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Introduction to Parliamentary Procedure

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one of the following motions is not a motion to bring a question again before the assembly?

a)

ratify

b)

amend something previously adopted

c)

rescind

d)

reconsider

2.

A motion that has been postponed to a certain time...

a)

is in the same condition at a later session as it was before postponement except that any limitation on debate is exhausted

b)

cannot be reconsidered

c)

can be called up by the motion to take from the table

d)

cannot again be postponed

3.

Incorporation by a society is advisable for all of the following reasons except for...

a)

exemption from tax and revenue laws

b)

the right to inherit property

c)

obtaining and holding property

d)

the capability to sue or be sued

4.

Fix the time to which to adjourn...

a)

is always a privileged motion

b)

does not affect when the present meeting will adjourn

c)

is out of order when there is no meeting scheduled later in the same session

d)

is out of order at an adjourned meeting

5.

While a main motion is pending, a member who voted with the prevailing side moves to reconsider the vote on a motion that was adopted during the same meeting. The motion to reconsider is seconded. The chair should now...

a)

instruct the secretary to enter the motion to reconsider in the minutes

b)

request a motion to lay the motion to reconsider on the table

c)

take a vote on whether to enter the motion to reconsider on the minutes

d)

state the motion to reconsider as pending

6.

When the assigned time for taking up a topic in an agenda arrives, the chair announce that fact. Then he puts to a vote any pending questions without allowing further debate unless...

a)

someone immediately moves to amend by substitution

b)

they are debatable questions

c)

the debate relates to an urgent matter

d)

someone immediately moves to lay the question on the table

7.

A vacancy in a committee is filled by

a)

the president only

b)

the appointing power

c)

the person who is vacating the position

d)

the committee members

8.

A member who wishes to avoid a direct vote on a question might move any of the following EXCEPT...

a)

division of a question

b)

objection to the consideration of the question

c)

leave to withdraw a motion

d)

postpone indefinitely

9.

Which one of the following motions will no longer adhere if laid on the table with a main motion at one session and subsequently taken from the table during the next session?

a)

postpone indefinitely

b)

postpone to a certain time, if taken from the table before the time of the proposed postponement

c)

previous question

d)

commit or refer

10.

Special committees of the assembly...

a)

are always appointed "with power"

b)

are dissolved at the close of the annual meeting

c)

may make a partial report

d)

may be discharged by the board

11.

During the proceedings of a committee...

a)

the committee may adopt its own rules

b)

the motion to reconsider is not in order

c)

the chairman has the right to debate, but not make motions

d)

motions to close or limit debate are generally not allowed

12.

On a question of direct personal interest, a member...

a)

must send out notice prior to the meeting that he will abstain

b)

should abstain from voting on the motion

c)

always votes if the vote is by ballot

d)

can be compelled to refrain from voting by the other members

13.

A motion within the control of the assembly, because it has not been finally disposed of, may be renewed if...

a)

more than a quarterly time interval will elapse before the next regular session

b)

voted on and a motion to reconsider made but not called up

c)

postponed to the next session

d)

laid on the table

14.

The motion to reconsider does NOT apply to...

a)

the vote on a motion that can be renewed at a reasonable time

b)

all the answers are correct

c)

any vote that has caused something to be done that is impossible to undo

d)

an affirmative vote whose provisions have been partly carried out

15.

Active FBLA members must be all of the following except...

a)

enrolled in business and/or business-related fields

b)

accept the purpose of FBLA

c)

be secondary student

d)

currently contributing to good school-community relations

16.

The affairs and property of FBLA are managed by the...

a)

advisory council

b)

executive council

c)

board of directors

d)

CEO

17.

Which one of the following states is not a part of the Mountain Plains Region?

a)

South Dakota

b)

Missouri

c)

New Mexico

d)

Nebraska

18.

A main motion yields to...

a)

a motion to bring a question again before the assembly

b)

the motion to ratify

c)

all applicable secondary motions

d)

all answers are correct

19.

Which statement is true?

a)

Incidental motions have an assigned position in the order of precedence of motions

b)

There are twelve ranking motions

c)

More than one secondary motion may be pending at a time

d)

There are four classes of secondary motions

20.

