wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

RS Examination Course

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hydro pneumatic or pressure tank water systems are suitable for

a)

providing sufficient water to meet peak demands for domestic, commercial, and industrial purposes

b)

small communities, housing developments, private homes and estates, camps, food service operations, and hotels

c)

water storage requirements

d)

helping to control watershed runoff

2.

Which of the following is NOT commonly used for disinfection of water?

a)

chlorine

b)

silver nitrate

c)

chlorine-ammonia compounds

d)

ozone

3.

Drinking water standards generally specify that a water is safe provided that testing in a specified manner does not reveal more than an average of

a)

10 positive samples out of 100 samples taken

b)

50 coliform organisms per 100ml

c)

1 positive sample out of 40 samples taken

d)

50 coliform organisms per 200 ml

4.

Which of the following is NOT a practical method for removal cadmium?

a)

reverse osmosis

b)

ion exchange

c)

lime softening

d)

iron coagulation

5.

Back-siphonage may be prevented by all of the following except

a)

barometric loop

b)

vacuum breakers

c)

air gap separation

d)

backpressure units

6.

Which is NOT a variable to be considered when deciding upon a safe distance between a well and a sewage disposal system

a)

well construction, tightness of pump connection, depth of well casing and sealing of the annual space

b)

the number of individuals utilizing the well

c)

the volume, strength, type and dispersion of the polluted material

d)

the soil structure and texture

7.

The presence of which of the following elements in water treatment plant effluent is used as a measure of filtration efficiency?

a)

copper

b)

aluminum

c)

zinc

d)

lead

8.

Which of the following is used to control the growth of algae and protozoa?

a)

addition of copper sulfate

b)

aeration of the water

c)

addition of nitrates

d)

filtration

9.

gases frequently found in water that encourage corrosion are

a)

methane and oxygen

b)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

chlorine and carbon dioxide

d)

methane and hydrogen sulfide

10.

In emergencies, small quantities of water can be disinfected by boiling or using

a)

aluminum salts

b)

tincture of iodine

c)

salt tablets

d)

direct exposure to sunlight for 22 hours

11.

The presence of which of the following in water would indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Clostridium perfringens

d)

Enterococci

12.

Reduction of the level of fluorides in the drinking water can be accomplished by

a)

coagulation

b)

lime softening

c)

ion exchange

d)

all of the above

13.

Backflow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by

a)

backpressure

b)

back-siphonage

c)

vacuum in the volume

d)

backpressure and back-siphonage

14.

Hardness in drinking water is desirable at levels of

a)

80 to 150 mg/l

b)

50 to 80 mg/l

c)

0 to 50 mg/l

d)

600 to 800 mg/l

15.

Alkalinity of water is desirable at levels of

a)

0 to 30 mg/l

b)

0 to 500 mg/l

c)

30 to 100 mg/l

d)

0 to 5 mg/l

16.

Objectionable tastes and odors in public water supplies are, in a great majority of cases, due to the presence of

a)

algae and protozoa

b)

animal remains

c)

dissolved oxygen

d)

yeasts and molds

17.

The substance commonly used as a coagulant in water treatment is

a)

aluminum sulfate

b)

calcium sulfate

c)

potassium chloride

d)

sodium phosphate

18.

The disinfecting ability of chlorine is affected most by

a)

BOD

b)

temperature

c)

hydrogen ion concentration

d)

dissolved oxygen

19.

Alkalinity exists in three forms. Which is NOT one of these forms?

a)

bicarbonate

b)

hydroxide

c)

carbonate

d)

hypochlorite

20.

Which of the following compounds would NOT contribute to water hardness?

a)

calcium sulfate

b)

magnesium sulfate

c)

calcium chloride

d)

sodium chloride

21.

Improperly located wells, allowing fecal pollution of the water supply, may lead to outbreaks of

a)

botulisms, leptospirosis, typhus fever, malaria

b)

brucellosis, strep infections, cholera, yellow fever

c)

salmonellosis, shigellosis, cholera, hepatitis

d)

relapsing fever, histoplasmosis, psittacosis

22.

Masonry reservoirs of rural water supplies are called

a)

leaching pits

b)

cisterns

c)

cesspools

d)

seepage pits

23.

