WorksheetsAUD: Internal Control
Total questions: 137
Worksheet time: 7hrs 51mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following most likely would not be considered an inherent limitation of the potential effectiveness of an entity’s internal control?
a)
Incompatible duties
b)
Management override
c)
Mistakes in judgment
d)
Collusion among employees
2.
When considering internal control, an auditor should be aware of the concept of reasonable assurance, which recognizes that
a)
Internal control may be ineffective due to mistakes in judgment and personal carelessness.
b)
Adequate safeguards over access to assets and records should permit an entity to maintain proper accountability.
c)
Establishing and maintaining internal control is an important responsibility of management.
d)
The cost of an entity’s internal control should not exceed the benefits expected to be derived.
3.
Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for separation of the functions of
a)
Authorization, execution, and payment
b)
Authorization, recording, and custody
c)
Custody, execution, and reporting
d)
Authorization, payment, and recording
4.
An entity’s ongoing monitoring activities often include
a)
Periodic audits by the audit committee.
b)
Reviewing the purchasing function.
c)
The audit of the annual financial statements.
d)
Control risk assessment in conjunction with quarterly reviews.
5.
The overall attitude and awareness of an entity’s board of directors concerning the importance of internal control usually is reflected in its
a)
Computer-based controls
b)
System of segregation of duties
c)
Control environment
d)
Safeguards over access to assets
6.
Management philosophy and operating style most likely would have a significant influence on an entity’s control environment when
a)
The internal auditor reports directly to management.
b)
Management is dominated by one individual.
c)
Accurate management job descriptions delineate specific duties.
d)
The audit committee actively oversees the financial reporting process.
7.
Which of the following factors are included in an entity’s control environment?
a)
Audit committee - YES
Integrity and ethical values - YES
Organizational - NO
b)
Audit committee - YES
Integrity and ethical values - NO
Organizational - YES
c)
Audit committee - NO
Integrity and ethical values - YES
Organizational - YES
d)
Audit committee - YES
Integrity and ethical values - YES
Organizational - YES
8.
Which of the following is not a component of an entity’s internal control?
a)
Control risk
b)
Control activities
c)
Monitoring
d)
Control environment
9.
Which of the following is a provision of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act?
a)
It is a criminal offense for an auditor to fail to detect and report a bribe paid by an American business entity to a foreign official for the purpose of obtaining business.
b)
The auditor’s detection of illegal acts committed by officials of the auditor’s publicly held client in conjunction with foreign officials should be reported to the Enforcement Division of the Securities and Exchange Commission.
c)
If the auditor of a publicly held company concludes that the effects on the financial statements of a bribe given to a foreign official are not susceptible of reasonable estimation, the auditor’s report should be modified.
d)
Every publicly held company must devise, document, and maintain internal control sufficient to provide reasonable assurances that internal control objectives are met.
10.
An auditor suspects that certain client employees are ordering merchandise for themselves over the Internet without recording the purchase or receipt of the merchandise. When vendors’ invoices arrive, one of the employees approves the invoices for payment. After the invoices are paid, the employee destroys the invoices and the related vouchers. In gathering evidence regarding the fraud, the auditor most likely would select items for testing from the file of all
a)
Cash disbursements
b)
Approved vouchers
c)
Receiving reports
d)
Vendors’ invoices
11.
Which of the following procedures most likely would provide an auditor with evidence about whether an entity’s internal control activities are suitably designed to prevent or detect material misstatements?
a)
Reperforming the activities for a sample of transactions.
b)
Performing analytical procedures using data aggregated at a high level.
c)
Vouching a sample of transactions directly related to the activities.
d)
Observing the entity’s personnel applying the activities.
12.
Which statement is correct concerning the relevance of various types of controls to a financial audit?
a)
An auditor may ordinarily ignore a consideration of controls when a substantive audit approach is taken.
b)
Controls over the reliability of financial reporting are ordinarily most directly relevant to an audit, but other controls may also be relevant.
c)
Controls over safeguarding of assets and liabilities are of primary importance, while controls over the reliability of financial reporting may also be relevant.
d)
All controls are ordinarily relevant to an audit.
13.
In an audit of financial statements in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards, an auditor is required to
a)
Document the auditor’s understanding of the entity’s internal control.
b)
Search for significant deficiencies in the operation of internal control.
c)
Perform tests of controls to evaluate the effectiveness of the entity’s internal control.
d)
Determine whether controls are suitably designed to prevent or detect material misstatements.
14.
In obtaining an understanding of an entity’s internal control relevant to audit planning, an auditor is required to obtain knowledge about the
a)
Design of the controls pertaining to internal control components.
b)
Effectiveness of controls that have been placed in operation.
c)
Consistency with which controls are currently being applied.
d)
Controls related to each principal transaction class and account balance.
15.
An auditor should obtain sufficient knowledge of an entity’s information system to understand the
a)
Safeguards used to limit access to computer facilities.
b)
Process used to prepare significant accounting estimates.
c)
Controls used to assure proper authorization of
transactions.
d)
Controls used to detect the concealment of fraud.
16.
When obtaining an understanding of an entity’s internal control, an auditor should concentrate on the substance of controls rather than their form because
a)
The controls may be operating effectively but may not be documented.
b)
Management may establish appropriate controls but not enforce compliance with them.
c)
The controls may be so inappropriate that no reliance is contemplated by the auditor.
d)
Management may implement controls whose costs exceed their benefits.
17.
Decision tables differ from program flowcharts in that decision tables emphasize
a)
Ease of manageability for complex programs.
b)
Logical relationships among conditions and actions.
c)
Cost benefit factors justifying the program.
d)
The sequence in which operations are performed.
18.
During the consideration of internal control in a financial statement audit, an auditor is not obligated to
a)
Search for significant deficiencies in the operation of the internal control.
b)
Understand the internal control and the information system.
c)
Determine whether the control activities relevant to audit planning have been placed in operation.
d)
Perform procedures to understand the design of internal control.
19.
The primary objective of procedures performed to obtain an understanding of internal control is to provide an auditor with
a)
Knowledge necessary for audit planning.
b)
Evidential matter to use in assessing inherent risk.
c)
A basis for modifying tests of controls.
d)
An evaluation of the consistency of application of management’s policies.
