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POF - Mock Exam

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What percentage of the atmosphere is Nitrogen

a)

21%

b)

100%

c)

78%

d)

1%

2.

What is ISA sea level density?

a)

1225 kg/m³

b)

1.225 kg/m²

c)

1.225 kg/m³

d)

0.1225 kg/m²

3.

What happens to air pressure with a gain in altitude?

a)

Increases

b)

No change

c)

Decreases

d)

Gains more energy

4.

Select all values that are ISA values at sea level

a)

15°C

b)

1013.25 hPa

c)

1.225 kg/m³

d)

1013.25 Inches of Mercury

5.

At approximately 18,000 - 20,000' what will the pressure be compared to sea level

a)

The same as sea level pressure

b)

75% of sea level pressure

c)

25% of sea level pressure

d)

Half of sea level pressure

6.

Select all below that effect density altitude

a)

Pressure

b)

Speed

c)

Weight

d)

Humidity

e)

Temperature

7.

What attributes does a vector have?

a)

Magnitude

b)

Direction

c)

Magnitude and Direction

d)

Magnitude and Time

8.

Which if these is NOT a SI unit?

a)

Metre (m)

b)

Kilogram (kg)

c)

Watt (W)

d)

Kelvin (K)

e)

Knot (kn)

9.

What is Newtons Second Law?

a)

F = na

b)

The external force acting on a body is proportional to the product of it’s mass and the acceleration produced by the force

c)

The external force acting on a body is inversely proportional to the product of it’s mass and the acceleration produced by the force

d)

Every object continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force

10.

What is newtons Third Law?

a)

For every action, there is an equal reaction felt 90° clockwise

b)

For every action, there is an equal reaction felt 90° anticlockwise

c)

The external force acting on a body is proportional to the product of it’s mass and the acceleration produced by the force

d)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction

11.

Where does weight act through?

a)

Centre of Pressure

b)

Centre of Acceleration

c)

Centre of Gravity

d)

Centre of Weight

12.

The upward movement of air at the LEADING edge is known as:

a)

The total reaction

b)

Upwash

c)

Downwash

d)

Leftwash

13.

At the zero lift angle:

a)

Negative lift is produced

b)

A small amount of lift is produced

c)

The aircraft will stall

d)

No net lift is produced

14.

Which of the these pressure envelopes represents an aerofoil at the critical angle (16°)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

Lift is:

a)

The component of the total reaction acting inline with the RAF

b)

The component of drag caused by friciton

c)

The component of the total reaction acting inline with the RAF in the direction of motion

d)

The component of the total reaction acting 90° to the RAF through the CoP

16.

Which attributes would be considered an ideal aerofoil?

Select all that apply

a)

High Max CL

b)

Low Minimum Cd

c)

Low Lift/Drag ratio

d)

Large and stable movement of CoP

e)

Sufficient Depth

17.

What is aspect ratio?

a)

Ratio of aircraft length to wingspan

b)

Ratio of depth to length of an aerofoil

c)

Ratio of main wingspan to tail plane span

d)

Ratio of wingspan to chord of a wing

18.

A rough surface condition will cause:

a)

The separation and transition point to move rearwards

b)

The separation point to move forwards but the transition point to move rearwards

c)

The separation point and transition point to move forwards

d)

CL to increase

19.

Select all answers that make up the lift formula

a)

CL

b)

CD

c)

½pV²

d)

½pV

e)

S

20.

Which point on the graph would indicate CL max?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.

Total drag is made up of:

a)

Zero lift drag - Lift dependent drag

b)

Zero lift drag - Total drag

c)

Lift dependent drag + Zero lift drag

d)

Zero lift drag / Lift Dependent drag

22.

Select all the options that will increase induced drag

a)

Low Aspect ratio

b)

Increased passengers

c)

Increased weight

d)

Increased AoA

23.

The transition point is:

a)

The point where the air within the boundary layer stops accelerating and becomes turbulent

b)

The point where the air within the boundary layer become turbulent and starts accelerating

c)

The point when the airflow detaches from the wings surface and becomes turbulent

d)

The point with the airflow within the boundary layer becomes laminar and detaches from the wings surface

24.

Induced drag is:

a)

Proportional to V²

b)

Proportional to V

c)

Inversely proportional to V²

d)

Inversely proportional to V

25.

Washout:

a)

Is the reduction of the angle of incidence at the wingroot. This reduces induced drag

b)

Is the reduction of the angle of incidence at the wingtip. This increases induced drag

c)

Is the reduction of the angle of incidence at the wingroot. This increases induced drag

d)

Is the reduction of the angle of incidence at the wingtip. This reduces induced drag

26.

