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Diagnostic Exam in Human Biology

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the correct anatomical description of your nasal and orbital?

a)

My nasal is superior to my orbital.

b)

My nasal is inferior to my orbital.

c)

My nasal is on the lateral side of my orbital.

d)

My orbital is on the lateral side of my orbital

2.

Which one of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system?

a)

protection against abrasion and UV light

b)

excretion of small amounts of waste products

c)

vitamin A production with exposure to UV light

d)

detection of heat, cold, pressure, and pain sensations

3.

A type of skin injury that affects both the outer layer (epidermis) and part of the underlying layer (dermis) of the skin. It is characterized by redness, swelling, blistering, and pain.

a)

first degree

b)

zero degree

c)

second degree

d)

fourth degree

4.

A chronic autoimmune skin condition characterized by the rapid overproduction of skin cells, leading to the formation of red, raised, and often scaly patches on the skin's surface.

a)

eczema

b)

psoriasis

c)

vitiligo

d)

bullae

5.

A condition that results from the deposition of urate crystals in joints. The primary cause is an inefficient processing or elimination of uric acid by the body.

a)

Sprain

b)

Gouty arthritis (gout)

c)

Dislocation

d)

Osteoarthritis

6.
What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?
a)

Phosphorus and Potassium

b)
Calcium and ATP
c)
Sodium and Potassium
d)
Ach and Potassium
7.

A rare and severe genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. It primarily affects males and is caused by mutations in the X chromosome.

a)

Fibromyalgia

b)

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Polio

8.

What is the electrical charge difference across the cell membrane of an unstimulated cell called?

a)

Resting membrane potential

b)

Action potential

c)

Depolarization

d)

Repolarization

9.

What triggers the opening of gated Na+ channels in a skeletal muscle fiber?

a)

Depolarization

b)

Repolarization

c)

Resting membrane potential

d)

Action potential

10.

What is the neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscles?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

11.
How do pairs of skeletal muscles work together?
a)
while one contracts, the other returns to original length
b)
both muscles contract at the same time
c)
both muscles relax at the same time
d)
1 muscle pulls on the bone and the other pulls on the first muscle
12.
What is the insulating membrane that surrounds parts of the axon that helps to protect & propagate action potential?
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrites
c)
Node of Ranvier
d)
Myelin Sheath
13.
The tiny gap between neurons where nerve impulses are sent from one neuron to another.  It is where communication occurs between an axon and dendrite
a)
synapse
b)
axon terminal
c)
impulse
d)
myelin
14.

What is the best definition of epilepsy?

a)

Constriction of the bronchi and bronchioles

b)

Muscular disorder that results in destruction of the nervous system

c)

It is when the body cannot make insulin

d)

Neurological condition that results in recurring seizures

15.

Encephalitis is a condition in which, for some reason, the _________ is experiencing inflammation.

a)

brain

b)

spinal cord

c)

meninges

d)

ventricles

16.

A progressive neurodegenerative disorder and the most common cause of dementia, a syndrome characterized by a decline in cognitive function, affecting a person's ability to perform daily activities.

a)

Alzheimer's Disease

b)

Multiple Sclerosis

c)

Cerebral Palsy

d)

Amnesia

17.

An autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system (CNS). The immune system mistakenly attacks the protective covering of nerve fibers, called myelin, leading to inflammation, damage, and the formation of scar tissue.

a)

Multiple Sclerosis

b)

Concussion

c)

Meningitis

d)

Alzheimer's Disease

18.

The part of the PNS that controls involuntary actions

a)

autonomic nervous system

b)

somatic nervous system

c)

organic nervous system

d)

reflexive nervous system

19.
The part of the nervous system that consists of nerves that branch out from the CNS (central nervous system) and connect to other body parts
a)
Sympathetic
b)
Parasympathetic
c)
Autonomic
d)
Peripheral
20.

