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CHAPTER 07 1430.16G

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What topic does Chapter Seven of the Advancement Manual for Enlisted personnel of U.s Navy and U.s reserve cover?

a)

FMS computation tables

b)

effecting advancement/change in rate or rating

c)

ordering substitute exam

d)

Navy leadership development course completion requirements for all pay grades

2.

What chapter of the advancement manual for enlisted personnel of U.S Navy Reserve provides guidance and procedures for effecting advancements and change in rate for rating?

a)

5

b)

8

c)

7

d)

3

3.

There are_ annual advancement cycles for E-4 though E-6 candidates and _ annual advancement cycle for E-7 through E-9 candidates.

a)

three/three

b)

two/one

c)

two/two

d)

six/one

4.

What are effective months for E-4/E-5/E-6 Advancement cycles?

a)

1 July-30 June

b)

1 January-30 June and 1 July-31 December

c)

1 September -31 August

d)

1 February-30 July

5.

What are the effective months for the E-7 advancement cycle?

a)

1 September-31 August

b)

1 July-31 December

c)

1 January-30 June

d)

1 July-30 June

6.

What are the effective months for E-8/E-9 Advancement cycle/

a)

1 July-30 June

b)

1 January-30 June

c)

1 September-31 August

d)

1 July-31 December

7.

E\Results for advancement to pay grade E-4 through e-9 are available online to educational services officer(ESO) on which of the following websites?

a)

Navy enlisted advancement system(NEAS)

b)

Navy education and training command

c)

Naval personnel development command

d)

Manpower training and education(MPTE) center

8.

Effective advancement dates are issued on all but which of the following?

a)

Advancement Exam Readiness Review(AERR)

b)

Examination Status Verification report(ESVR)

c)

Rate change authorization (RCA)

d)

Profile sheet

9.

Upon conclusion of the E-8/E09 selection boards, an official list of personnel selected for advancement will be published by the Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP) via what means?

a)

Advancement exam rating review panels types commanders(TYCOM)

b)

Standards Naval Letter

c)

Naval administrative message(NAVADMINs)

d)

Naval education and training command Website

10.

To reports the name of personnel whose names should but do not appear on the examination status verification report (ESVR) To the Naval education and training professional development center(NETPDC)(n321)all but which of the following information should be provides?

a)

Examination rate

b)

Present rate

c)

Social Security Number

d)

Candidates full name

11.

What does the acronym DSPG stand for on an examination status verification report(ESVR)?

a)

Defense special projects group

b)

Drill service in pay grade

c)

Defense standard procedures guide

d)

Drill service in processing group

12.

What does the acronym SIPG stand for on an Examination status verification (ESVR)?

a)

Service in permanet grade

b)

Sign and initial policy guide

c)

Signal and imagine processing group

d)

Service in pay grade

13.

What does the acronym GRP stands for on an examination status verification report (ESVR)?

a)

Guided reenlistment program

b)

Gender Recgnition program

c)

Competitive group

d)

Group

14.

What does the acronym AW stand for on an Examination status verification report (ESVR)?

a)

Award and individuals augments points(E4 through E6 only)

b)

Aviation Antisubmarine Warfare Operator

c)

Airlift Wing

d)

Air Warfare

15.

What does the acronym INVAL -INSUFF TIR stand for on Examination Status verification report(ESVR)?

a)

Advancement cycle Invalidate ,the advancment withheld because of activity request

b)

Advancement cycle invalidated ,the advancement withheld because of trainee integrated ratings

c)

Advancement cycle invalidated, the candidates has insufficient time in rate

d)

Advancement cycle invalidate , the advancement withheld because of tender information request

16.

What does the acronym INVAL-ADV withheld stand for on an Examination status verification report(ESVR)?

a)

Advancement cycle invalidated.Advancement withheld because activity request

b)

Advancement cycle invalidated.Candidate lacks required school

c)

Invalid Advantage Withheld Advancement cycle invalidated.Candidate participated in a Navy-wide advancement examination outside the normal path of advancement .

17.

What does the FAIL stand for on an Examination status verification reports(ESVR)Examination

a)

Candidates was advanced as a results a previous advanced cycle

b)

Scored below the minimum required raw score

c)

Advancement cycle invalidated

d)

Did not achieve sufficient Navy-wide advancement examination standard score(SS& IT:37) to be authorized lateral change of rate

18.