20.
Which of the following statements regarding auditor documentation of the client’s internal control is correct?
a)
Documentation must include flowcharts.
b)
Documentation must include procedural write-ups.
c)
No documentation is necessary although it is desirable.
d)
No one particular form of documentation is necessary, and the extent of documentation may vary.
21.
In obtaining an understanding of an entity’s internal control, an auditor is required to obtain knowledge about the
a)
Operating effectiveness of controls - YES
Design of controls - YES
b)
Operating effectiveness of controls - NO
Design of controls - YES
c)
Operating effectiveness of controls - YES
Design of controls - NO
d)
Operating effectiveness of controls - NO
Design of controls - NO
22.
Control risk should be assessed in terms of
a)
Specific controls
b)
Types of potential fraud
c)
Financial statement assertions
d)
Control environment factors
23.
After assessing control risk at below the maximum level, an auditor desires to seek a further reduction in the assessed level of control risk. At this time, the auditor would consider whether
a)
It would be efficient to obtain an understanding of the entity’s information system.
b)
The entity’s controls have been placed in operation.
c)
The entity’s controls pertain to any financial statement assertions.
d)
Additional evidential matter sufficient to support a further reduction is likely to be available.
24.
Assessing control risk at below the maximum level most likely would involve
a)
Performing more extensive substantive tests with larger sample sizes than originally planned.
b)
Reducing inherent risk for most of the assertions relevant to significant account balances.
c)
Changing the timing of substantive tests by omitting interim-date testing and performing the tests at year-end.
d)
Identifying specific controls relevant to specific assertions.
25.
An auditor assesses control risk because it
a)
Is relevant to the auditor’s understanding of the control environment.
b)
Provides assurance that the auditor’s materiality levels are appropriate.
c)
Indicates to the auditor where inherent risk may be the greatest.
d)
Affects the level of detection risk that the auditor may accept.
26.
When an auditor increases the assessed level of control risk because certain control activities were determined to be ineffective, the auditor would most likely increase the
a)
Extent of tests of controls
b)
Level of detection risk
c)
Extent of tests of details
d)
Level of inherent risk
27.
When assessing control risk below the maximum level, an auditor is required to document the auditor’s
a)
Understanding of the entity’s control environment - YES
Basis for concluding that control risk is below the maximum level - NO
b)
Understanding of the entity’s control environment - NO
Basis for concluding that control risk is below the maximum level - YES
c)
Understanding of the entity’s control environment - YES
Basis for concluding that control risk is below the maximum level - YES
d)
Understanding of the entity’s control environment - NO
Basis for concluding that control risk is below the maximum level - NO
28.
An auditor uses the knowledge provided by the understanding of internal control and the assessed level of control risk primarily to
a)
Determine whether procedures and records concerning the safeguarding of assets are reliable.
b)
Ascertain whether the opportunities to allow any person to both perpetrate and conceal fraud are minimized.
c)
Modify the initial assessments of inherent risk and preliminary judgments about materiality levels.
d)
Determine the nature, timing, and extent of substantive tests for financial statement assertions.
29.
An auditor may compensate for a weakness in internal control by increasing the
a)
Level of detection risk
b)
Extent of tests of controls
c)
Preliminary judgment about audit risk
d)
Extent of analytical procedures
30.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor’s assessment of control risk?
a)
Assessing control risk may be performed concurrently during an audit with obtaining an understanding of the entity’s internal control.
b)
Evidence about the operation of internal control in prior audits may not be considered during the current year’s assessment of control risk.
c)
The basis for an auditor’s conclusions about the assessed level of control risk need not be documented unless control risk is assessed at the maximum level.
d)
The lower the assessed level of control risk, the less assurance the evidence must provide that the control procedures are operating effectively.
31.
Regardless of the assessed level of control risk, an auditor would perform some
a)
Tests of controls to determine the effectiveness of internal control policies.
b)
Analytical procedures to verify the design of internal control.
c)
Substantive tests to restrict detection risk for significant transaction classes.
d)
Dual-purpose tests to evaluate both the risk of monetary misstatement and preliminary control risk.
32.
Before assessing control risk at a level lower than the maximum, the auditor obtains reasonable assurance that controls are in use and operating effectively. This assurance is most likely obtained in part by
a)
Preparing flowcharts
b)
Performing substantive tests
c)
Analyzing tests of trends and ratios
d)
Inspection of documents
33.
An auditor generally tests the segregation of duties related to inventory by
a)
Personal inquiry and observation
b)
Test counts and cutoff procedures
c)
Analytical procedures and invoice recomputation
d)
Document inspection and reconciliation
34.
The objective of tests of details of transactions performed as tests of controls is to
a)
Monitor the design and use of entity documents such as prenumbered shipping forms.
b)
Determine whether controls have been placed in operation.
c)
Detect material misstatements in the account balances of the financial statements.
d)
Evaluate whether controls operated effectively.
35.
After obtaining an understanding of internal control and assessing control risk, an auditor decided to perform tests of controls. The auditor most likely decided that
a)
It would be efficient to perform tests of controls that would result in a reduction in planned substantive tests.
b)
Additional evidence to support a further reduction in control risk is not available.
c)
An increase in the assessed level of control risk is justified for certain financial statement assertions.
d)
There were many internal control weaknesses that could allow misstatements to enter the accounting system.
36.
In assessing control risk, an auditor ordinarily selects from a variety of techniques, including
a)
Inquiry and analytical procedures
b)
Reperformance and observation
c)
Comparison and confirmation
d)
Inspection and verification
37.
Which of the following types of evidence would an auditor most likely examine to determine whether controls are operating as designed?
a)
Confirmations of receivables verifying account balances.
b)
Letters of representations corroborating inventory pricing.
c)
Attorneys’ responses to the auditor’s inquiries.
d)
Client records documenting the use of computer programs.
38.
Which of the following is not a step in an auditor’s decision to assess control risk at below the maximum?
a)
Evaluate the effectiveness of internal control with tests of controls.
b)
Obtain an understanding of the entity’s information system and control environment.
c)
Perform tests of details of transactions to detect material misstatements in the financial statements.
d)
Consider whether controls can have a pervasive effect on financial statement assertions.
