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Microeconomics Exam 2

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main belief of neoclassical economics regarding decision-making?

a)

Decisions are based on systematic errors.

b)

Decisions are irrational.

c)

Decisions are random.

d)

Decisions are rational.

2.

What does behavioral economics aim to explain?

a)

The rationality of human decisions.

b)

The systematic errors in human decisions.

c)

The randomness in economic theories.

d)

The principles of neoclassical economics.

3.

According to Neoclassical Economics, how are people's preferences described?

a)

Unstable and frequently changing

b)

Stable and not affected by context

c)

Influenced by others

d)

Varying with each situation

4.

What does this graph represents

a)

Elasticity Demand

b)

Unit Elasticity Demand

c)

InElasticity Demand

d)

Unit InElasticity Demand

5.

What is the assumption of Neoclassical Economics about people's nature?

a)

People are altruistic and community-oriented

b)

People are indifferent to their own interests

c)

People are almost entirely selfish and self-interested

d)

People are motivated by a mix of selfish and altruistic factors

6.

In Neoclassical Economics, how are people characterized in terms of their calculating abilities?

a)

People are reluctant and inaccurate calculating machines

b)

People are eager and accurate calculating machines

c)

People are not interested in calculations

d)

People are capable but often make errors in calculations

7.

What is the focus of Behavioral Economics?

a)

Analyzing the financial systems of different countries

b)

Focusing on the mental process behind decisions

c)

Studying the effects of market regulations

d)

Predicting stock market trends

8.

What is the aim of Behavioral Economics in terms of decision making?

a)

Decreasing the speed of decision making

b)

Improving outcomes by improving decision making

c)

Making decisions more complex

d)

Reducing the number of choices in decision making

9.

According to Neoclassical Economics, how are people's preferences described?

a)

People's preferences are unstable and often inconsistent.

b)

People's preferences are completely stable and unaffected by context.

c)

People's preferences are dependent on context (framing effects).

d)

People's preferences change regularly due to systematic errors.

10.

In Behavioral Economics, what is said about people's ability to make mental calculations?

a)

People are eager and accurate calculators.

b)

People are bad at math and avoid difficult computations if possible.

c)

People's calculation abilities are unaffected by context.

d)

People make no errors in their calculations.

11.

How does Behavioral Economics view human rationality in decision-making?

a)

People are fundamentally rational and adjust their choices to achieve their goals.

b)

People are irrational and make many errors that reduce their chances of achieving their goals.

c)

People are rational and never make systematic errors.

d)

People's rationality is consistent and context does not affect their decision-making.

12.

According to Neoclassical Economics, how do people view future options and possibilities compared to current ones?

a)

People place insufficient weight on future events and outcomes.

b)

People are just as good at assessing future options as current options.

c)

People often disregard future options entirely.

d)

People consider future options to be less reliable than current options.

13.

What does this graph represent

a)

Unit Elasticity Demand

b)

Inelasticity Demand

c)

Elasticity Demand

d)

Unit Inelasticity Demand

14.

According to Behavioral Economics, how do people generally behave in terms of fairness?

a)

People do not care about fairness and only treat others well if doing so will get them something they want.

b)

Many people care deeply about fairness and will often give to others even when doing so will yield no personal benefits.

c)

Fairness is not a significant factor in economic decisions.

d)

People always act fairly if it benefits their self-interest.

15.

What are heuristics primarily considered as?

a)

Complex algorithms

b)

Energy savers

c)

Mathematical formulas

d)

Psychological theories

16.

What does "guesstimating ranks with recognition heuristics" imply?

a)

Making precise calculations

b)

Using a step-by-step approach

c)

Making an educated guess based on familiarity

d)

Applying a scientific method

17.

What does the phrase "the implications of hardwired heuristics" suggest?

a)

Heuristics that are difficult to understand

b)

Heuristics that are innate or built-in

c)

Heuristics that require external tools

d)

Heuristics that are learned over time

18.

Which of the following is considered a cognitive bias where people tend to favor information that confirms their preconceptions or hypotheses?

a)

Overconfidence effect

b)

Hindsight bias

c)

Confirmation bias

d)

Availability heuristic

19.