What does the Acronym INVAL-MVR DECLINED ADV stand for on an Examination status verification report (ESVR)?

a)

advancement cycle invalidated. Advancement withheld because of activity request

b)

Advancement cycle invalidated.Candidade declined advancement

c)

Advancement cycle invalidated .Candidate has insufficient time in rate

d)

Scored below the minimum required raw score

19.

What does the acronym REL FROM DUTY stand for on an examination status verification report (ESVR)?

a)

Advancement cycle invalidated .Advancement withheld because of activity request

b)

Advancement cycle invalidated .Candidate has insufficient time in rate.

c)

Released from service,Candidate declined advancement

d)

Released from service, wither reserve or active duty.

20.

What does the acronym FMS COMP PENDING stand for on an examination status verification report (ESVR)?

a)

mismatch in examination record. Results will be posted upon correction.

b)

Candidate has insufficient time in rate

c)

Advancement cycle invalidate.Candidate declined advancement

d)

Released from service, either reserve or active duty.

21.

What does the acronym SCHOOL REQUIRED stand for on an examination status verification report(ESVR)?

a)

Mismatch in examination record

b)

Candidate has participated in a Navy-wide advancement examination outside their normal path of advancement

c)

Candidate lacks a required school

d)

advancement cycle invalidate.Candidates took an advancement exam they were not eligible for .

22.

What does the acronym WRONG PATH ADV stand for on an Examination Status Verification Report(ESVR)?

a)

Candidate has participated in a Navy-wide advancement examination outside their normal path of advancement

b)

No performance mark average was recorded on answer sheet or performance mark is out range

c)

Mismatch in examination record .Results will be posted upon correction

d)

Candidates lacks a required school

23.

Which of the following is not provided for Navy-wide advancement examination candidates in a Fail status?

a)

Raw score cut value

b)

Automatic profile sheet update notifications

c)

Profile sheets

d)

Final Multiple score(FMS)

24.

How will personnel who have recently obtained citizenship or completed a satisfactory background investigation(BI) appear on the examination status verification report(ESVR)?

a)

Foreign Nat Hold

b)

Foreign Citizenship

c)

Citizenship UNK

d)

Citizenship Pending

25.

What is the corrective action for "CITIZENSHIP UNK" discrepancy during an advancement cycle?

a)

Candidates may be cleared ONLY by a report of United States Citizenship sent directly to Naval development center(NETPDC)

b)

Contact Naval Education and Training professional development center(NETPDC) (N321) for corrective action

c)

Command must generate a citizenship status wavier

d)

Correct citizenship status of candidates in Navy Standard Integrated personnel system(NSIPS)

26.

Which article of the Uniform code of military justice provides provisions for members to submit a complaint against a superior officer?

a)

147

b)

138

c)

72

d)

134

27.

Under which article of the U.S Navy regulations may a member petition Board for correction of Naval records(BCNR)?

a)

1284

b)

1126

c)

1325

d)

1083

28.

What is the form number fo an application for correction of military record?

a)

DD Form 136

b)

DD Form 149

c)

DD Form 182

d)

DD Form 132

29.

If a member believes that the withholding or withdrawal of their advancement is inaccurate,unjust,or wrongly submitted, which article of the U.S Navy Regulations provides authority to request mast, where questions may be raised with the commanding officer?

a)

1126

b)

1132

c)

1050

d)

1151

30.

If a member has taken an E-4 through E-7 Navy-wide advancement examination, the advancement results have not been published, and a recommendation is withdrawn, to whom should an e-mail notification be sent ?

a)

Navy college management information system (NCMIS)

b)

Naval education and training center

c)

Naval education and training professional development center(NETPDC)

d)

Educational services services officer(ESO)

31.

What is the dole means of withdrawing a member's recommendation for advancement?

a)

An evolution

b)

Administrative withdrawal

c)

Navy standard integrated system (NSIPS)Transcation

d)

Administrative remarks

32.

Who may withdraw a recommendation for advancement at any time prior to the advancement effective date it the member is determined to no longer qualify for advancement?

a)

Naval Personnel Command

b)

04 and above

c)

a commanding officer or officer in charge

d)

department head of E3 and below

33.

Personnel in a deserter or unauthorized absence status shall not be advanced ;Commanding officer or officer must withhold advancements utilizing which of the following forms?

a)

DD Form 336/07

b)

OPNAV1420/213

c)

DD Form 149

d)

Navpers 1070/613

34.