Hormones travel through the blood and encounter many cells. How do they affect ONLY target cells?

a)

Target cells have receptors that match up with the hormone

b)

Target cells send out signals that attach to hormones and draw them to the cell

c)

Target cells have cell membranes with a different composition

d)

Magic!

21.

A hormone produced by the pituitary gland that stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in females and supports spermatogenesis in males.

a)

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

b)

Luteinizing Hormone

c)

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

d)

Estrogen

22.

Elevates calcium level in blood by stimulating bone breakdown; stimulates calcium re-absorption in the kidneys.

a)

Parathyroid Hormone

b)

Glucagon

c)

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

d)

Epinephrine

23.

Stimulates the secretion of testosterone in males for the development of male secondary characteristics, and the production of estrogen and progesterone for ovulation and formation of corpus luteum in females.

a)

Parathyroid Hormone

b)

Follicle Stimulating Hormone

c)

Luteinizing Hormone

d)

Epinephrine

24.

Where is anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) produced?

a)

Thyroid Gland

b)

Thymus

c)

Posterior pituitary

d)

Anterior pituitary

25.

What is hypothyroidism?

a)
A condition of hyposecretion of the thyroid gland causing low Thyroxine levels in the blood that result in sluggishness, slow pulse, and often obesity.
b)
Symptoms include excessive urination, thirst, and hunger. There are two types of diabetes.
c)
Secreted by the Anterior Pituitary Gland; stimulates milk production from mammary glands.
d)
results when the pancreas produces insulin, but not enough to meet the needs of the body. This type of diabetes is linked with obesity and is most common in adults over the age of 45. Treatment may involve oral medication, exercise, weight loss, and insulin injections.
26.

What is Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)
hypercortisolism; central obesity, neck and upper back fat= buffalo hump, moon face; DM associated because of BS and central obesity
b)
results when the pancreas does not produce any insulin. This type of diabetes may occur at any age but it is usually diagnosed early in life. Treatment involves the injection of insulin on a regular basis.
c)
results when the pancreas produces insulin, but not enough to meet the needs of the body. This type of diabetes is linked with obesity and is most common in adults over the age of 45. Treatment may involve oral medication, exercise, weight loss, and insulin injections.
d)
A sex hormone, secreted in greater amounts by females than by males. Stimulates uterine lining growth and promotes development of the female secondary sexual characteristics.
27.

What is the diagnosis of having a 139/80 blood pressure?

a)

Normal

b)

Elevated

c)

Hypertension Stage I

d)

Hypertension Stage II

28.
How many valves does  the heart have ? 
a)
7
b)
4
c)
3 
d)
2 
29.
Systolic pressure measures which of the following?
a)
atrial contraction
b)
atrial relaxation
c)
ventricular contraction
d)
ventricular relaxation
30.
Which vessels carry blood to the heart?
a)
Veins
b)
Arteries
c)
Capillaries
31.
What creates the "lub dub" heart sounds?
a)
Flow of blood
b)
Closing of valves
c)
Opening of valves
d)
Breathing
32.
The bottom chambers of the heart are called
a)
ventricles
b)
atria
c)
vena cava
d)
valves
33.

The valves located between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the

a)

aortic semilunar valve

b)

pulmonary semilunar valve

c)

tricuspid valve

d)

bicuspid valve

34.

The three types of granulocytes are the following except:

a)

lymphocytes

b)

neutrophil

c)

basophils

d)

eosinophils

35.

An 8-year old boy has periodic trouble breathing. A complete blood count is performed on the boy to determine if he has stress-anxiety syndrome or asthma (an allergic reaction). With which type(s) of white blood cells should you be most concerned?

a)

neutrophils

b)

lymphocytes

c)

eosinophils

d)

both neutrophils and lymphocytes

e)

both lymphocytes and eosinophils

36.

Red blood cells:

a)

are biconvex disks

b)

have several nuclei in each cell

c)

divide frequently

d)

contain large quantities of hemoglobin

e)

have all of these properties

37.

