

a)

4-6 week after radiotherapy

b)

4-12 months after radiotherapy

c)

Immediately after radiotherapy

d)

Anytime during course of radiotherapy

59.

What is the diameter of ostium which opens into middle meatus?

a)

4 to 5mm DIAMETER

b)

2 to 3mm DIAMETER

c)

3 to 6 mm DIAMETER

d)

5 to 7 mm DIAMETER

60.

Catgut suture is best stored in

a)

Ethyl alcohol

b)

Benzyl alcohol

c)

Isopropyl alcohol

d)

Ether.

61.

High Glassgow coma scale value of 15 indicates that the patient is

a)

Concious

b)

Unconcious but not under threat to life

c)

Unconcious but threat tolife

d)

Brain dead

62.

The least basic surgical goal for management of oral pathological lesion is

a)

Eradication of lesion

b)

Functional rehabilitation of pt.

c)

Aesthetic improvement

d)

Diagnostc purpose

e)

Study purpose

63.

Temporary Diplopia is lasts only for :

a)

5-7 DAYS

b)

1WEEK

c)

4-5 DAYS

d)

7- 9 DAY

64.

Which is an excellent imaging modality for soft tissues

a)

Ultrasonography

b)

Magnetic resonance imaging

c)

Computed tomography

d)

Conventional radiography

65.

The most popular techinque in unilateral cleft lip repair is

a)

Tennison triangular flap& millard rotation advancement repair

b)

Tennison triangular flap&delaire techinque

c)

Delaire techinque& noordhoff techinque

d)

Millard rotation advancement repair&delaire technique

66.

All of the following are true regarding retropharyngeal space except_____

a)

Alar fascia separates retropharyngeal space from danger space

b)

It contains lymph node

c)

It bounded by superior and middle constrictors anteriorly and skull Base posteriorly

d)

Retropharyngeal abscess is the most dangerous deep neck space.

67.

Splints used in orthognathic surgery are made of what material?

a)

ZINC OXIDE EUGENOL

b)

IMPRESSION MATERIAL

c)

SELF CURE ACRYLIC

d)

HEAT CURE ACRYLIC

68.

The size of occlusal view radiographic film is

a)

SIZE 0: 22X35MM

b)

SIZE 2:24X40MM

c)

SIZE 3:27X54MM

d)

SIZE 4:57X76MM

69.

Most common cause of subarachanoid haemorrhage

a)

MMA

b)

Lenticulostratic artery.

c)

Cortical branches

d)

Rupture of brain aneurysm.

70.

The analysis done in lateral cephalogram for orthognathic surgery is called

a)

Rocky mountain analysis

b)

Grummon’s analysis

c)

Burnstone analysis

d)

Bohn’s analysis

71.

Gun shot wounds of face-----true statement is

a)

Low velocity bullets causes more injury than high velocity missiles

b)

Low velocity missiles causes deceptive external appearance with small entrance and extensive internal damage

c)

Caused by sterile high velocity bullets.

d)

Caused by high velocity bullets must be sutured as early as possible.

72.

A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe headaches. During physical examination he has difficulty in coughing and swallowing. A CT scan shows a tumor affecting a cranial nerve. Which nerve is most likely affected?

a)

Mandibular

b)

Maxillary

c)

Glossopharyngeal

d)

Vagus

e)

Hypoglossal

73.

Which of the following is a long action local anaesthesia?

a)

Lignocaine

b)

Procaine

c)

Prilocaine

d)

Bupivacaine

74.

_____________is a psychophysiological phenomenon which represent the individual’s manifestation of unpleasant reaction and involves complex neuroanatomical and psychological factors.

a)

PAIN ACTIVITY

b)

PAIN PERCEPTION

c)

PAIN REACTION

d)

PAIN TRANSMISSION

75.

What is opiorin

a)

Inflammation of parotid gland

b)

Tumor of the salivary gland

c)

Newly researched pain killing substance found in human saliva

d)

Shape of the sublingual gland

76.

The ph of saliva of resting gland is around

a)

4-5

b)

5-6

c)

6-7

d)

7-8

77.

During the removal of mylohyoid ridge, which of the following nerves should be protected?

a)

Mental nerve

b)

Mylohyoid nerve

c)

Lingual nerve

d)

Inferior alveolar nerve

78.

_________ is the method by which regional anaesthetic is secured by depositing the local anaesthetic solution in proximity to larger terminal nerve branches.

a)

NERVE BLOCK .

b)

FIELD BLOCK.

c)

LOCAL INFILTRATION.

d)

TOPICAL ANALGESIA.

79.

Temporomandibular joint dysfunction is a typical orofacial pain of ________________ origin.

a)

Extra cranial

b)

Vascular

c)

Psychogenic

d)

Referred

80.

What is opiorin

a)

Inflammation of parotid gland

b)

Tumor of the salivary gland

c)

Newly researched pain killing substance found in human saliva

d)

Shape of the sublingual gland

81.

Sickle cell anaemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. The event responsible for the mutation in the beta chain is

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

nondisjunction

d)

point mutation

82.