Sailor reduced in rank to e-3 by non-judicial punishment for minor offenses as outlined in Article 15 of the uniform Code of military justice can be eligible for reinstatement to E-4 after what timeframe?

a)

3 months

b)

1 year

c)

6 months

d)

9 months

35.

Reinstatement to E-4 after nonjudicial punishment is at the discretion of the current commanding officer and does not automatically occur after what timeframe?

a)

6 months

b)

3 months

c)

9 months

d)

1 year

36.

To reinstate a command-withheld advancement commanding officers or officers in charge must notify which of the following via-email?

a)

Electronic Military personnel records system

b)

Advancement exam readiness review

c)

Naval education and training professional development center(N231)

d)

Manpower personnel and training information system

37.

If the member refuses to sign adverse evaluation, how will the signature block be annotated?

a)

Member notified but refused to sign

b)

Member refused to sign

c)

Member refused to sign-certified copy provided

d)

Certified copy provided

38.

A recommendation of s temporary delay is an administrative action otherwise known as_.

a)

Withholding

b)

Administrative Hold

c)

Withdrawing

d)

Stay

39.

A recommendation of a permanent action is an administrative action otherwise known as _.

a)

Administrative hold

b)

Delayed action

c)

Withdrawing

d)

Withholding

40.

If a member has their advancement withheld, they have a right to redress as provided under what article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice?

a)

142

b)

131

c)

146

d)

138

41.

Who has discretionary authority to effect authorized advancements of member who are in a disciplinary status?

a)

Commanding officers or officers in charge

b)

Naval education and training command

c)

Naval education and training professional development center

d)

Navy personnel command

42.

Which of the following nuclear-trained sailors do not need to have an active enlisted classification in order to take the advancement exam?

a)

E6

b)

E5

c)

E4

d)

E3

43.

Which of the following personnel are eligible for advancement?

a)

Prisoners of war/missing personnel

b)

Personnel in a limited duty status

c)

Personnel in a retired status ,including disability retirements

d)

Personnel in a deserter or unauthorized absence (UA) Status

44.

What is the maximum time-in-grade wavier that may be submitted to Navy personnel command (PERS-836/913)with an application for transfer to the fleet reserve or retired reserve?

a)

6 months

b)

2 years

c)

18 months

d)

1 year

45.

What is the E-7 to E-9 time-in-grade requirement for transfer to the Fleet Reserve/Retired Reserve at the current pay grade?

a)

3 years

b)

2 years

c)

4 years

d)

1 year

46.

Members who have completed how many years or more of active service who are placed on the active-duty retired list prior serving two years time-in-grade will be allowed to retire at th higher pay grade?

a)

30

b)

26

c)

24

d)

28

47.

The advancement cycle discrepancy performance mark error is generated when the performance mark average section of the answer sheet is blank, too low,or greater than which of the following?

a)

3.25

b)

3.50

c)

2.00

d)

4.00

48.

Which of the following provides the candidate with information to the Navy-wide advancement examination(NWAE) performance as compared with other candidates who took the same NWAE?

a)

The bibliography for advancement

b)

The advancement determination

c)

Then advancement quotas

d)

The profile sheet

49.

Following each advancement cycle ,a profile sheet for all E-4 through E-9 candidates will be available online for what timeframe?

a)

18 months

b)

2 years

c)

4 years

d)

10 years

50.

PNA (Passed Not Advanced) points are creditable to what number of advancement cycles in a single pay-grade?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

51.

What maximum number Pass Not Advanced (PNA) points may a candidate receive from one advancement cycle?

a)

2 1/2

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

52.

What maximum number Pass not advanced (PNA) points may a candidate receive from all available advancement cycles?

a)

15

b)

10

c)

18

d)

20

53.

How many award points will a sailor who is competing for advancement to pay grades E-4 through E-6 awarded for an accredited associates degree?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

54.

How many award points will a sailor who is competing for advancement to pay grades E-4 through E-6 awarded for an accredited baccalaureate degree?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

55.

Education points for multiple degree are not cumulative; how many points is the maximum that will be awarded to candidates for an advancement cycle?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

1

d)

2

56.