The fiscal year of the Future Business Leaders of America shall be...

a)

June 1 through May 31

b)

August 1 through July 30

c)

January 1 through December 31

d)

July 1 through June 30

21.

In addition to active members, the bylaws provide for...

a)

professional, honorary life, and national honorary life

b)

professional, state honorary life, and national honorary life

c)

alumni, honorary life, and state honorary life

d)

alumni, state honorary life, and national honorary life

22.

The official emblem and insignia item designs are described and protected from infringement by registration in the U.S. Patent Office under the Trademark Act of which year?

a)

1946

b)

1948

c)

1962

d)

1966

23.

The officer candidates must be certified by the...

a)

CEO

b)

National Executive Council

c)

board of directors

d)

Officer Screening Committee

24.

Which one of these subsidiary motions has no corresponding incidental main motion?

a)

limit or extend limits of debate

b)

commit or refer

c)

postpone indefinitely

d)

previous question

25.

A motion to censure the action of an officer...

a)

is not amendable

b)

opens the entire question to debate

c)

is not debatable

d)

may not be reconsidered

26.

The adoption of the motion to postpone indefinitely...

a)

allows the main motion to be brought up again at the business meeting the next day during a convention

b)

suppresses the main motion for all future meetings

c)

kills the main motion for the duration of the session

d)

allows the action to be renewed after intervening business has transpired

27.

To amend something previously adopted is...

a)

an incidental motion

b)

an incidental main motion

c)

an original main motion

d)

a subsidiary motion

28.

Which one of the following motions can be made without a time limit?

a)

take from the table

b)

reconsider

c)

discharge a committee

d)

rescind

29.

When dissolving a society, which of the following is not required?

a)

holding a public hearing

b)

disposal of assets in accordance with state and federal tax laws

c)

adoption of a resolution of dissolution

d)

the same notice and vote as are required to amend the bylaws

30.

Which of the following statements, concerning a member's right to speak and vote, is correct?

a)

a member may vote and speak as he chooses so long as his debate is germane

b)

a member may not speak against his own motion unless through amendment it becomes a different question

c)

a speaker is required to speak for his motion

d)

a member may vote for or against his motion

31.

There are ___ elected FBLA National Officers?

a)

5

b)

9

c)

7

d)

8

32.

Three voting delegates represent a chapter membership of...

a)

over 100 members

b)

50-99 members

c)

51-100 members

d)

50-100 members

33.

A member who falls in arrears in the payment of his dues...

a)

automatically loses the right to make motions

b)

does not lose the right to vote unless the bylaws so provide

c)

automatically loses the right to attend meetings

d)

is under a disciplinary suspension

34.

If the society is to have an executive committee, the full boars is usually designated as the...

a)

board of directors

b)

board of trustees

c)

board of management

d)

executive board

35.

The hour at which meetings are to be held should...

a)

be specified in the standing rules

b)

be specified in the special rules of order

c)

be specified in the bylaws

d)

not be specified in any document

36.

A motion is recorded in the minutes as...

a)

it was stated by the maker

b)

the wording was improved by the chairman

c)

it was put by the chair finally before being voted on by the assembly

d)

approved by the seconder

37.

Proposed action on an emergency issue may be approved by members of a board by...

a)

only a vote in a meeting, a quorum being present

b)

absentee vote

c)

individual contact by telephone

d)

individual interview of every member of the board

38.

The teller's report...

a)

should not count illegal votes in the number of votes cast

b)

is entered in the minutes with only the names of the elected candidstes listed

c)

should include the number of members eligible to vote

d)

is entered in full in the minutes

39.

If a society has an executive board, the board...

a)

can set its own powers and responsibilities

b)

cannot have staggered terms for its members

c)

must be provided for in the bylaws

d)

is composed of only the elected officers

40.

If several general orders are made for the same time, they are considered...

a)

in alphabetical order

b)

by voting for the order in which they are to be considered (filling blanks)

c)

in an order determined by the chair

d)

in the order in which they are made

41.

By a single vote, a series of special orders or general orders--or a mixture of both--can be made; and such a series is called...

a)

a regular order of business

b)

a series of primary amendments

c)

an agenda

d)

secondary amendments

42.