What cognitive bias refers to the tendency to overestimate one's own abilities?

a)

Self-Serving bias

b)

Planning fallacy

c)

Framing effects

d)

Overconfidence effect

20.

Which cognitive bias involves people attributing their successes to internal factors while blaming failures on external factors?

a)

Availability heuristic

b)

Self-Serving bias

c)

Framing effects

d)

Confirmation bias

21.

What is the term for the cognitive bias that occurs when people mistakenly believe that past events were more predictable than they actually were after the events have occurred?

a)

Planning fallacy

b)

Overconfidence effect

c)

Hindsight bias

d)

Framing effects

22.

Which cognitive bias is characterized by the tendency for people to rely too heavily on the first piece of information they encounter?

a)

Framing effects

b)

Confirmation bias

c)

Availability heuristic

d)

Self-Serving bias

23.

What cognitive bias describes the error where people overestimate the likelihood of events with greater "availability" in memory?

a)

Hindsight bias

b)

Confirmation bias

c)

Overconfidence effect

d)

Availability heuristic

24.

Which cognitive bias refers to the tendency to underestimate the time, costs, and risks of future actions and overestimate the benefits?

a)

Framing effects

b)

Planning fallacy

c)

Hindsight bias

d)

Self-Serving bias

25.

According to Prospect Theory, how do people judge good and bad things?

a)

In absolute terms, as fixed values

b)

In relative terms, as gains and losses to their status quo

c)

Based on the advice of experts only

d)

Solely on the potential financial impact

26.

What do people experience according to Prospect Theory?

a)

Constant marginal utility for both gains and losses

b)

Diminishing marginal utility for gains and increasing marginal utility for losses

c)

Diminishing marginal utility for gains and diminishing marginal disutility for losses

d)

Increasing marginal utility for gains and constant marginal disutility for losses

27.

What is loss aversion in the context of Prospect Theory?

a)

The preference to avoid losses rather than acquiring equivalent gains

b)

The tendency to feel losses less intensely than gains

c)

The indifference between losses and gains of the same amount

d)

The tendency to prioritize gains over losses regardless of magnitude

28.

According to the bar graph, which country has the highest percent of population consenting to be organ donors?

a)

Portugal

b)

HUngary

c)

France

d)

Sweden

e)

Austria

29.

Which of the following countries has the lowest percent of population consenting to be organ donors as per the bar graph?

a)

Denmark

b)

Netherlands

c)

United Kingdom

d)

Poland

30.

Based on the bar graph, which country's percent of population consenting to be organ donors is closest to 30%?

a)

United Kingdom

b)

Belgium

c)

Portugal

d)

France

31.

What does the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility describe?

a)

The increase in utility from consuming additional units of a good or service

b)

The decrease in utility from consuming additional units of a good or service

c)

The constant utility obtained from each additional unit of a good or service

d)

The initial utility obtained from the first unit of a good or service

32.

What economic concept does the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility help to explain?

a)

The upward sloping supply curve

b)

The downward sloping demand curve

c)

The equilibrium price in a market

d)

The elasticity of a product

33.

What is utility according to the given terminology?

a)

The usefulness of a product

b)

The satisfaction one gets from consuming a good or service

c)

A measure of how much one can use a product

d)

A quantitative measure of product features

34.

How is utility described in the document?

a)
  • -Non Subjective

-Not the same as usefulness

-Difficult to quantify

b)

-Subjective

-Not the same as usefulness

-Easy to quantify

c)

-Subjective

-Not the same as usefulness

-Difficult to quantify

d)

-Subjective

-the same as usefulness

-Difficult to quantify

35.

What does the term "util" refer to in economics?

a)

A type of utility

b)

A unit of currency

c)

One unit of satisfaction or pleasure

d)

A measure of quantity

36.

What is total utility?

a)

The change in satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a good

b)

The satisfaction obtained from the first unit of a good

c)

The total amount of satisfaction

d)

The price of a good in utility terms

37.