Which of these statements concerning ABO blood types is correct?

a)

Persons with type O blood have been called universal donors.

b)

Persons with type B blood who receive type A blood would have a transfusion reaction.

c)

To reduce the likelihood of a transfusion reaction, all possible blood groups should be correctly typed.

d)

Antibodies in the blood of the donor can react with the antigens in the blood of the recipient.

e)

All of these are correct statements.

38.

Which of these does NOT help to prevent blood loss?

a)

synthesis of thromboxanes

b)

blood vessel constriction

c)

formation of a network of fibrin

d)

formation of a platelet plug

e)

release of heparin

39.

Which of these leukocytes is NOT correctly matched with its function or description?

a)

monocytes — become macrophages

b)

basophils — synthesize or produce antibodies

c)

lymphocytes — important in the immune response

d)

eosinophils — reduce inflammation

e)

neutrophils — phagocytize microorganisms and other foreign substances

40.

Student Nurse Jayvee was asked by his professor, "What are Korotkoff Sounds?"

a)

A. Heard through a stethoscope caused by a turbulence from vibrations in the blood and surrounding tissues

b)

B. These are crackling sound which indicates vibration of fluid in the lungs

c)

C. Heard through a stethoscope which has a coarse sound and indicates partial obstruction of airway.

d)

D. This is a deep inspiration followed by a prolonged expiration.

41.
What makes the contents of blood, excluding plasma?
a)
red blood cells
b)
white blood cells
c)
bone marrow
d)
spontaneous creation
42.
Which blood type can receive any other blood type?
a)
Type-A
b)
Type-B
c)
Type-O
d)
Type-AB
43.
Oxygen-transporting protein in red blood cells that gives the cells their characteristic red color.
a)
thrombin
b)
hematocrit
c)
hemoglobin
d)
hemostasis
44.
If a red blood cell has antigen A on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
45.

The Contraction of the smooth muscles in the blood vessels is called what?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Constriction

d)

None of them is correct

46.

A toxin or other foreign substance which creates an immune response and the production of antibodies

a)

Antigen

b)

Pathogen

c)

Antibody

d)

Immunity

47.

A vaccine made from weakened pathogens is called

a)

Viral Vector Vaccine

b)

Subunit Vaccine

c)

Live-attenuated Vaccine

d)

Inactive Vaccine

48.

Which of the following cells make antibodies?

a)

T Cells

b)

Phagocytes

c)

B Cells

d)

Pathogens

49.

What is the antigen-presenting cell that stimulates helper T cells to divide?

a)

Macrophage

b)

B Cells

c)

Lymphocytes

50.

It is a non-selective type of immunity that prevents and destroys pathogens.

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Innate Immunity

c)

Immune System

51.
What part of the lymphatic system filters foreign material from blood and destroys old RBCs?
a)
spleen
b)
lymph nodes
c)
thymus 
d)
lymphatic vessels
52.

What is the advantage of becoming the lymph fluid before returning into the blood cirulatory system?

a)

Clean from foreign substances

b)

Remove waste products

c)

Supply oxygen to the system

d)

Produces new leucocytes

53.
After an initial infection, B-cells recognize the measles virus. How is this helpful in human immune response? 
a)
The B-cells use this recognition to defend the body against other pathogens, such as bacteria.
b)
 The B-cells more quickly recognize and respond to any other virus that invades the body.
c)
The B-cells produce antibodies more quickly if the measles virus is encountered again.
d)
The B-cells transfer this recognition to T-cells, which will then devour the viruses.
54.

A 3 month old baby contracts a virus called whooping cough (pertussis) after receiving the first of a sequence of 3 necessary DPT vaccines designed to prevent 3 diseases (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus). The vaccines are given at 2, 4, and 6 months of age to allow the body to develop specific immunity against these diseases. After the infant recovered from the disease, the doctor informed the parents that from now on the infant would only need the DT (diphtheria, tetanus) part of the vaccine. Why does the infant only need the DT vaccine?

a)

The infant had the first of a series of vaccines which caused the disease

b)

The infant had the pertussis disease and has already produced antibodies against the disease.

c)

The infant had the first of a series of vaccines which protected him from getting the disease.

d)

The infant had the pertussis disease and will get diphtheria in the future.