If the chair assigns the floor to the wrong person when preference in recognition was timely claimed by another member...

a)

a point of order should be raised

b)

an appeal should be made

c)

the member to whom the floor was assigned must be allowed to speak

d)

an objection to the consideration of the question should be made

43.

Which one of the following motions may be reconsidered?

a)

Take a recess

b)

Fix the time to which to adjourn

c)

Division of a question

d)

Close nominations

44.

The chair may make the motion to...

a)

object to the consideration of the question

b)

reconsider

c)

postpone indefinitely

d)

amend

45.

An adjournment of a mass meeting is...

a)

used only to terminate the session

b)

never open to debate or amendment

c)

in order at any time during the session

d)

used to dissolve the assembly, unless a time has been set for another meeting

46.

The FBLA fiscal year shall be...

a)

June 30 to July 1

b)

April 1 to March 31

c)

January 1 to December 31

d)

July 1 to June 30

47.

FBLA state chapter charters shall be issued upon the approval of the...

a)

board of directors

b)

advisory council

c)

national executive council

d)

national officers

48.

A prospective officer candidate must file an official application with the association president by...

a)

April 15

b)

June 1

c)

May 15

d)

May 1

49.

The National Leadership Conference site is recommend by...

a)

FBLA-PBL national officers

b)

the National Executive Council

c)

National Staff

d)

Advisory Council

50.

The official emblem and insignia item designs are protected by the U.S. Patent Office under the Trademark Act of...

a)

1945

b)

1947

c)

1948

d)

1946

51.

Article X of the FBLA Bylaws describes...

a)

National Executive Council

b)

parliamentary authority

c)

committees

d)

emblems and colors

52.

In the standard order of business, new business comes...

a)

immediately after reports of officers

b)

after unfinished business and general orders

c)

immediately following the reading of the minutes

d)

at the discretion of the President

53.

A motion is open to debate when...

a)

the motion has been stated by the chair

b)

a member has made the motion

c)

the majority of the assembly indicates it wishes the motion to be debated

d)

the motion is seconded

54.

The maker of a motion...

a)

has the right to speak first in debate on the motion

b)

must speak first in debate

c)

may speak three times on the motion

d)

may assign his right to speak first to another member

55.

Unless there is a rule to the contrary, a member may speak...

a)

as many times necessary to explain their debate

b)

once during the same day

c)

twice on the same question on the same day

d)

twice during the same day

56.

Subsidiary motions...

a)

are all debatable

b)

are of higher rank than incidental motions

c)

assist the assembly in disposing of a main motion

d)

do not require a second

57.

With a main motion pending and a motion to amend being debated, which one of the following motions would be out of order?

a)

Lay on the Table

b)

Limit or Extend Limits of Debate

c)

Postpone Indefinitely

d)

Main Motion

58.

The purpose of FBLA is to provide, as an integral part of the instructional program, additional opportunities for secondary students (grades ___) in business and/or business-related fields to develop vocational and career supportive competencies and to promote civic and personal responsibilities.

a)

7-12

b)

6-12

c)

9-12

d)

5-12

59.

The fiscal year of the Future Business Leaders of America shall be...

a)

July 1 through June 30

b)

June 1 through May 31

c)

August 1 through July 30

d)

January 1 through December 31

60.

To delay consideration of the main motion until the next regular meeting, a member would move to...

a)
Postpone Indefinitely
b)

Lay on the Table

c)

Postpone to a Certain Time

d)

Limit or Extend Limits of Debate

61.

The four basic principles of parliamentary law are all EXCEPT....

a)

Liberty and Justice for all

b)

One item of business at a time

c)

The minority must be heard

d)

The majority must prevail

62.

Order of business for a meeting

a)

Amendment

b)

Acclamation

c)

Agenda

d)

Minutes

63.

An oral, or voice, vote

a)

Acclamation

b)

Affirmative

c)

Adjourn

d)

Amendment

64.