What is the approximate depth of the turbulent boundary layer?

a)

2mm

b)

2m

c)

20mm

d)

20cm

27.

Some methods to reduce induce drag are? (Select all that apply)

a)

Tip tanks

b)

WInglets

c)

Wing fence

d)

Washout

e)

Windscreens

28.

Skin friction drag is caused by

a)

Sheer stress between successive layer of air

b)

The mixing between converging airflows at the junction of various aircraft surfaces

c)

The pressure differential between the forward are rear facing surfaces

d)

Wingtip vortices

29.

What type of drag does streamlining reduce?

a)

Induced

b)

Form

c)

Skin friction

d)

Interference

30.

What is the ideal fineness ratio?

a)

1:4

b)

14

c)

4:1

d)

1 part length to 4 parts depth

31.

Select all the factors that effect form drag

a)

Surface Condition

b)

Size

c)

AoA

d)

Speed

32.

Zero lift drag (parasite drag) is:

a)

Proportional to V

b)

Inversely proportional to V

c)

Proportional to V²

d)

Inversely proportional to V²

33.

Which of the marked curves represents parasite drag (Zero lift)?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

34.

When the induced drag curve and parasite drag curve meet:

a)

Minimum drag

b)

Maximum L/D ratio

c)

Best Glide Speed

d)

Minimum induced drag

e)

Minimum parasite drag

35.

Slats are only used at:

a)

High speeds

b)

Low AoA

c)

High AoA

d)

Low speeds

36.

The basic purpose of lift augmentation devices is:

a)

To provide an increase in lift at high airspeeds

b)

To provide an increase in lift at low airspeeds

c)

To improve the lift to drag ratio

d)

To decrease the amount to lift produces

37.

How does lowering trailing edge flaps effect the CoP?

a)

The CoP with move rearwards and towards the wingtips

b)

The CoP will move rearwards and towards the wingroot

c)

The CoP will move forwards and towards the wingroot

d)

The CoP will not move until the final stage of flap is lowered. It will then move rearward and inward

38.

With regards the the slots created my some leading and trailing edge devices select the correct statement:

a)

Slots allow the spanwise flow another path from the lower surface to the upper surface reducing induced drag

b)

Slots allow airflow to flow through them to the upper surface decreasing lift by decreasing the static pressure on the lower surface

c)

Slots allow air to flow through them re-energizing the upper boundary layer delaying separation and increasing lift

d)

Slots allow air to flow through them re-energizing the upper boundary layer promoting separation and increasing lift

39.

The lift and weight forces form a couple:

a)

True. A nose down couple

b)

False

c)

True. A nose up couple

d)

Whats a couple

40.

What is the purpose of the tail plane

a)

Balance the passengers incase one is much heavier

b)

Balance residual rolling moments

c)

Balance residual pitching moments

d)

Hold the elevator on

41.

Select all the correct statements regarding gear:

a)

Raising and lowering the gear will cause a nose up moment

b)

Raising and lowering the gear will cause a nose down moment

c)

Raising the gear will cause a nose up moment

d)

Raising the gear will cause a nose down moment

e)

Lowering the gear will cause a nose down moment

42.

To maintain S&L flight, if the speed increases:

a)

The AoA must be increased

b)

S&L cannot be maintained if speed is increased

c)

The AoA must be decreased

d)

Flaps must be lowered

43.

Considering this power available vs power required graph:

a)

An increase in altitude would cause the Pr curve to move down. The Pa curve would move up.

b)

An increase in altitude would have no effect

c)

An increase in altitude will cause the Pr curve to move up and the Pa curve to move up

d)

An increase in altitude will cause the Pr curve to move up and the Pa curve to move down

44.

Consider the above graph. Where does the minimum speed for straight and level flight occur

a)

At the greatest distance between the Pa and Pr curves

b)

At 25% of the Pr curve

c)

Cannot be found on this graph

d)

When the Pa and Pr curves meet at the lower TAS

45.

The power required versus TAS curve moves ________ as altitude is increased (aside from supercharging/turbo charging)

a)

down and to the left

b)

down and to the right

c)

up and to the left

d)

up and to the right

46.

Identify D and E for this aircraft in a steady climb

a)

Forward component of weight

b)

Rearward component of weight

c)

Drag

d)

Lift

e)

Weight

47.

Where on the above curve would you find the maximum rate of climb?

a)

hen the Pa and Pr curves meet

b)

At the speed for minimum level flight

c)

The biggest gap between Pa and Pr

d)

The smallest gap between Pa and Pr

48.

Define Vy

a)

Greatest gain in height over a given distance

b)

Greatest gain in height for a given speed

c)

Greatest gain in height over a given amount of time

d)

Greatest gain in height for a given amount of fuel

49.