55.

Food, drink, and air all pass through the ____________.

a)

nasopharynx

b)

oropharynx

c)

laryngopharynx

d)

larynx

56.

It is a large dome of skeletal muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.

a)

pharynx

b)

larynx

c)

diaphragm

d)

esophagus

57.

A disease of respiratory system that occurs in the epithelium of the respiratory tract; can easily spread to other parts of the body because of the rich blood and lymphatic supply to the lungs.

a)

Bronchitis

b)

Emphysema

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Lung cancer

58.

Respiration includes the following except:

a)

movement of air into and out of the lungs.

b)

defense against pathogens.

c)

exchange of gases between the air and the blood.

d)

transport of gases in the blood.

59.

suspension of breathing. There is no movement of muscles of inhalation and the volume of the lungs initially remains unchanged

a)

emphysema

b)

asthma

c)

pneumonia

d)

apnea

60.

A condition characterized by an elevated level of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood.

a)

hypoventilate

b)

hyperventilate

c)

hypercapnia

d)

hypocapnia

61.
Given the following structures:
1. larynx
2. nasal cavity
3. pharynx
4. trachea
Which of the following is the correct order that air would flow during inhalation. 
a)
1,2,3,4
b)
2,3,1,4
c)
2,1,3,4
d)
4,2,3,1 
62.

A cavity within a bone or other tissue, especially one in the bones of the face or skull connecting with the nasal cavities.

a)

Sinus

b)

Nose

c)

Pharynx

d)

Larynx

63.

What do you call the involuntary constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestine or another canal, creating wave-like movements that push the contents of the canal forward?

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Dialysis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Enteritidis

64.

What will happen if the epiglottis won't cover the trachea while swallowing food?

a)

Salivating

b)

Vomiting

c)

Hyperventilating

d)

Choking

65.

What is the main function of the large intestine (colon)?

a)

to absorb nutrients

b)

to digest carbohydrates

c)

to absorb water and electrolytes

d)

to produce bile

66.

Where does the digestion of proteins take place?

a)

Mouth and stomach

b)

Stomach and small intestine

c)

Mouth and small intestine

d)

Mouth, stomach and small intestine

67.

Where is the bile produced?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Salivary glands

d)

Gall bladder

68.

On which part of the small intestine are the secretions from the pancreas and liver emptied into?

a)

jejunum

b)

ileum

c)

duodenum

d)

colon

69.

What is the correct order of the following processes?

a)

ingestion, digestion, elimination, absorption

b)

digestion, ingestion, absorption, elimination

c)

ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination

d)

digestion, elimination, ingestion, absorption

70.

Where does reabsorption occur?

a)

glomerulus

b)

proximal convoluted tubules

c)

Bowman's capsule

d)

None of them

71.

The tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body is called …………….

a)

Renal tubule 

b)

Ureters             

c)

Urethra           

d)

Urinary bladder

72.

What organ is responsible for filtering the blood?

a)

Lungs

b)

Bladder

c)

Kidneys

d)

Heart

73.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?

a)

Regulate ion concentrations

b)

Red blood cell production

c)

Regulate pH

d)

Absorption of fatty acids

74.

What is the periodic shedding of tissues and blood from the inner lining of the

uterus?

a)

menopause

b)

ovulation

c)

pregnancy

d)

menstruation

75.

In males, which is the correct pathway of sperms release?

a)

Seminiferous tubules - Vas deferens - Epididymis - Urethra

b)

Vas deferens - Seminiferous tubules - Epididymis - Urethra

c)

Epididymis - Vas deferens - Seminiferous tubules - Urethra

d)

Seminiferous tubules - Epididymis - Vas deferens - Urethra

76.

Which structure allows nutrients to pass to the embryo and takes wastes away from the embryo?

a)

Placenta

b)

Ovary

c)

Testes

d)

Fallopian tubes

77.