Sailors must ensure transcripts with degree information are fowarded directly from their academic institution to which of the following to ensure that educational award points are credited to the advancement cycle?

a)

Joint service transcript operations(OPS) Center

b)

Performance Summary Record ,Part 1

c)

Naval education and training command

d)

Navy Standard Integrated personnel system

57.

Advancements to pay grade E-2/E-3 are automatically posted on what day of the month?

a)

15th

b)

16th

c)

1st

d)

30th

58.

To delay advancement ,prepare which of the following forms and notify Navy Personnel Command(PERS-8030 by e-mail prior to the prospective advancement date?

a)

DD From 158

b)

NAVPERS 1070/607

c)

DD Form 149

d)

NAVPERS 1070/613

59.

Sailors may petition the Immediate superior in command of the unit after what timeframe from the date of reduction to E-3 if the commanding office has not granted restoration?

a)

6 months

b)

9 months

c)

30 days

d)

12 months

60.

Advancement authority expires with the limiting date for the respective advancement cycle ;what is limiting date E-4,E-5,AND E-6 personnel for February/March advancement cycle?

a)

30 June of the next year

b)

28 June of next year

c)

31 December of the same year

d)

31 August of the Next year

61.

Advancement authority expires with the limiting date for the respective advancement cycle; what is the limiting date for E-4,E-5,and E-6 personnel for the August/September advancement cycle?

a)

31 December of the same year

b)

30 June of the next year

c)

31 August of the next year

d)

30 September of the next year

62.

Advancement authority expires with the limiting date for the respective advancement cycle:what is the limiting date for E-7 PERSONNEL?

a)

28 June of the next year

b)

30 June of the next year

c)

31 December of the same year

d)

31 August of the year

63.

Advancement authority expires with the limiting date for the respective advancement cycle; what is the limiting date for e-8 and e-9 personnel?

a)

31 August of the next year

b)

31 December of the same year

c)

30 June of the next year

d)

30 June of the same year

64.

For all the other Career Intermission Program participation in a selectee status ,Advancement will be effective on what day of the month following the date return to the component status previously held?

a)

15th

b)

1st

c)

16th

d)

last

65.

For those non-select Career intermission program(CIP) Candidates retuning with pat pass not advanced (PNA) points, credit will be granted for the PNA points for up to how many advancement cycles administered in the pay grade not to include the advancement cycle missed during CIP Participation?

a)

7

b)

5

c)

4

d)

3

66.

To calculate performance Mark average for an E-4 advancement candidates who returned from Career Intermission Program(CIP) and participated in a Navy-wide advancement examination ,use all evaluation in the current pay grade that cover the proscribed period required, to include Evaluations how many months prior to the CIP period?

a)

12 months

b)

10 months

c)

9 months

d)

15 months

67.

To calculate the performance Mark Average for an E-5 advancement candidate who returned from Career Intermission Program(CIP) and participated in a Navy-wide advancement examination, use all evaluations in the current pay grade that cover the proscribed on how many months prior to the CIP period?

a)

9 months

b)

20 months

c)

36 months

d)

15 months

68.

To calculated the performance mark Average for an E-6 advancement candidate who returned from career intermission program (CIP) and participated in a Navy-wide advancement examination ,use all evaluations in the current pay grade that cover the proscribed periods required, including evaluations how many months prior to the CIP period

a)

15 months

b)

36 months

c)

18 months

d)

9 months

69.

To calculate the performance mark average for an E-7 advancements candidates who returned from career intermission program(CIP) and participated in a Navy-wide advancement examination ,use all evaluations in the current pay grade that cover the proscribed periods required, including evaluations how many months prior to the CIP period:

a)

24 months

b)

36 months

c)

12 months

d)

18 months

70.

Eligibility for the first available regularly scheduled E-8 or E-9 selection board requires wavier candidates to return from career intermission program at least how far in advance of the election board convening date?

a)

9 months

b)

6 months

c)

3 months

d)

1 month

71.

Which of the following Navy personnel command departments will track E-8 and E-9 selection board eligible candidates in the Career Intermission Program database and indicate the date of return to a component status previously held?

a)

PERS-823

b)

PERS-9

c)

PERS-93

d)

PERS-803

72.

What topic does chapter seven of the Advancement Manual for Enlisted personnel of U.S Navy and U.S Navy reserve cover?

a)

Ordering substitute exams

b)

Navy leadership development course completion requirements for all paygrades

c)

Final Multiple Score(FMS)Computation tables

d)

Effecting advancement/charge in Rate or Rating

73.