The general type of subsurface formation in which groundwater contamination is likely to travel the farthest is

a)

limestone

b)

clay

c)

granite

d)

gravel

24.

The addition of sodium bicarbonate is usually used to

a)

raise the ambient water temperature

b)

lower the ambient water temperature

c)

raise the alkalinity

d)

lower the pH

25.

To raise the pH, add

a)

chlorine

b)

muriatic acid

c)

soda ash (sodium carbonate)

d)

sulfuric acid

26.

A chemical commonly used to improve water clarity is

a)

alum

b)

muriatic acid

c)

hydrogen chloride

d)

sodium carbonate

27.

The best control of swimmer's itch at a bathing beach is to

a)

add copper sulfate

b)

increase the chlorine residual

c)

lower the chlorine residual

d)

lower water level and allow plants to dry out

28.

Generally prohibited swimming facility from a public health perspective is a

a)

home outdoor pool

b)

fill and draw pool

c)

natural flow-through pool

d)

recirculating pool

29.

Swimming pool water that is brownish black in color may be due to

a)

H2S

b)

Mg

c)

Mn

d)

Fe

30.

In an emergency, people will need _ of water per day

a)

1 to 2 gallons

b)

up to 3 gallons per family unit

c)

3 to 6 gallons

d)

none of the above

31.

Which of the following is considered by many to be the most insidious type of pollution?

a)

land

b)

air

c)

noise

d)

water

32.

The louder the sound, great the

a)

frequency

b)

amplitude

c)

timbre

d)

pitch

33.

A constant buzzing or ringing in the ears is called

a)

sensorineural impact

b)

tinnitus

c)

threshold abridgment

d)

otitis media

34.

Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers and

a)

gate vales

b)

indirect waste piping

c)

air vents

d)

water meters

35.

The end of a waste pipe should terminate at least _ above the rim of the sink or receptacle directly connected to the drain system

a)

2 inches

b)

4 inches

c)

5 inches

d)

6 inches

36.

Vent gases combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form

a)

a glass-like glaze

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

sodium chloride

d)

sulfuric acid

37.

The muerto Canyon virus (MCV) is a hantavirus mainly carried by

a)

woodchucks

b)

beavers

c)

deer mice

d)

skunks

38.

Muerto canyon virus causes disease of the _ in humans

a)

lungs

b)

kidneys

c)

intestine

d)

brain

39.

The general administrative plan of an agency program provides the basis for

a)

a search warrant

b)

an administrative warrant

c)

a seizure

d)

none of the above

40.

Which amendment of the U.S. Constitution protects a nonpublic area from unreasonable searches and seizures?

a)

III

b)

IV

c)

V

d)

VI

41.

A standard for dishwashing that states that the "total bacteria count should not exceed on hundred per utensil surface," is an example of what type of objective?

a)

enforceable

b)

specification

c)

compliance

d)

performance

42.

Is the failure to perform an official duty without sufficient excuse

a)

malfeasance

b)

misfeasance

c)

nonfeasance

d)

nonfeasance or misfeasance

43.

An example of _ is closing down an establishment without first giving a required statutory notice

a)

malfeasance

b)

misfeasance

c)

nonfeasance

d)

nonfeasance or misfeasance

44.

is the doing of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner

a)

malfeasance

b)

misfeasance

c)

nonfeasance

d)

nonfeasance or misfeasance

45.

The random inspection approach

a)

averages out in the end

b)

fails to focus on recurring problem establishments

c)

is the most comprehensive

d)

alleviates staff shortages

46.

Environmental health regulatory staff must be _ first and foremost

a)

enforcers

b)

educators

c)

undergraduates

d)

legislators

47.

When an order has been ignored, the next step is to

a)

issue a second order

b)

hold an administrative hearing

c)

obtain a subpoena

d)

obtain a warrant

48.

When a business authority refuses consent to an inspection, the most appropriate action is to

a)

close down the business until it can be inspected

b)

return later with an inspection warrant obtained through an appropriate court

c)

request the objector to state in writing the reason for refusal

d)

ignore the objection and proceed with the inspection

49.

An individual's rights to be treated with at least a minimum of decency and fairness by governmental officials is guaranteed by the provision of

a)

states rights

b)

home rule

c)

equal protection

d)

due process

50.