39.
To obtain evidential matter about control risk, an auditor selects tests from a variety of techniques including
a)
Inquiry
b)
Analytical procedures
c)
Calculation
d)
Confirmation
40.
Which of the following is least likely to be evidence the auditor examines to determine whether controls are operating effectively?
a)
Records documenting usage of computer programs.
b)
Canceled supporting documents.
c)
Confirmations of accounts receivable.
d)
Signatures on authorization forms.
41.
Which of the following procedures concerning accounts receivable would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidential matter in support of an assessed level of control risk below the maximum level?
a)
Observing an entity’s employee prepare the schedule of past due accounts receivable.
b)
Sending confirmation requests to an entity’s principal customers to verify the existence of accounts receivable.
c)
Inspecting an entity’s analysis of accounts receivable for unusual balances.
d)
Inspecting an entity’s analysis of accounts receivable for unusual balances.
42.
Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to test controls relating to management’s assertion about the completeness of cash receipts for cash sales at a retail outlet?
a)
Observe the consistency of the employees’ use of cash registers and tapes.
b)
Inquire about employees’ access to recorded but undeposited cash.
c)
Trace deposits in the cash receipts journal to the cash balance in the general ledger.
d)
Compare the cash balance in the general ledger with the bank confirmation request.
43.
Sound internal control dictates that immediately upon receiving checks from customers by mail, a responsible employee should
a)
Add the checks to the daily cash summary.
b)
Verify that each check is supported by a prenumbered sales invoice.
c)
Prepare a duplicate listing of checks received.
d)
Record the checks in the cash receipts journal.
44.
Tracing shipping documents to prenumbered sales invoices provides evidence that
a)
No duplicate shipments or billings occurred.
b)
Shipments to customers were properly invoiced.
c)
All goods ordered by customers were shipped.
d)
All prenumbered sales invoices were accounted for.
45.
Which of the following controls most likely would reduce the risk of diversion of customer receipts by an entity’s employees?
a)
A bank lockbox system
b)
Prenumbered remittance advices
c)
Monthly bank reconciliations
d)
Daily deposit of cash receipts
46.
An auditor suspects that a client’s cashier is misappropriating cash receipts for personal use by lapping customer checks received in the mail. In attempting to uncover this embezzlement scheme, the auditor most likely would compare the
a)
Dates checks are deposited per bank statements with the dates remittance credits are recorded.
b)
Daily cash summaries with the sums of the cash receipts journal entries.
c)
Individual bank deposit slips with the details of the monthly bank statements.
d)
Dates uncollectible accounts are authorized to be written off with the dates the write-offs are actually recorded.
47.
Upon receipt of customers’ checks in the mailroom, a responsible employee should prepare a remittance listing that is forwarded to the cashier. A copy of the listing should be sent to the
a)
Internal auditor to investigate the listing for unusual transactions.
b)
Treasurer to compare the listing with the monthly bank statement.
c)
Accounts receivable bookkeeper to update the subsidiary accounts receivable records.
d)
Entity’s bank to compare the listing with the cashier’s deposit slip.
48.
Which of the following procedures most likely would not be a control designed to reduce the risk of misstatements in the billing process?
a)
Comparing control totals for shipping documents with corresponding totals for sales invoices.
b)
Using computer programmed controls on the pricing and mathematical accuracy of sales invoices.
c)
Matching shipping documents with approved sales orders before invoice preparation.
d)
Reconciling the control totals for sales invoices with the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger.
49.
Which of the following audit procedures would an auditor most likely perform to test controls relating to management’s assertion concerning the completeness of sales transactions?
a)
Verify that extensions and footings on the entity’s sales invoices and monthly customer statements have been recomputed.
b)
Inspect the entity’s reports of prenumbered shipping documents that have not been recorded in the sales journal.
c)
Compare the invoiced prices on prenumbered sales invoices to the entity’s authorized price list.
d)
Inquire about the entity’s credit granting policies and the consistent application of credit checks.
50.
Which of the following controls most likely would assure that all billed sales are correctly posted to the accounts receivable ledger?
a)
Daily sales summaries are compared to daily postings to the accounts receivable ledger.
b)
Each sales invoice is supported by a prenumbered shipping document.
c)
The accounts receivable ledger is reconciled daily to the control account in the general ledger.
d)
Each shipment on credit is supported by a prenumbered sales invoice.
51.
An auditor tests an entity’s policy of obtaining credit approval before shipping goods to customers in support of management’s financial statement assertion of
a)
Valuation or allocation
b)
Completeness
c)
Existence or occurrence
d)
Rights and obligations
52.
Which of the following controls most likely would help ensure that all credit sales transactions of an entity are recorded?
a)
The billing department supervisor sends copies of approved sales orders to the credit department for comparison to authorized credit limits and current customer account balances.
b)
The accounting department supervisor independently reconciles the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts receivable control account monthly.
c)
The accounting department supervisor controls the mailing of monthly statements to customers and investigates any differences reported by customers.
d)
The billing department supervisor matches prenumbered shipping documents with entries in the sales journal.
53.
Which of the following controls most likely would be effective in offsetting the tendency of sales personnel to maximize sales volume at the expense of high bad debt write-offs?
a)
Employees responsible for authorizing sales and bad debt write-offs are denied access to cash.
b)
Shipping documents and sales invoices are matched by an employee who does not have authority to write off bad debts.
c)
Employees involved in the credit-granting function are separated from the sales function.
d)
Subsidiary accounts receivable records are reconciled to the control account by an employee independent of the authorization of credit.
54.
Proper authorization of write-offs of uncollectible accounts should be approved in which of the following departments?
a)
Accounts receivable
b)
Credit
c)
Accounts payable
d)
Treasurer
55.
Employers bond employees who handle cash receipts because fidelity bonds reduce the possibility of employing dishonest individuals and
a)
Protect employees who make unintentional misstatements from possible monetary damages resulting from their misstatements.
b)
Deter dishonesty by making employees aware that insurance companies may investigate and prosecute dishonest acts.
c)
Facilitate an independent monitoring of the receiving and depositing of cash receipts.
d)
Force employees in positions of trust to take periodic vacations and rotate their assigned duties.