What does marginal utility represent?

a)

The total utility divided by the quantity of goods consumed

b)

The extra satisfaction from an additional unit of the good

c)

The initial satisfaction from the first unit of the good

d)

The average utility of a good

38.

How is marginal utility (MU) calculated?

a)

MU = Total Utility / Quantity (TU/Q)

b)

MU = Change in Total Utility / Change in Quantity (ΔTU/ΔQ)

c)

MU = Total Utility * Quantity (TU*Q)

d)

MU = Total Utility - Quantity (TU-Q)

39.

What does the demand curve in the diagram generally show?

a)

The relationship between the quantity of oranges demanded and the price per orange

b)

The relationship between the quantity of oranges supplied and the price per orange

c)

The relationship between the quantity of oranges demanded and the quantity of oranges supplied

d)

The relationship between the price per orange and the cost of production for oranges

40.

What does the income effect refer to in the context of a price change?

a)

The impact a price change has on a consumer's ability to purchase goods

b)

The impact a price change has on a consumer's real income

c)

The impact a price change has on the overall economy

d)

The impact a price change has on a producer's revenue

41.

What is the substitution effect?

a)

The impact a price change has on a product's quality

b)

The impact a price change has on a product's demand

c)

The impact a price change has on a product's relative expensiveness

d)

The impact a price change has on a product's supply

42.

What does a criminal attempt to maximize according to the text?

a)

Marginal benefit

b)

Total utility

c)

Marginal cost

d)

Unlawful activity

43.

What do most people find too high to engage in criminal behavior?

a)

The marginal benefit

b)

The total utility

c)

The marginal cost

d)

The societal impact

44.

How does society attempt to reduce crime according to the text?

a)

By reducing the total utility

b)

By increasing the marginal benefit

c)

By imposing additional costs such as fines and imprisonment

d)

By decreasing the marginal cost

45.

What is the potential effect of increasing the cost of crime?

a)

Increase in total utility

b)

Increase in marginal benefit

c)

Reduction in crime

d)

Increase in unlawful activity

46.

What does price elasticity of demand measure?

a)

The government's response to price changes.

b)

Measures buyers' responsiveness to price changes.

c)

The change in supply due to price changes.

d)

The producer's response to price changes.

47.

What characterizes elastic demand?

a)

Insensitive to price changes.

b)

No change in quantity demanded.

c)

Sensitive to price changes.

d)

Small change in quantity demanded.

48.

What happens to the quantity demanded when there is elastic demand and the price changes?

a)

No change in quantity demanded.

b)

Small change in quantity demanded.

c)

Large change in quantity demanded.

d)

Quantity demanded becomes zero.

49.

What is a characteristic of inelastic demand?

a)

Large change in quantity demanded.

b)

Sensitive to price changes.

c)

Insensitive to price changes.

d)

Quantity demanded increases exponentially.

50.

How does the quantity demanded change when there is inelastic demand and the price changes?

a)

Large change in quantity demanded.

b)

Quantity demanded becomes zero.

c)

No change in quantity demanded.

d)

Small change in quantity demanded.

51.

Price Elasticity of Demand Formula Include what

a)

Use percentages:
Unit free measure.
Compare elasticities across products.
Eliminate the minus sign:
Easier to compare elasticities

b)

Use percentages:
Compare elasticities across products.
Eliminate the minus sign:
Easier to compare elasticities

c)

Does Not use percentages:
Unit free measure.
Compare elasticities across products.
Uses the minus sign:
Easier to compare elasticities

d)

Use percentages:
Unit free measure.
Compare elasticities across products.
Eliminate the minus sign:
Easier to compare inelasticities

52.

Why are percentages used in the Price Elasticity of Demand Formula?

a)

To ensure the formula is mathematically correct.

b)

To make the formula more complex.

c)

To provide a unit free measure and compare elasticities across products.

d)

To increase the accuracy of the demand prediction.

53.

What is the purpose of eliminating the minus sign in the Price Elasticity of Demand Formula?

a)

To simplify the calculation process.

b)

To make it easier to compare elasticities.

c)

To reduce the number of steps in the formula.

d)

To align with accounting principles.

54.