Eligibility for the first available regularly scheduled E-7 selection board requires candidates to return from Career intermission program(CIP) at least how in advance of the selection board's convening date?

a)

2 months

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

1 month

74.

Commanding officers and officers in charge may frock enlisted personnel in accordance with which of the following Navy Military Personnel Manual articles?

a)

1420-060

b)

1490-100

c)

1432-020

d)

1430-010

75.

Personnel who desire to have their advancement results rescinded prior to the effective date of advancement are required to complete which of the following forms?

a)

NAVPERS 1070/880

b)

NAVPERS 1070/607

c)

NAVPERS 1070/613

d)

NAVPERS 1070/604

76.

An advanced member who desire to transfer to Fleet Reserve or Retired Reserve(Non-regular retirement)prior to completing how Many years time in grade(TIG) must be reverted to the former pay grade?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

2

d)

4

77.

What determines the effective advancement date for members selected for advancement to pay grades E-4 through E-6 ?

a)

The seniority of the member within the competitive group

b)

The member's final multiple scores (FMS) rank within the same rating/competitive group

c)

The quota available for each date

d)

The date of the advancement examination

78.

What determines the effective advancement date for members selected for advancement to pay grade E7 through E9?

a)

The member's seniority in pay grade within the same rating/Competitive group

b)

The advancement date for E-7 is set at 1 September for calendar year and E-8s and E-9s are at 1 July for the calendar year

c)

The members time in pay grade

d)

The member's score on the advancement examination

79.

How long must a sailor's who has been reduced in rank from E-4 to E-3 by non-juicidal punishment wait before becoming eligible for reinstatement to E-4

a)

six months

b)

three months

c)

18 months

d)

12 months

80.

If an administrative error precludes the advancement of a members to E-3 on the earlist date on which the candidates is fully qualified ,the advancement may be established as of the date the member would have been advanced had the error not occurred,provided the backdating does not under any circumstance exceed what timeframe?

a)

30 Days

b)

12 months

c)

45 days

d)

6 months

81.

All but which of the following personnel may be advanced if otherwise qualified?

a)

Personnel on limited duty

b)

Reservists in a transient personnel unit (TPU)

c)

Personnel receiving medical treatment as a result of their own statement misconduct

d)

Personnel awaiting action of a physical evaluation or reevaluation board

82.

Which of the following statements is true if an individuals has Career Waypoints(C-way) approval on 31 January 2022 to be released Reserve active duty and enter the Selected Reserve (SELRES) on 30 April 2022?

a)

the member will take the Regular Navy-wide advancement exam in March

b)

The member will need to take a late exam upon entry into Selected Reserve (SELRES)

c)

The member will not be eligible to take the Navy-wide Advancement exam in march

d)

The member will takes the Selected Reserve (SELRES)Navy-wide Advancement Exam in March

83.

What branch Naval Personnel Command will an E-7 selectee changing branch components before their effective date of advancement need to contact request retention of that status in the new branch?

a)

910

b)

609

c)

803

d)

733

84.

If an individual selected for advancement changes class component and has a break in service less than how many months and advancement date has not been affected, the individual may contact PERS-803 to have their advancement affected in their new class component?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

3

d)

18

85.

If an individual has a break in service greater than how many months or the limiting date of the cycle has passed, they may still request an advancement determination from PERS-803 provided they are affiliated within one year of separation?

a)

8

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

86.

A selected reserve (SELRES) Sailor must have satisfactory drilling participation and be within how many months of the date release from active duty(RELACDU) before submitting a request for advancement determination?

a)

12 months

b)

18 months

c)

6 months

d)

3 months

87.

A selected reserve (SELRES)Sailor must have satisfactory drilling participation, be within 12 months of the date of release from active duty (RELACDU),and be within how many months of the date of affliction in the reserves before submitting a request for advancement determination?

a)

18

b)

6

c)

24

d)

12

88.

All but which of the following information should be included in a request of advancement determination?

a)

Months and year of last advancement cycle

b)

Unit to which attached

c)

Examination rate

d)

Location of examinstion

89.

All but which of the following information should be included in a request of advancement determination?

a)

Months and year of last advancement cycle

b)

Unit to which attached

c)

Examination rate

d)

Location of examinstion