56.
During the consideration of a small business client’s internal control, the auditor discovered that the accounts receivable clerk approves credit memos and has access to cash. Which of the following controls would be most effective in offsetting this weakness?
a)
The owner reviews errors in billings to customers and postings to the subsidiary ledger.
b)
The controller receives the monthly bank statement directly and reconciles the checking accounts.
c)
The owner reviews credit memos after they are recorded.
d)
The controller reconciles the total of the detail accounts receivable accounts to the amount shown in the ledger.
57.
When a customer fails to include a remittance advice with a payment, it is common practice for the person opening the mail to prepare one. Consequently, mail should be opened by which of the following four company employees?
a)
Credit manager
b)
Receptionist
c)
Sales manager
d)
Accounts receivable clerk
58.
To provide assurance that each voucher is submitted and paid only once, an auditor most likely would examine a sample of paid vouchers and determine whether each voucher is
a)
Supported by a vendor’s invoice
b)
Stamped “paid” by the check signer
c)
Prenumbered and accounted for
d)
Approved for authorized purchases
59.
In testing controls over cash disbursements, an auditor most likely would determine that the person who signs checks also
a)
Reviews the monthly bank reconciliation
b)
Returns the checks to accounts payable
c)
Is denied access to the supporting documents
d)
Is responsible for mailing the checks
60.
In assessing control risk for purchases, an auditor vouches a sample of entries in the voucher register to the supporting documents. Which assertion would this test of controls most likely support?
a)
Completeness
b)
Existence or occurrence
c)
Valuation or allocation
d)
Rights and obligations
61.
Which of the following controls is not usually performed in the vouchers payable department?
a)
Matching the vendor’s invoice with the related receiving report.
b)
Approving vouchers for payment by having an authorized employee sign the vouchers.
c)
Indicating the asset and expense accounts to be debited.
d)
Accounting for unused prenumbered purchase orders and receiving reports.
62.
With properly designed internal control, the same employee most likely would match vendors’ invoices with receiving reports and also
a)
Post the detailed accounts payable records.
b)
Recompute the calculations on vendors’ invoices.
c)
Reconcile the accounts payable ledger.
d)
Cancel vendors’ invoices after payment.
63.
An entity’s internal control requires for every check request that there be an approved voucher, supported by a prenumbered purchase order and a prenumbered receiving report. To determine whether checks are being issued for unauthorized expenditures, an auditor most likely would select items for testing from the population of all
a)
Purchase orders
b)
Purchase orders
c)
Receiving reports
d)
Approved vouchers
64.
Which of the following questions would most likely be included in an internal control questionnaire concerning the completeness assertion for purchases?
a)
Is an authorized purchase order required before the receiving department can accept a shipment or the vouchers payable department can record a voucher?
b)
Are purchase requisitions prenumbered and independently matched with vendor invoices?
c)
Is the unpaid voucher file periodically reconciled with inventory records by an employee who does not have access to purchase requisitions?
d)
Are purchase orders, receiving reports, and vouchers prenumbered and periodically accounted for?
65.
For effective internal control, the accounts payable department generally should
a)
Stamp, perforate, or otherwise cancel supporting documentation after payment is mailed.
b)
Ascertain that each requisition is approved as to price, quantity, and quality by an authorized employee.
c)
Obliterate the quantity ordered on the receiving department copy of the purchase order.
d)
Establish the agreement of the vendor’s invoice with the receiving report and purchase order.
66.
Internal control is strengthened when the quantity of merchandise ordered is omitted from the copy of the purchase order sent to the
a)
Department that initiated the requisition
b)
Receiving department
c)
Purchasing agent
d)
Accounts payable department
67.
A client erroneously recorded a large purchase twice. Which of the following internal control measures would be most likely to detect this error in a timely and efficient manner?
a)
Footing the purchases journal.
b)
Reconciling vendors’ monthly statements with subsidiary payable ledger accounts.
c)
Tracing totals from the purchases journal to the ledger accounts.
d)
Sending written quarterly confirmations to all vendors.
68.
With well-designed internal control, employees in the same department most likely would approve purchase orders, and also
a)
Reconcile the open invoice file.
b)
Inspect goods upon receipt.
c)
Authorize requisitions of goods.
d)
Negotiate terms with vendors.
69.
In obtaining an understanding of a manufacturing entity’s internal control over inventory balances, an auditor most likely would
a)
Analyze the liquidity and turnover ratios of the inventory.
b)
Perform analytical procedures designed to identify cost variances.
c)
Review the entity’s descriptions of inventory policies and procedures.
d)
Perform test counts of inventory during the entity’s physical count.
70.
Which of the following controls most likely would be used to maintain accurate inventory records?
a)
Perpetual inventory records are periodically compared with the current cost of individual inventory items.
b)
A just-in-time inventory ordering system keeps inventory levels to a desired minimum.
c)
Requisitions, receiving reports, and purchase orders are independently matched before payment is approved.
d)
Periodic inventory counts are used to adjust the perpetual inventory records.
71.
A client maintains perpetual inventory records in both quantities and dollars. If the assessed level of control risk is high, an auditor would probably
a)
Insist that the client perform physical counts of inventory items several times during the year.
b)
Apply gross profit tests to ascertain the reasonableness of the physical counts.
c)
Increase the extent of tests of controls of the inventory cycle.
d)
Request the client to schedule the physical inventory count at the end of the year.
72.
Which of the following controls most likely addresses the completeness assertion for inventory?
a)
Work in process account is periodically reconciled with subsidiary records.
b)
Employees responsible for custody of finished goods do not perform the receiving function.
c)
Receiving reports are prenumbered and periodically reconciled.
d)
There is a separation of duties between payroll department and inventory accounting personnel.
73.
Sound internal control dictates that defective merchandise returned by customers should be presented initially to the
a)
Salesclerk
b)
Purchasing clerk
c)
Receiving clerk
d)
Inventory control clerk
74.