"For" or "yes" vote

a)

Adjourn

b)

Pending

c)

Affirmative

d)

Division

65.

to end the meeting

a)

Adjourn

b)

Pending

c)

Previous Question

d)

Plurality

66.

person presiding over a meeting

a)

Chair

b)

Parliamentarian

c)

Quorum

d)

Majority

67.

discussion for or against the motion

a)

Debate

b)

Division

c)

Pending

d)

Methods of Voting

68.

when a member disagrees with a voice and calls for a counted vote; does not require a second

a)

Gavel

b)

Pending

c)

Division

d)

Pending

69.

a tool for calling the meeting to order

a)

Majority

b)

Sword

c)

Gavel

d)

Hammer

70.

if there are no objections, passing a motion without debate or vote

a)

Majority

b)

General Unanimous Consent

c)

Point of Order

d)

Previous Question

71.

over half of the votes cast; sometimes called simple majority (which is 50 percent plus 1)

a)

Minority

b)

Majority

c)

Variety

d)

Quorum

72.

Which region is Washington in?

a)

Mountain Plains Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Southern Region

73.

Which region is Oregon in?

a)

Mountain Plains Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Southern Region

74.

Which region is California in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

Western Region

75.

Which region is Nevada in?

a)

Western Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Eastern Region

d)

Southern Region

76.

Which region is Montana in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

Western Region

77.

Which region is Utah in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

Western Region

d)

North Central Region

78.

Which region is Idaho in?

a)

Western Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

Mountain Plains Region

d)

Eastern Region

79.

Which region is Alaska in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

Western Region

c)

North Central Region

d)

Eastern Region

80.

Which region is Arizona in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

Western Region

81.

Which region is Hawaii in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

South Central Region

d)

Western Region

82.

Which region is North Dakota in?

a)

Western Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Mountain Plains Region

d)

Eastern Region

83.

Which region is South Dakota in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

Mountain Plains Region

84.

Which region is Wyoming in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Western Region

d)

North Central Region

85.

Which region is Nebraska in?

a)

Mountain Plains Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

Western Region

d)

North Central Region

86.

Which region is Colorado in?

a)

Eastern Regions

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

North Central Region

d)

Western Region

87.

Which region is Kansas in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Mountain Plains Region

d)

Southern Region

88.

Which region is Oklahoma in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

Western Region

c)

Mountain Plains Region

d)

North Central Region

89.

Which region is New Mexico in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Eastern Region

90.

Which region is Texas in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

Eastern Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Mountain Plains Region

91.

Which region is Minnesota in?

a)

North Central Region

b)

Eastern Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

Western Region

92.

Which region is Iowa in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

North Central Region

d)

Western Region

93.

Which region is Missouri in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Eastern Region

94.

Which region is Illinois in?

a)

North Central Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Mountain Plains Region

95.

Which region is Indiana in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

North Central Region

96.

Which region is Michigan in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

North Central Region

d)

Western Region

97.

Which region is Ohio in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

Eastern Region

c)

North Central Region

d)

Western Region

98.

Which region is Wisconsin in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Eastern Region

d)

Western Region

99.

Which region is Kentucky in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

Eastern Region

c)

Mountain Plains Region

d)

North Central Region

100.

Which region is West Virginia in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Eastern Region

d)

Western Region

101.

Which region is Virginia in?

a)

North Central Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Eastern Region

102.

Which region is Tennessee in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

Western Region

103.

Which region is North Carolina in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Mountain Plains Region

d)

Southern Region

104.

Which region is South Carolina in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

Mountain Plains Region

d)

Western Region

105.

Which region is Arkansas in?

a)

Mountain Plains Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Eastern Region

d)

Southern Region

106.

Which region is Louisiana in?

a)

Mountain Plains Region

b)

Southern Region

c)

North Central Region

d)

Eastern Region

107.

Which region is Mississippi in?

a)

South Central Region

b)

Western Region

c)

North Central Region

d)

Southern Region

108.

Which region is Alabama in?

a)

Southern Region

b)

North Central Region

c)

Eastern Region

d)

Central Region

109.

Which region is Georgia in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Mountain Plains Region

c)

Southern Region

d)

North Central Region

110.

Which region is Florida in?

a)

Eastern Region

b)

Central Region

c)

Western Region

d)

Southern Region