If the elasticity of demand (Ed) is greater than 1, how is the demand classified?

a)

Inelastic

b)

Unit elastic

c)

Perfectly inelastic

d)

Elastic

55.

What does it mean when the elasticity of demand (Ed) is equal to 0?

a)

Demand is elastic

b)

Demand is unit elastic

c)

Demand is perfectly inelastic

d)

Demand is perfectly elastic

56.

When the elasticity of demand (Ed) is less than 1, what is the demand considered to be?

a)

Elastic

b)

Unit elastic

c)

Inelastic

d)

Perfectly elastic

57.

What does an elasticity of demand (Ed) equal to infinity (∞) signify?

a)

Demand is inelastic

b)

Demand is unit elastic

c)

Demand is perfectly inelastic

d)

Demand is perfectly elastic

58.

What does a perfectly inelastic demand curve look like on a graph?

a)

A. A horizontal line

b)

B. A vertical line

c)

C. A downward-sloping line

d)

D. An upward-sloping line

59.

What is the elasticity of demand (Ed) for a perfectly inelastic demand?

a)

A. Ed > 1

b)

B. Ed = 1

c)

C. Ed = 0

d)

D. Ed < 0

60.

What does a perfectly elastic demand curve look like on a graph?

a)

A downward-sloping line from left to right

b)

A horizontal line

c)

An upward-sloping line from left to right

d)

A vertical line

61.

In the context of elasticity of demand, what does an elasticity coefficient of infinity (∞) represent?

a)

Perfectly inelastic demand

b)

Unitary elastic demand

c)

Perfectly elastic demand

d)

Relatively elastic demand

62.

What is the formula for Total Revenue?

a)

Total Revenue = Demand x Quantity

b)

Total Revenue = Price x Quantity

c)

Total Revenue = Price + Quantity

d)

Total Revenue = Price / Quantity

63.

In the case of inelastic demand, how do price (P) and total revenue (TR) move?

a)

In the same direction

b)

In opposite directions

c)

Price remains constant while TR moves

d)

TR remains constant while P moves

64.

When demand is elastic, how do price (P) and total revenue (TR) move?

a)

In the same direction

b)

In opposite directions

c)

Price remains constant while TR moves

d)

TR remains constant while P moves

65.

What happens to total revenue when the price is lowered and demand is elastic according to the Total Revenue Test with Elastic Demand?

a)

Total revenue decreases because the blue gain is less than the yellow loss.

b)

Total revenue increases because the blue gain exceeds the yellow loss.

c)

Total revenue remains unchanged because the blue gain equals the yellow loss.

d)

There is no change in total revenue as demand is inelastic.

66.

What happens to total revenue when the price is lowered and demand is inelastic?

a)

Total revenue increases because the blue gain exceeds the yellow loss.

b)

Total revenue decreases because the yellow loss exceeds the blue gain.

c)

Total revenue remains unchanged despite the change in price.

d)

Total revenue is not affected by price changes when demand is inelastic.

67.

What happens to total revenue when price is lowered and demand is unit elastic according to the Total Revenue Test with Unit-Elastic Demand?

a)

Total revenue decreases.

b)

Total revenue increases.

c)

Total revenue remains unchanged.

d)

There is not enough information to determine the change in total revenue.

68.

What does the Total Revenue Test do

a)

approximates price elasticity of demand by measuring the change in total revenue from a change in the price of a service

b)

approximates price elasticity of demand by measuring the change in total revenue from a change in the price of a product or service

c)

approximates price of inelasticity of demand by measuring the change in total revenue from a change in the price of a product or service

d)

approximates price elasticity of demand by measuring the change in total revenue from a change in the price of a product

69.

Referring to the Total Revenue Test Example, what is the total revenue when the quantity of tickets demanded per week is 5,000?

a)

$8,000

b)

$14,000

c)

$18,000

d)

$20,000

70.

What is the Total Revenue test formula

a)

Total Revenue = Price × COGS

b)

Total Revenue = Price per × Quantity

c)

Total Revenue = Price × Quantity

d)

Total Revenue = Sales - Cost

71.