Recontouring of the residual ridge in early part of extraction period occurs primarily by resorption of the

a)

Crestal bone

b)

Lingual cortical bone

c)

Labial-buccal cortical bone

d)

Buccal-lingual cortical bone

83.

A 17-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis, as revealed by radiographic and physical examinations. Thrombophlebitis in the “danger area” of the face can spread to the cavernous sinus and involve the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Which of the following symptoms will most likely be present during physical examination?

a)

Pain in the hard palate

b)

Anesthesia of the upper lip

c)

Pain from the eyeball

d)

Pain over the lower eyelid

e)

Tingling sensation over the buccal region of the face

84.

The following are the modifications of BSSO except

a)

WASSMUND MODIFICATION

b)

DALPONT MODIFICATION

c)

HUNSUCK MODIFICATION

d)

BELL & EPKAR MODIFICATION

85.

Taking LA Toxicity into consideration how many catridges of xylocaine can be safely administered with epinephrine.

a)

4 mg/kg.

b)

6 mg/kg

c)

7 mg/kg

d)

12 mg/kg.

86.

Tessier classification of cleft IS

a)

Cleft lip only

b)

Cleft palate only

c)

Orofacial clefts

d)

Both cleft lip and palate

87.

Which tumour of parotid gland may be considerd having multiple etiologies like smoking, hypersensitivity and infection by viruse

a)

PA

b)

Warthins Tumour

c)

ME Ca

d)

PLGA

88.

Emboli may.......false statement?

a)

Follow deep vein thrombosis postoperatively

b)

Form after fractures

c)

Forms after surgical procedure

d)

Be lethal

89.

In Rule of 10 in the management of cleft lip,

a)

10 Kg of body weight,10 weeks old,10 mg of Hb.

b)

10 Kg of body weight,10 weeks old,10 g of Hb.

c)

10g of body weight,10 months old,10 mg of Hb.

d)

10 lb of body weight,10 weeks old,10 mg of Hb.

90.

A 17-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with tonsillitis. A tonsillectomy is performed and the patient complains postoperatively of ear pain. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the surgical procedure?

a)

Auriculotemporal

b)

Lesser petrosal

c)

Vagus

d)

Glossopharyngeal

e)

Chorda tympani

91.

Which of the following is not a complication of Bilateral Sagittal split osteotomy?

a)

INFERIOR ALVEOLAR NERVE INJURY

b)

INFRAORBITAL NERVE INJURY

c)

MALPOSITIONING OF CONDYLAR SEGMENT

d)

BAD SPLITS

92.

_______________pain is associated with neurophysiologic and behavioral changes.

a)

ACUTE

b)

CHRONIC

c)

NOCICEPTIVE

d)

NEUROPATHIC

93.

Which of following is not a radio isotopes used in head and neck imaging

a)

TECHNETIUM

b)

GADOLINIUM

c)

GALLIUM

d)

IODINE

94.

A patient complaints of pain in upper portion of his neck on swallowing. occasionally regurgitates undigested food shortly after eating which of the following is most likely etiology of his problems?

a)

Mallory Weiss tear

b)

Zenker's diverticulum

c)

Schatzki rings

d)

Traction diverticula

95.

A 45-year-old man was involved in a serious car accident. On examination he had a severe injury to the cervical region of his vertebral column with damage to the spinal cord. In fact, his breathing became erratic and stopped. At which level the damage might have occurred?

a)

Above the level of C5

b)

In C3, C4, C5

c)

At C5

d)

at C4

e)

All of the above

96.

Henry Border incision is used for

a)

Upper 8—8 Impaction

b)

Upper 3-----3 Impaction

c)

Lower 8----8 Impaction

d)

Incompletely formed lower 8----8 impaction.

97.

Which of the following is position for a 2nd trimester pregnant patient during extraction?

a)

Supine Position

b)

Semi – Erect Position

c)

Left Lateral Postion.

d)

Erect Position

98.

A patient is having apicectomy and through and through root filling with gutta percha under GA in operation theatre....what is true?

a)

the gutta percha should not be cut in open flame because of risk of explosion in operation theater.

b)

the gutta percha should be pulled from apical end to get a good seal in root canal.

c)

postoperative X-ray of apicectomised tooth will show the same appearance like conventional r

99.

Following facial fractures...pick up the true statement

a)

It is satisfactory to stabilise the malar fracture by antrum packing postero superiorly firmly

b)

Massetric pull causes postoperative displacement of Zygoma in treatment of zygomatic fracture.

c)

Enophthalmos may be corrected by bone or alloplastic grafts to the orbital floor.

d)

Damage to the right optic nerve will produce loss of the left consensual reflex.

100.

With regard to apicectomy.......false statement?

a)

apicectomy of lower second premolar sometimes causes risk of mental nerve anaesthesia

b)

apicectomy of upper first premolar may involve entry into maxillary antrum

c)

difficult to identify the palatal root of upper first premolar for retrograde root filling.

d)

careful retrograde root filling and good filling in the crown will cause resolution of periapical infection without the need for conventional root filling.