Alpha Company uses its sales invoices for posting perpetual inventory records. Inadequate controls over the invoicing function allow goods to be shipped that are not invoiced. The inadequate controls could cause an
a)
Understatement of revenues, receivables, and inventory.
b)
Overstatement of revenues and receivables, and an understatement of inventory.
c)
Understatement of revenues and receivables, and an overstatement of inventory.
d)
Overstatement of revenues, receivables, and inventory.
75.
Which of the following is a question that the auditor would expect to find on the production cycle section of an internal control questionnaire?
a)
Are vendors’ invoices for raw materials approved for payment by an employee who is independent of the cash disbursements function?
b)
Are signed checks for the purchase of raw materials mailed directly after signing without being returned to the person who authorized the invoice processing?
c)
Are all releases by storekeepers of raw materials from storage based on approved requisition documents?
d)
Are details of individual disbursements for raw materials balanced with the total to be posted to the appropriate general ledger account?
76.
The objectives of internal control for a production cycle are to provide assurance that transactions are properly executed and recorded, and that
a)
Production orders are prenumbered and signed by a supervisor.
b)
Custody of work in process and of finished goods is properly maintained.
c)
Independent internal verification of activity reports is established.
d)
Transfers to finished goods are documented by a completed production report and a quality control report.
77.
An auditor vouched data for a sample of employees in a payroll register to approved clock card data to provide assurance that
a)
Payments to employees are computed at authorized rates.
b)
Employees work the number of hours for which they are paid.
c)
Segregation of duties exist between the preparation and distribution of the payroll.
d)
Controls relating to unclaimed payroll checks are operating effectively.
78.
Which of the following is a control that most likely could help prevent employee payroll fraud?
a)
The personnel department promptly sends employee termination notices to the payroll supervisor.
b)
Employees who distribute payroll checks forward unclaimed payroll checks to the absent employees’ supervisors.
c)
Salary rates resulting from new hires are approved by the payroll supervisor.
d)
Total hours used for determination of gross pay are calculated by the payroll supervisor.
79.
In determining the effectiveness of an entity’s controls relating to the existence or occurrence assertion for payroll transactions, an auditor most likely would inquire about and
a)
Observe the segregation of duties concerning personnel responsibilities and payroll disbursement.
b)
Inspect evidence of accounting for prenumbered payroll checks.
c)
Recompute the payroll deductions for employee fringe benefits.
d)
Verify the preparation of the monthly payroll account bank reconciliation.
80.
An auditor most likely would assess control risk at the maximum if the payroll department supervisor is responsible for
a)
Examining authorization forms for new employees.
b)
Comparing payroll registers with original batch transmittal data.
c)
Authorizing payroll rate changes for all employees.
d)
Hiring all subordinate payroll department employees.
81.
Which of the following controls most likely would prevent direct labor hours from being charged to manufacturing overhead?
a)
Periodic independent counts of work in process for comparison to recorded amounts.
b)
Comparison of daily journal entries with approved production orders.
c)
Use of time tickets to record actual labor worked on production orders.
d)
Reconciliation of work-in-process inventory with periodic cost budgets.
82.
In meeting the control objective of safeguarding of assets, which department should be responsible for
a)
Distribution of paychecks - Treasurer
Custody of unclaimed paychecks - Treasurer
b)
Distribution of paychecks - Payroll
Custody of unclaimed paychecks - Treasurer
c)
Distribution of paychecks - Treasurer
Custody of unclaimed paychecks - Payroll
d)
Distribution of paychecks - Payroll
Custody of unclaimed paychecks - Payroll
83.
Proper internal control over the cash payroll function would mandate which of the following?
a)
The payroll clerk should fill the envelopes with cash and a computation of the net wages.
b)
Unclaimed pay envelopes should be retained by the paymaster.
c)
Each employee should be asked to sign a receipt.
d)
A separate checking account for payroll be maintained.
84.
The purpose of segregating the duties of hiring personnel and distributing payroll checks is to separate the
a)
Authorization of transactions from the custody of related assets.
b)
Operational responsibility from the recordkeeping responsibility.
c)
Human resources function from the controllership function.
d)
Administrative controls from the internal accounting controls.
85.
To minimize the opportunities for fraud, unclaimed cash payroll should be
a)
Deposited in a safe-deposit box.
b)
Held by the payroll custodian.
c)
Deposited in a special bank account.
d)
Held by the controller.
86.
The auditor may observe the distribution of paychecks to ascertain whether
a)
Pay rate authorization is properly separated from the operating function.
b)
Deductions from gross pay are calculated correctly and are properly authorized.
c)
Employees of record actually exist and are employed by the client.
d)
Paychecks agree with the payroll register and the time cards.
87.
Which of the following departments most likely would approve changes in pay rates and deductions from employee salaries?
a)
Personnel
b)
Treasurer
c)
Controller
d)
Payroll
88.
Which of the following questions would an auditor most likely include on an internal control questionnaire for notes payable?
a)
Are assets that collateralize notes payable critically needed for the entity’s continued existence?
b)
Are two or more authorized signatures required on checks that repay notes payable?
c)
Are the proceeds from notes payable used for the purchase of noncurrent assets?
d)
Are direct borrowings on notes payable authorized by the board of directors?
89.
The primary responsibility of a bank acting as registrar of capital stock is to
a)
Ascertain that dividends declared do not exceed the statutory amount allowable in the state of incorporation.
b)
Account for stock certificates by comparing the total shares outstanding to the total in the shareholders subsidiary ledger.
c)
Act as an independent third party between the board of directors and outside investors concerning mergers, acquisitions, and the sale of treasury stock.
d)
Verify that stock is issued in accordance with the authorization of the board of directors and the articles of incorporation.
90.
Where no independent stock transfer agents are employed and the corporation issues its own stocks and maintains stock records, canceled stock certificates should
a)
Be defaced to prevent reissuance and attached to their corresponding stubs.
b)
Not be defaced but segregated from other stock certificates and retained in a canceled certificates file.
c)
Be destroyed to prevent fraudulent reissuance.
d)
Be defaced and sent to the secretary of state.
91.
Which of the following is not a control that is designed to protect investment securities?
a)
Custody over securities should be limited to individuals who have recordkeeping responsibility over the securities.
b)
Securities should be properly controlled physically in order to prevent unauthorized usage.
c)
Access to securities should be vested in more than one individual.
d)
Securities should be registered in the name of the owner.