In planning and implementing an environmental health investigation it is necessary to follow explicit procedure in an ordinance because

a)

this is the most efficient process

b)

such action is required by due process

c)

computer data processing techniques are enhanced

d)

such action is required by supervisory staff

51.

Which of the following is generally most useful as legal evidence

a)

a chronological summary of related events

b)

original field notes

c)

a photocopy of office records and correspondence

d)

a published report

52.

The term applied to certain incorporated towns or cities in which the state constitution or legislature gives them the right to formulate and adopt city charters and regulate their own affairs

a)

eminent domain

b)

ultra vires

c)

inherent law

d)

home rule

53.

What is the term given to organization wherin lines of authority and responsibility run upward and downward through several levels with a broad functional base at the bottom and a single executive head at the top

a)

chain of command

b)

scalar process

c)

under defined organization

d)

appellate system

54.

In order to achieve a conviction for failure to obey a violation order, which conditions must be satisfied?

a)

it must be shown that statutory authority for issuance of the order exists

b)

the defendant had notice of the order

c)

the defendant failed to heed the notice

d)

all of the above

55.

In legal terminology the power of condemnation is also known as

a)

eminent domain

b)

noscitur ad sociis

c)

law of nuisances

d)

judicial presumptions

56.

Under negligence law, the sanitarian owes the public a duty

a)

to act as a reasonable person

b)

to not hurt anyone

c)

to assist them in whatever manner possible

d)

to exercise high moral standard in the community

57.

Acid condensates, dust, soot, and smoke are considered

a)

Sulfur dioxides

b)

nitrogen oxides

c)

"naxes"

d)

particulate matter

58.

The most dangerous of the particulate air pollutants in terms of human health are

a)

dust

b)

aerosols

c)

pollens

d)

dirt

59.

National Ambient Air Quality Standards have been set for all of the following except

a)

carbon dioxides

b)

sulfur dioxides

c)

nitrogen oxide

d)

carbon monoxides

60.

Which of the following crops would probably be least affected by air pollution?

a)

peanuts

b)

potatoes

c)

soybeans

d)

cotton

61.

The greatest number of casualties as the result of air pollution occurred in

a)

Meuse River Valley, Belgium

b)

London, England

c)

Los Angels, CA

d)

Donora, PA

62.

Which of the following metals is most fatal to fish when it becomes dissolved in acid waters?

a)

manganese

b)

lead

c)

aluminum

d)

zinc

63.

In most areas, radon concentrations tend to be highest in

a)

summer

b)

spring

c)

fall

d)

winter

64.

The peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones are

a)

spring and fall

b)

summer and winter

c)

winter and spring

d)

fall and summer

65.

Rattus norvegicus is also referred to as the

a)

sewer rat

b)

norway rat

c)

house rat

d)

all of the above

66.

Rattus Rattus is also referred to as

a)

house rat

b)

norway rat

c)

roof rat

d)

all of the above

67.

The most widespread cockroach pest in restaurants is

a)

American

b)

Australian

c)

German

d)

Oriental

68.

Roaches are capable of spreading

a)

malaria

b)

rock mt spotted fever

c)

rabies

d)

salmonellosis

69.

The mosquito genus responsible for the transmission of malaria is

a)

Culex

b)

Aedes

c)

Plasmodium

d)

Anopheles

70.

The most prevalent arthropod-borne disease transmitted to humans in the US today is

a)

rabies

b)

plague

c)

malaria

d)

encephalitis

71.

The insect infestation on humans known as pediculosis is caused by

a)

fleas

b)

mites

c)

ticks

d)

lice

72.

The variety of rat most common in the US in urban environments is

a)

black rat

b)

brown rat

c)

roof rat

d)

white rat

73.

Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by

a)

bacteria

b)

vertebrates

c)

viruses

d)

fungi

74.

Which animal is the primary reservoir for the newly discovered Hantavirus

a)

cats

b)

dogs

c)

parrots

d)

deer mice

75.

A factor or agent which increases the risk of cancer is known as a

a)

teratogen

b)

mutagen

c)

carcinogen

d)

fomite

76.

In recent years the largest numbers of rabies cases were associated with

a)

skunks

b)

bats

c)

dogs

d)

raccoons

77.