What is the shape of the total-revenue curve when demand is inelastic according to the Total Revenue Test Example?

a)

Upward sloping

b)

Downward sloping

c)

Horizontal line

d)

Vertical line

72.

What happens to total revenue when the price of a product with elastic demand is increased?

a)

Total revenue increases

b)

Total revenue decreases

c)

Total revenue is unchanged

d)

There is not enough information to determine the impact on total revenue

73.

If the absolute value of the elasticity coefficient (Ed) is less than 1, how is the demand classified?

a)

Elastic

b)

Unit-elastic

c)

Inelastic

d)

Perfectly elastic

74.

When the price of a product with unitary elastic demand decreases, what is the impact on total revenue?

a)

Total revenue increases

b)

Total revenue decreases

c)

Total revenue is unchanged

d)

Total revenue fluctuates unpredictably

75.

What describes the change in quantity demanded when the demand is relatively inelastic and the price changes?

a)

Quantity demanded changes by a larger percentage than does price

b)

Quantity demanded changes by the same percentage as does price

c)

Quantity demanded changes by a smaller percentage than does price

d)

Quantity demanded does not change at all

76.

What happens to the demand for a product when there are more substitutes available?

a)

Demand becomes more inelastic

b)

Demand remains unchanged

c)

Demand becomes more elastic

d)

Demand cannot be determined

77.

How does the proportion of income spent on a product affect its demand elasticity?

a)

Lower proportion of income, demand is more elastic

b)

Higher proportion of income, demand is more inelastic

c)

Higher proportion of income, demand is more elastic

d)

Proportion of income does not affect demand elasticity

78.

Compared to necessities, how is the demand for luxury goods described?

a)

The demand for luxury goods is more inelastic.

b)

The demand for luxury goods is less elastic.

c)

The demand for luxury goods is more elastic.

d)

The demand for luxury goods is unaffected by elasticity.

79.

What is the effect on total revenue when there is inelastic demand for large crop yields?

a)

Total revenue increases

b)

Total revenue decreases

c)

Total revenue remains unchanged

d)

There is no effect on total revenue

80.

What is an economic cost?

a)

The profit gained from an investment.

b)

The payment that must be made to obtain and retain the services of a resource.

c)

The total amount of money a company has.

d)

The loss incurred from a business transaction.

81.

What are explicit costs?

a)

Costs that cannot be easily quantified.

b)

Costs associated with non-monetary factors.

c)

Monetary outlay: the amount of money that you have to spend in order to buy something or start a project

d)

Costs that include a normal profit.

82.

What are implicit costs?

a)

Monetary outlay.

b)

Opportunity cost of using self-owned resources and normal profit

c)

The cost of using self-owned resources and normal profit

d)

Opportunity cost of using self-owned resources and unusual profit

83.

What is the formula for calculating accounting profit?

a)

Revenue - Implicit Costs

b)

Revenue - Economic Costs

c)

Revenue - Explicit Costs

d)

Revenue - Explicit Costs - Implicit Costs

84.

How is economic profit different from accounting profit?

a)

Economic profit includes implicit costs while accounting profit does not.

b)

Economic profit includes explicit costs while accounting profit does not.

c)

Economic profit is calculated before taxes while accounting profit is calculated after taxes.

d)

There is no difference; both terms mean the same thing.

85.

Which of the following represents the correct formula for economic profit?

a)

Economic profit = Revenue - Economic Costs

b)

Economic profit = Revenue - Explicit Costs - Implicit Costs

c)

Economic profit = Accounting Profit - Implicit Costs

d)

Economic profit = Revenue - Implicit Costs

86.

According to the diagram, accounting profit is calculated by subtracting which type of costs from total revenue?

a)

Implicit costs only

b)

Explicit costs only

c)

Both explicit and implicit costs

d)

Economic costs

87.

What characterizes the short run in economic terms?

a)

All inputs are variable.

b)

Firms can enter and exit the industry.

c)

Some variable inputs and fixed plant.

d)

Fixed number of firms and variable plant size.

88.