92.
Which of the following controls would a company most likely use to safeguard marketable securities when an independent trust agent is not employed?
a)
The investment committee of the board of directors periodically reviews the investment decisions delegated to the treasurer.
b)
Two company officials have joint control of marketable securities, which are kept in a bank safedeposit box.
c)
The internal auditor and the controller independently trace all purchases and sales of marketable securities from the subsidiary ledgers to the general ledger.
d)
The chairman of the board verifies the marketable securities, which are kept in a bank safe-deposit box, each year on the balance sheet date.
93.
A weakness in internal control over recording retirements of equipment may cause an auditor to
a)
Inspect certain items of equipment in the plant and trace those items to the accounting records.
b)
Review the subsidiary ledger to ascertain whether depreciation was taken on each item of equipment during the year.
c)
Trace additions to the “other assets” account to search for equipment that is still on hand but no longer being used.
d)
Select certain items of equipment from the accounting records and locate them in the plant.
94.
Which of the following questions would an auditor least likely include on an internal control questionnaire concerning the initiation and execution of equipment transactions?
a)
Are requests for major repairs approved at a higher level than the department initiating the request?
b)
Are prenumbered purchase orders used for equipment and periodically accounted for?
c)
Are requests for purchases of equipment reviewed for consideration of soliciting competitive bids?
d)
Are procedures in place to monitor and properly restrict access to equipment?
95.
Which of the following controls would be most effective in assuring that the proper custody of assets in the investing cycle is maintained?
a)
Direct access to securities in the safe-deposit box is limited to only one corporate officer.
b)
Personnel who post investment transactions to the general ledger are not permitted to update the investment subsidiary ledger.
c)
The purchase and sale of investments are executed on the specific authorization of the board of directors.
d)
The recorded balances in the investment subsidiary ledger are periodically compared with the contents of the safe-deposit box by independent personnel.
96.
A company holds bearer bonds as a short-term investment. Responsibility for custody of these bonds and submission of coupons for periodic interest collections probably should be delegated to the
a)
Chief Accountant
b)
Internal Auditor
c)
Cashier
d)
Treasurer
97.
Which of the following controls would an entity most likely use to assist in satisfying the completeness assertion related to long-term investments?
a)
Senior management verifies that securities in the bank safe-deposit box are registered in the entity’s name.
b)
The internal auditor compares the securities in the bank safe-deposit box with recorded investments.
c)
The treasurer vouches the acquisition of securities by comparing brokers’ advices with canceled checks.
d)
The controller compares the current market prices of recorded investments with the brokers’ advices on file.
98.
Which of the following controls would an entity most likely use in safeguarding against the loss of marketable securities?
a)
An independent trust company that has no direct contact with the employees who have recordkeeping responsibilities has possession of the securities.
b)
The internal auditor verifies the marketable securities in the entity’s safe each year on the balance sheet date.
c)
The independent auditor traces all purchases and sales of marketable securities through the subsidiary ledgers to the general ledger.
d)
A designated member of the board of directors controls the securities in a bank safe-deposit box.
99.
When there are numerous property and equipment transactions during the year, an auditor who plans to assess control risk at a low level usually performs
a)
Tests of controls and extensive tests of property and equipment balances at the end of the year.
b)
Analytical procedures for current year property and equipment transactions.
c)
Tests of controls and limited tests of current year property and equipment transactions.
d)
Analytical procedures for property and equipment balances at the end of the year.
100.
In general, material fraud perpetrated by which of the following are most difficult to detect?
a)
Cashier
b)
Keypunch operator
c)
Internal auditor
d)
Controller
101.
Which of the following matters would an auditor most likely consider to be a reportable condition to be communicated to the audit committee?
a)
Management’s failure to renegotiate unfavorable long-term purchase commitments.
b)
Recurring operating losses that may indicate going concern problems.
c)
Evidence of a lack of objectivity by those responsible for accounting decisions.
d)
Management’s current plans to reduce its ownership equity in the entity.
102.
In identifying matters for communication with an entity’s audit committee, an auditor most likely would ask management whether
a)
The turnover in the accounting department was unusually high.
b)
It consulted with another CPA firm about accounting matters.
c)
There were any subsequent events of which the auditor was unaware.
d)
It agreed with the auditor’s assessed level of control risk.
103.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning reportable conditions in an audit?
a)
An auditor is required to search for reportable conditions during an audit.
b)
All reportable conditions are also considered to be material weaknesses.
c)
An auditor may communicate reportable conditions during an audit or after the audit’s completion.
d)
An auditor may report that no reportable conditions were noted during an audit.
104.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor’s required communication with an entity’s audit committee?
a)
This communication is required to occur before the auditor’s report on the financial statements is issued.
b)
This communication should include discussion of any significant disagreements with management concerning the financial statements.
c)
Any significant matter communicated to the audit committee also should be communicated to management.
d)
Significant audit adjustments proposed by the auditor and recorded by management need not be communicated to the audit committee.
105.
An auditor’s letter issued on reportable conditions relating to an entity’s internal control observed during a financial statement audit should
a)
Include a brief description of the tests of controls performed in searching for reportable conditions and material weaknesses.
b)
Indicate that the reportable conditions should be disclosed in the annual report to the entity’s shareholders.
c)
Include a paragraph describing management’s assertion concerning the effectiveness of internal control.
d)
Indicate that the audit’s purpose was to report on the financial statements and not to provide assurance on internal control.
106.
An auditor would least likely initiate a discussion with a client’s audit committee concerning
a)
The methods used to account for significant unusual transactions.
b)
The maximum dollar amount of misstatements that could exist without causing the financial statements to be materially misstated.
c)
Indications of fraud and illegal acts committed by a corporate officer that were discovered by the auditor.
d)
Disagreements with management as to accounting principles that were resolved during the current year’s audit.
107.
Which of the following statements is correct about an auditor’s required communication with an entity’s audit committee?
a)
Any matters communicated to the entity’s audit committee also are required to be communicated to the entity’s management.
b)
The auditor is required to inform the entity’s audit committee about significant misstatements discovered by the auditor and subsequently corrected by management.
c)
Disagreements with management about the application of accounting principles are required to be communicated in writing to the entity’s audit committee.
d)
Weaknesses in internal control previously reported to the entity’s audit committee are required to be communicated to the audit committee after each subsequent audit until the weaknesses are corrected.