The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the

a)

lag time

b)

susceptible period

c)

incubation period

d)

primary period

78.

In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of _ degrees

a)

30

b)

20

c)

80

d)

40

79.

Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in

a)

10 to 15 minutes at 80° C

b)

10 to 15 minutes at 80° F

c)

1 minute at 250° F

d)

10 to 15 minutes at 230° F

80.

Thawing a 16-pound turkey at 40° F will take a period of _ ?

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

about 3 days

d)

24 hours

81.

Which bacteria in large numbers can survive extended storage in cheddar cheese

a)

salmonella ssp

b)

brucella ssp

c)

shigella ssp

d)

clostridium perfringens

82.

Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of _ is recommended on work surfaces

a)

5 ft candles

b)

10 ft candles

c)

20 ft candles

d)

30 ft candles

83.

For custard-filled pies to be considered safe, they should be heated to

a)

190° F for ten minutes

b)

170° F for ten minutes

c)

180° F for ten minutes

d)

200° F for ten minutes

84.

Dry stored goods should be stored off the floor at least _ to prevent their contamination

a)

2 inch

b)

6 inch

c)

12 inch

d)

24 inch

85.

Practically all foods, whether canned, pickled, cured, or dried

a)

perish and become part of the phosphorous cycle

b)

are no longer sanitary after six months on the shelf

c)

will become unsanitary after eighteen months of storage

d)

deteriorate upon storage

86.

In a dry food storage room, the artificial lighting should provide a minimum of

a)

10 ft candle

b)

50 ft candle

c)

100 ft candle

d)

3 ft candle

87.

The final rinse water temperature at the manifold for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher should be

a)

180

b)

160

c)

175

d)

210

88.

The final rinse water temperature of a heat sanitizing ware washing machine should cause the surface of the dishes and utensils to reach which temp

a)

180° F

b)

160° F

c)

175° F

d)

210° F

89.

The permeability of soil is directly related to the _ of the soil

a)

chemical composition

b)

color and texture

c)

granular structure

d)

all of the above

90.

Grease traps are installed for the purpose of minimizing grease in the sewer system. The trap

a)

is not of proven value in many commercial applications

b)

requires yearly scheduled cleaning

c)

should be installed closed to the dishwashing machines

d)

should always discharge behind the septic tank

91.

Septic tanks serving commercial operations should be inspected for the need for cleaning

a)

once per month

b)

once per year

c)

twice per year

d)

every 3 to 5 years

92.

The detention time for wastewater in a septic tank is recommended to be

a)

6 to 12 hours

b)

24 to 72 hours

c)

1 week

d)

none of the above

93.

Why should sewage sludge not be used as a soil builder or fertilizer supplement for crops for forage if it has not been properly tested?

a)

it may make the vegetables taste bad

b)

it may result in higher levels of toxic metals in the vegetation and in the animals eating the vegetation

c)

the community may be offended at the smell

d)

all of the above

94.

Loam is a mixture of gravel, sand, silt, and clay containing what?

a)

highly toxic metals

b)

potassium and ammonium

c)

decayed plant and animal matter

d)

dirt

95.

What is the most common method of applying wastewater to land?

a)

waste stabilization pond

b)

land over-land flow

c)

spray irrigation

d)

wetland treatment

96.

Which of the following soils would be most suitable for subsurface absorption of wastewater

a)

a mottled brown and red soil

b)

a blue soil

c)

a greyish soil

d)

a yellow, brown, or red soil

97.

What two factors determine the groundwater contamination potential from a septic tank

a)

size of tank and depth to groundwater

b)

contaminants in tank and soil characteristics

c)

permeability of septic tank materials and soil characteristics

d)

soil characteristics and depth to ground water

98.

Detention time for septic tanks should be not less than

a)

24 hr

b)

8 hr

c)

12 hr

d)

36 hr

99.

The scientific name of a certain microorganism is Clostridium perfringens. The second word of this name indicates the

a)

class

b)

genus

c)

phylum

d)

species

100.

In the environmental planning of a rural subdivision, what basic information would you utilize in determining if both individual water and sewage systems could be placed on each home site?

a)

the state sanitary code

b)

the size of the septic tank

c)

depth of the water wells

d)

size of the lot