What characterizes the long run in economic terms?

a)

Only some inputs are variable.

b)

Firms cannot adjust plant size and All inputs are fixed.

c)

Firms can adjust plant size as well as enter and exit industry and All inputs are variable.

d)

Firms have a fixed plant size and All inputs are variable..

89.

What is the formula for calculating Marginal Product (MP)?

a)

Total Product ÷ Change in Labor Input

b)

Change in Total Product ÷ Change in Labor Input

c)

Total Product ÷ Units of Labor

d)

Change in Total Product × Change in Labor Input

90.

How is Average Product (AP) calculated?

a)

Change in Total Product ÷ Units of Labor

b)

Total Product × Units of Labor

c)

Total Product ÷ Change in Labor Input

d)

Total Product ÷ Units of Labor

91.

What does the Law of Diminishing Returns state about resources and technology?

a)

Resources and technology both vary.

b)

Resources vary and technology is fixed.

c)

Resources are fixed and technology varies.

d)

Both resources and technology are fixed.

92.

According to the Law of Diminishing Returns, what happens when variable resources are added to fixed resources?

a)

Marginal product increases indefinitely.

b)

Marginal product remains constant.

c)

Marginal product will fall at some point.

d)

Total product will fall immediately.

93.

Based on the graph (b), during which stage does the average product (AP) start to decline?

a)

When the quantity of labor is between 0 and 3

b)

When the quantity of labor is between 3 and 5

c)

When the quantity of labor is between 5 and 7

d)

After the quantity of labor exceeds 7

94.

Short-Run Production Costs

a)

Fixed costs (TFC): Costs that do not vary with
output.
Variable costs (TVC): Costs that do not vary with
output.
Total cost (TC):
• TC = TFC + TVC.

b)

Fixed costs (TFC): Costs that do not vary with
output.
Variable costs (TVC): Costs that do vary with
output.
Total cost (TC):
• TC = TFC + TVC.

c)

Fixed costs (TVC): Costs that do not vary with
output.
Variable costs (TFC): Costs that do vary with
output.
Total cost (TC):
• TC = TFC + TVC.

d)

Fixed costs (TFC): Costs that do vary with
output.
Variable costs (TVC): Costs that do not vary with
output.
Total cost (TC):
• TC = TFC + TVC.

95.

What does AFC stand for in the context of per-unit costs?

a)

Average Fixed Cost

b)

Average Financial Cost

c)

Annual Fixed Cost

d)

Average Flexible Cost

96.

How is Average Variable Cost (AVC) calculated?

a)

AVC = TVC/Q

b)

AVC = TFC/Q

c)

AVC = TC/Q

d)

AVC = MC/Q

97.

What is the formula for calculating Average Total Cost (ATC)?

a)

ATC = TC/Q

b)

ATC = TFC/Q

c)

ATC = TVC/Q

d)

ATC = MC/Q

98.

What does the symbol Δ represent in the Marginal Cost (MC) formula?

a)

Total

b)

Division

c)

Change

d)

Summation

99.

Which curve typically represents the Average Fixed Cost (AFC) in the short-run average cost curves diagram?

a)

The curve that starts high and declines as Q increases, never touching the x-axis.

b)

The curve that starts low and increases as Q increases.

c)

The curve that starts at a medium level and declines as Q increases, eventually touching the x-axis.

d)

The curve that remains constant as Q increases.

100.

As the quantity produced (Q) increases, what happens to the Average Variable Cost (AVC) according to the diagram?

a)

It decreases continuously.

b)

It first decreases, reaches a minimum point, and then starts to increase.

c)

It remains constant regardless of Q.

d)

It increases continuously.

101.

Which curve represents the Average Total Cost (ATC) in the diagram?

a)

The curve that is always above the other two curves.

b)

The curve that is always below the other two curves.

c)

The curve that intersects with the other two curves.

d)

The curve that remains constant as Q increases.

102.

What does the MC curve in the diagram represent?

a)

Average Total Cost

b)

Average Variable Cost

c)

Marginal Cost

d)

Average Fixed Cost

103.

Based on the diagram, which cost curve always declines as quantity increases?

a)

MC

b)

ATC

c)

AVC

d)

AFC

104.