108.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor’s required communication of reportable conditions?
a)
A reportable condition previously communicated during the prior year’s audit that remains uncorrected causes a scope limitation.
b)
An auditor should perform tests of controls on reportable conditions before communicating them to the client.
c)
An auditor’s report on reportable conditions should include a restriction on the distribution of the report.
d)
An auditor should communicate reportable conditions after tests of controls, but before commencing substantive tests.
109.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning reportable conditions noted in an audit?
a)
Reportable conditions are material weaknesses in the design or operation of specific internal control components.
b)
The auditor is obligated to search for reportable conditions that could adversely affect the entity’s ability to record and report financial data.
c)
Reportable conditions should be recommunicated each year, even if management has acknowledged its understanding of such deficiencies.
d)
The auditor may separately communicate those reportable conditions considered to be material weaknesses.
110.
Which of the following representations should not be included in a report on internal control related matters noted in an audit?
a)
Reportable conditions related to internal control design exist, but none are deemed to be a material weakness.
b)
There are no significant deficiencies in the design or operation of internal control.
c)
Corrective follow-up action is recommended due to the relative significance of material weaknesses discovered during the audit.
d)
The auditor’s consideration of internal control would not necessarily disclose all reportable conditions that exist.
111.
Which of the following matters is an auditor required to communicate to an entity’s audit committee?
I. Disagreements with management about matters significant to the entity’s financial statements that have been satisfactorily resolved.
II. Initial selection of significant accounting policies in emerging areas that lack authoritative guidance.
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Both I and II
d)
Neither I nor II
112.
Should an auditor communicate the following matters to an audit committee of a public entity?
a)
Significant audit adjustments recorded by the entity - YES
Management’s consultation with other accountants about significant accounting matters - YES
b)
Significant audit adjustments recorded by the entity - YES
Management’s consultation with other accountants about significant accounting matters - NO
c)
Significant audit adjustments recorded by the entity - NO
Management’s consultation with other accountants about significant accounting matters - YES
d)
Significant audit adjustments recorded by the entity - NO
Management’s consultation with other accountants about significant accounting matters - NO
113.
A previously communicated reportable condition that has not been corrected should ordinarily be communicated again if
a)
The deficiency has a material effect on the auditor’s assessment of control risk.
b)
The entity accepts that degree of risk because of cost-benefit considerations.
c)
The weakness could adversely affect the entity’s ability to report financial data.
d)
There has been major turnover in upper-level management and the board of directors.
114.
Which of the following statements concerning material weaknesses and reportable conditions is correct?
a)
An auditor should identify and communicate material weaknesses separately from reportable conditions.
b)
All material weaknesses are reportable conditions.
c)
An auditor should report immediately material weaknesses and reportable conditions discovered during an audit.
d)
All reportable conditions are material weaknesses.
115.
Reportable conditions are matters that come to an auditor’s attention that should be communicated to an entity’s audit committee because they represent
a)
Disclosures of information that significantly contradict the auditor’s going concern assumption.
b)
Material fraud or illegal acts perpetrated by high-level management.
c)
Significant deficiencies in the design or operation of internal control.
d)
Manipulation or falsification of accounting records or documents from which financial statements are prepared.
116.
During the audit the independent auditor identified the existence of a weakness in the client’s internal control and orally communicated this finding to the client’s senior management and audit committee. The auditor should
a)
Consider the weakness a scope limitation and therefore disclaim an opinion.
b)
Document the matter in the working papers and consider the effects of the condition on the audit.
c)
Suspend all audit activities pending directions from the client’s audit committee.
d)
Withdraw from the engagement.
117.
In reporting on an entity’s internal control over financial reporting, a practitioner should include a paragraph that describes the
a)
Documentary evidence regarding the control environment factors.
b)
Changes in internal control since the prior report.
c)
Potential benefits from the practitioner’s suggested improvements.
d)
Inherent limitations of any internal control.
118.
Brown, CPA, has accepted an engagement to examine and report on Crow Company’s internal control. In what form may Crow present its written assertion?
I. In a separate report that will accompany Brown’s report.
II. In a representation letter to Brown.
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
Either I or II
d)
Neither I nor II
119.
Which of the following best describes a CPA’s engagement to report on an entity’s internal control over financial reporting?
a)
An attestation engagement to examine and report on the reliability of the effectiveness of its internal control.
b)
An audit engagement to provide negative assurance on the entity’s internal control.
c)
A prospective engagement to project, for a period of time not to exceed one year, and report on the expected benefits of the entity’s internal control.
d)
A consulting engagement to provide constructive advice to the entity on its internal control.
120.
An engagement to examine internal control will generally
a)
Require procedures that duplicate those already applied in assessing control risk during a financial statement audit.
b)
Increase the reliability of the financial statements that have already been audited.
c)
Be more extensive in scope than the assessment of control risk made during a financial statement audit.
d)
Be more limited in scope than the assessment of control risk made during a financial statement audit.
121.
How do the scope, procedures, and purpose of an examination of internal control compare to those for obtaining an understanding of internal control and assessing control risk as part of an audit?
a)
Scope - Similar
Procedures - Different
Purpose - Similar
b)
Scope - Different
Procedures - Similar
Purpose - Similar
c)
Scope - Different
Procedures - Different
Purpose - Different
d)
Scope - Different
Procedures - Similar
Purpose - Different
122.
When an independent auditor reports on internal control based on criteria established by governmental agencies, the report should
a)
Not include the agency’s name in the report.
b)
Indicate matters covered by the study and whether the auditor’s study included tests of controls with the procedures covered by the study.
c)
Not express a conclusion based on the agency’s criteria.
d)
Assume responsibility for the comprehensiveness of the criteria established by the agency and include recommendations for corrective action.
123.
When an examination has been performed on the effectiveness of entity’s internal control over financial reporting and a material weakness has been noted, the practitioner’s report should express an opinion on
a)
The assertion.
b)
The subject matter to which the assertion relates.
c)
Neither of the above
d)
Both of the above
124.