Which part of the female reproductive system is the site of fertilization?

a)

Uterus

b)

Fallopian tube

c)

Ovary

d)

Cervix

78.

The three layers of connective tissue membranes that cover and protect the spinal cord and brain are the ____.

a)

ventral roots

b)

Nissl bodies

c)

neurofibral bodies

d)

meninges

79.

An anatomical section that separates the body into right and left portions is a __________ section.

a)

frontal

b)

transverse

c)

coronal

d)

sagittal

80.

Which body part sends input about stimuli to the control center?

a)

Efferent

b)

Effector

c)

Receptor

d)

Afferent

81.

The combination of chemical reactions through which an organism builds up or breaks down materials as it carries out its life processes is called ...

a)

absorption

b)

metabolism

c)

digestion

d)

consumption

82.

Sternum is located in front of the heart. The front part of the body is called ___.

a)

inferior or caudal

b)

posterior or dorsal

c)

anterior or ventral

d)

superior or cranial

83.

The first cervical vertebrae, which supports the head, is called the ____.

a)

gladiolus

b)

atlas

c)

axis

d)

acromion

84.

The following organs are part of the urinary system, except.____.

a)

Urethra

b)

Ureter

c)

Kidney

d)

Gall Bladder

85.

Too little growth hormone secreted before puberty, as a result of abnormal development of the pituitary gland, results in a condition known as ____.

a)

Acromegaly

b)

Dwarfism

c)

Gigantism

d)

Cretinism

86.

The pharynx is divided into three portions, the nasopharynx, the oropharynx, and the ____.

a)

Laryngopharynx

b)

Sinopharynx

c)

Esophagus

d)

Tracheopharynx

87.

The double-folded serous membrane that encloses and protects the lungs is the ____.

a)

Peritoneum

b)

Vestibular Fold

c)

Pleural Membrane

d)

Alveolar-Capillary membrane

88.

What is the condition characterized by a buildup of cholesterol and narrowing of arteries?

a)

Obesity

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Cirrhosis

d)

Diabetes

89.

The flight or fight reaction is controlled by which gland?

a)

Pineal Gland

b)

Thyroid Gland

c)

Adrenal Gland

d)

Pituitary Gland

90.

Which of the following is correct about goiter?

a)

It is caused by excessive intake of iodine.

b)

It is characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland.

c)

It is a disorder primarily affecting the adrenal glands.

d)

It results from a deficiency of parathyroid hormone.

91.

Exposure to ultraviolet light causes the skin to darken (becomes suntan) by stimulating the

a)

breakdown of melanocytes

b)

production of melanin

c)

activity of the keratinocytes

d)

buildup of bilirubin

92.

These are veins that transfer oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

a)

SUPERFICIAL VEIN

b)

VENTRICLE

c)

CARDIAC VEINS

d)

PULMONARY VEINS

93.

__________ occurs when the heart muscle relaxes.

a)

DIASTOLE

b)

FLATLINE

c)

INDUCED

d)

SYSTOLE

94.

Food is pushed through your __________ and into your stomach with a series of muscle contractions.​

a)

SALIVA

b)

NECK

c)

MUSCLE FIBER

d)

ESOPHAGUS

95.

The diaphragm is located __________ the lungs.

a)

ABOVE

b)

BELOW

c)

BESIDE

d)

INSIDE

96.
The body’s maintenance of a relatively stable inner environment is called
a)
homeostasis
b)
sensory
c)
motor
d)
positive feedback loop
97.

In the process of diffusion, the alveoli receive CO2 and give out O2 to which blood vessel?

a)

Artery

b)

Vein

c)

Capillary

98.

Which part of the immune system is a physical barrier?

a)

skin

b)

tears

c)

mucus

d)

stomach acid

99.
How many valves does  the heart have ? 
a)
7
b)
4
c)
3 
d)
2 
100.
how many bones are in the skeleton?
a)
80
b)
206
c)
126
d)
260