At what point does the MC curve intersect the ATC and AVC curves according to the diagram?

a)

At the highest point of the ATC and AVC curves

b)

At the lowest point of the ATC and AVC curves

c)

At the midpoint of the ATC and AVC curves

d)

The MC curve does not intersect the ATC and AVC curves

105.

What does the acronym 'MC' stand for in the cost curves diagram?

a)

Marginal Cost

b)

Market Capital

c)

Maximum Capacity

d)

Monetary Compensation

106.

What does the acronym 'AVC' stand for in the cost curves diagram?

a)

Average Variable Cost

b)

Annual Value Change

c)

Asset Valuation Coefficient

d)

Average Venture Capital

107.

What does the acronym 'MP' stand for in the production curves diagram?

a)

Marginal Product

b)

Market Potential

c)

Maximum Performance

d)

Monetary Policy

108.

What does the acronym 'AP' stand for in the production curves diagram?

a)

Average Product

b)

Annual Profit

c)

Asset Procurement

d)

Aggregate Planning

109.

According to the graph, which country had the highest relative manufacturing costs in 2018?

a)

Switzerland

b)

Germany

c)

United States

d)

China

110.

Which country is used as the baseline (100) for comparing relative manufacturing costs in the graph?

a)

Switzerland

b)

Germany

c)

United States

d)

Japan

111.

As per the graph, which of the following countries had lower relative manufacturing costs than the United States in 2018?

a)

Japan

b)

Finland

c)

Mexico

d)

South Korea

112.

What can the firm change in the long run regarding production costs?

a)

Only labor costs

b)

Only raw material costs

c)

All input amounts, including plant size

d)

Only fixed costs

113.

Are costs fixed or variable in the long run?

a)

All costs are fixed

b)

All costs are variable

c)

Only labor costs are variable

d)

Only capital costs are variable

114.

What does Long-run ATC consider in terms of costs?

a)

Marginal costs

b)

Total fixed costs

c)

Average total costs

d)

Total variable costs

115.

What does this graph represent

a)

Marginal Cost Curve

b)

Long-Run Cost Curve

c)

Short-Run Cost Curve

d)

Average Cost Curve

116.

Short-Run Production Relationships

a)

Total product (TP)
Marginal product (MP) =
Change in Total Product ÷ Change in Labor
Input
Average product (AP) =
Total Product ÷ Units of Labor

b)

Total product (TP)
Marginal product (MP) =
Total Product ÷ Change in Labor
Input
Average product (AP) =
Total Product ÷ Units of Labor

c)

Total product (TP)
Marginal product (MP) =
Total Product ÷ Labor
Input
Average product (AP) =
Total Product ÷ Units of Labor

d)

Total product (TP)
Marginal product (MP) =
Change Total Product ÷ Change in Labor
Input
Average product (AP) =
Product ÷ Units of Labor

117.

What does this graph represents

a)

Short-Run Cost Curves

b)

Long-Run Cost Curves

c)

Average Cost Curves

d)

Increasing Cost Curves

118.

What does this graph represent

a)

Long-Run Cost Curves

b)

Short-Run Cost Curves

c)

Average Cost Curves

d)

Scattered-Run Cost Curves

119.

What does this graph represent

a)

Average Cost

b)

Short-Run Cost

c)

Long-Run Cost

d)

Marginal Cost

120.

Finish the formulas

a)

AFC = TFC/Q

AVC = TC/Q

ATC = TVC/Q

MC = ΔTC/ΔQ

b)

AFC = TVC/Q

AVC = TFC/Q

ATC = TC/Q

MC = ΔTC/ΔQ

c)

AFC = TFC/Q

AVC = TVC/Q

ATC = TC/Q

MC = ΔTC/ΔQ

d)

AFC = TC/Q

AVC = TVC/Q

ATC = TFC/Q

MC = ΔTC/ΔQ

121.

What is Production cost

a)

Cost are incurred by a business when it manufactures a product and a service

b)

Cost are incurred by a business when it provides a service

c)

Cost are incurred by a business when it manufactures a product

d)

Cost are incurred by a business when it manufactures a product or provides a service