In assessing the competence of an internal auditor, an independent CPA most likely would obtain information about the
a)
Quality of the internal auditor’s working paper documentation.
b)
Organization’s commitment to integrity and ethical values.
c)
Influence of management on the scope of the internal auditor’s duties.
d)
Organizational level to which the internal auditor reports.
125.
For which of the following judgments may an independent auditor share responsibility with an entity’s internal auditor who is assessed to be both competent and objective?
a)
Assessment of inherent risk - YES
Assessment of control risk - YES
b)
Assessment of inherent risk - YES
Assessment of control risk - NO
c)
Assessment of inherent risk - NO
Assessment of control risk - YES
d)
Assessment of inherent risk - NO
Assessment of control risk - NO
126.
The work of internal auditors may affect the independent auditor’s
I. Procedures performed in obtaining an understanding of internal control.
II. Procedures performed in assessing the risk of material misstatement.
III. Substantive procedures performed in gathering direct evidence.
a)
I and II only
b)
I and III only
c)
II and III only
d)
I, II, and III
127.
An internal auditor’s work would most likely affect the nature, timing, and extent of an independent CPA’s auditing procedures when the internal auditor’s work relates to assertions about the
a)
Existence of contingencies.
b)
Valuation of intangible assets.
c)
Existence of fixed asset additions.
d)
Valuation of related-party transactions.
128.
During an audit an internal auditor may provide direct assistance to an independent CPA in
a)
Obtaining an understanding of internal control - NO
Performing tests of controls - NO
Performing substantive tests - NO
b)
Obtaining an understanding of internal control - YES
Performing tests of controls - NO
Performing substantive tests - NO
c)
Obtaining an understanding of internal control - YES
Performing tests of controls - YES
Performing substantive tests - NO
d)
Obtaining an understanding of internal control - YES
Performing tests of controls - YES
Performing substantive tests - YES
129.
When assessing the internal auditor’s competence, the independent CPA should obtain information about the
a)
Organizational level to which the internal auditors report.
b)
Educational background and professional certification of the internal auditors.
c)
Policies prohibiting the internal auditors from auditing areas where relatives are employed.
d)
Internal auditors’ access to records and information that is considered sensitive.
130.
In assessing the competence and objectivity of an entity’s internal auditor, an independent auditor would least likely consider information obtained from
a)
Discussions with management personnel.
b)
External quality reviews of the internal auditor’s activities.
c)
Previous experience with the internal auditor.
d)
The results of analytical procedures.
131.
If the independent auditors decide that the work performed by the internal auditor may have a bearing on their own procedures, they should consider the internal auditor’s
a)
Competence and objectivity.
b)
Efficiency and experience.
c)
Independence and review skills.
d)
Training and supervisory skills.
132.
In assessing the objectivity of internal auditors, an independent auditor should
a)
Evaluate the quality control program in effect for the internal auditors.
b)
Examine documentary evidence of the work performed by the internal auditors.
c)
Test a sample of the transactions and balances that the internal auditors examined.
d)
Determine the organizational level to which the internal auditors report.
133.
Dunn, CPA, is auditing the financial statements of Taft Co. Taft uses Quick Service Center (QSC) to process its payroll. Price, CPA, is expressing an opinion on a description of the controls placed in operation at QSC regarding the processing of its customers’ payroll transactions. Dunn expects to consider the effects of Price’s report on the Taft engagement. Price’s report should contain a(n)
a)
Description of the scope and nature of Price’s procedures.
b)
Statement that Dunn may assess control risk based on Price’s report.
c)
Assertion that Price assumes no responsibility to determine whether QSC’s controls are suitably designed.
d)
Opinion on the operating effectiveness of QSC’s internal controls.
134.
Payroll Data Co. (PDC) processes payroll transactions for a retailer. Cook, CPA, is engaged to express an opinion on a description of PDC’s internal controls placed in operation as of a specific date. These controls are relevant to the retailer’s internal control, so Cook’s report may be useful in providing the retailer’s independent auditor with information necessary to plan a financial statement audit. Cook’s report should
a)
Contain a disclaimer of opinion on the operating effectiveness of PDC’s controls.
b)
State whether PDC’s controls were suitably designed to achieve the retailer’s objectives.
c)
Identify PDC’s controls relevant to specific financial statement assertions.
d)
Disclose Cook’s assessed level of control risk for PDC.
135.
The auditor who audits the processing of transactions by a service organization may issue a report on controls
a)
Placed in operation - YES
Operating effectiveness - YES
b)
Placed in operation - YES
Operating effectiveness - NO
c)
Placed in operation - NO
Operating effectiveness - YES
d)
Placed in operation - NO
Operating effectiveness - NO
136.
Computer Services Company (CSC) processes payroll transactions for schools. Drake, CPA, is engaged to report on CSC’s policies and procedures placed in operation as of a specific date. These policies and procedures are relevant to the schools’ internal control, so Drake’s report will be useful in providing the schools’ independent auditors with information necessary to plan their audits. Drake’s report expressing an opinion on CSC’s policies and procedures placed in operation as of a specific date should contain a(n)
a)
Description of the scope and nature of Drake’s procedures.
b)
Statement that CSC’s management has disclosed to Drake all design deficiencies of which it is aware.
c)
Opinion on the operating effectiveness of CSC’s policies and procedures.
d)
Paragraph indicating the basis for Drake’s assessment of control risk.
137.
Lake, CPA, is auditing the financial statements of Gill Co. Gill uses the EDP Service Center, Inc. to process its payroll transactions. EDP’s financial statements are audited by Cope, CPA, who recently issued a report on EDP’s internal control. Lake is considering Cope’s report on EDP’s internal control in assessing control risk on the Gill engagement. What is Lake’s responsibility concerning making reference to Cope as a basis, in part, for Lake’s own opinion?
a)
Lake may refer to Cope only if Lake is satisfied as to Cope’s professional reputation and independence.
b)
Lake may refer to Cope only if Lake relies on Cope’s report in restricting the extent of substantive tests.
c)
Lake may refer to Cope only if Lake’s report indicates the division of responsibility.
d)
Lake may not refer to Cope under the circumstances above.
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