Define Vx

a)

Greatest gain in height over a given horizontal distance

b)

Greatest gain in height over a given amount of time

c)

Greatest gain in height for a given amount of fuel

d)

Greatest gain in height for a given vertical distance

50.

Define absolute ceiling

a)

The altitude where minimum power is required to maintain S&L

b)

The altitude where 50% power is required to maintain S&L

c)

The altitude where 75% power is required to maintain S&L

d)

The altitude where full power will be required to maintain S&L

51.

Define service ceiling

a)

The altitude where full power is required to maintain S&L

b)

The altitude where an aircraft can maintain a climb rate of 100fpm. This will be higher than an aircraft's service ceiling

c)

The altitude where an aircraft can maintain a climb rate of 100fpm. This will be lower than an aircraft's absolute ceiling

d)

The altitude where an aircraft can maintain a climb rate of 100fpm. This will be the same level as an aircraft's absolute ceiling

52.

Select all the factors that will decrease climb performance:

a)

2 stages of flap

b)

Increased altitude

c)

Gear down

d)

Increased weight

e)

Increased temperature

53.

Identify A, B and C for this aircraft in a glide

a)

Lift

b)

Thrust

c)

Weight

d)

Weight 1

e)

Forward component of weight

54.

Identify A, B and C for this aircraft in a glide

a)

Rearward component of weight

b)

Lift

c)

Drag

d)

Resultant 1

e)

Total reaction

55.

An aircraft is in a glide at its best lift/drag ratio. The pilot decides to increase speed to try and glide to a paddock further away. Select the correct statement:

a)

The pilot is more likely to glide to the new paddock because the lift/drag ratio has been increased

b)

The pilot will get to the paddock faster

c)

The pilot is less likely to glide to the new paddock as the aircraft has moved away from the best lift/drag ratio

d)

The pilot is less likely to make the paddock but the lift/drag ratio has improved

56.

Two aircraft of the same type are gliding. Aircraft 'A' is lighter than aircraft 'B'. Select the correct statement:

a)

Aircraft 'A' will glide a greater distance than aircraft 'B'

b)

Aircraft 'B' will glide a greater distance than aircraft 'A'

c)

Both aircraft 'A' and 'B' will glide the same distance but aircraft 'B' will have a steeper glide angle

d)

Both aircraft 'A' and 'B' will glide the same distance but aircraft 'B' will be gliding at a higher airspeed to maintain best lift/drag ratio

57.

A powered on descent will (assume a constant airspeed):

a)

Be steeper as the power is pulling the aircraft down

b)

Be shallower as the pilot will have to raise the nose to maintain airspeed

c)

A descent is no effected by power only by the amount of drag acting on the aircraft eg. flap setting

d)

Will require an increase in flap to balance out thrust

58.

In a powered on descent what balances drag? (Select all that apply)

a)

Lift

b)

Weight

c)

Thrust

d)

Weight 1

e)

Forward component of weight

59.

At the stall angle the separation point:

a)

Moves forwards

b)

Moves rearwards

c)

Remains stationary

d)

Will move to the stagnation point

60.

Describe basic stall speed

a)

VS1 - The stall speed with no power and no flap

b)

VS0 - The stall speed with no power and no flap

c)

VS1 - The stall speed with no power and full flap

d)

VS0 - The stall speed with full power and no flap

61.

The only way to remedy a stall is:

a)

Lower AoA (nose down)

b)

Adding power

c)

Adding correct rudder

d)

Being a good pilot and not stalling

62.

An increase in aircraft weight will do what to the stall speed?

a)

Increase stall speed due to the reduced requirement for lift

b)

Increase stall speed due to the CoP moving past the CoG

c)

Increase stall speed due to the increased requirement for lift

d)

Reduce stall speed because the aircraft has more potential energy

63.

I am flying in my plane with a stall speed of 50kts, however I decide to have so fun and show my passengers what 2G (max rate) would feel like. What is my new stall speed?

a)

50

b)

60

c)

70

d)

100

64.

Which instrument give a reliable indication of spin direction?

a)

Airspeed indicator

b)

Altimeter

c)

Artificial horizon

d)

Turn coordinator

65.

Select those that make up the standard recovery from a spin

a)

Power - Full

b)

Ailerons - Central

c)

Rudder - Opposite direction of spin

d)

Elevator - ease forward to break stall once rotation has stopped

e)

Power - Close

66.

The turning force acting on the aircraft is called:

a)

Centrifugal Force

b)

Centripetal Drag

c)

Centrifugal Drag

d)

Centripetal Force

67.

Load factor is:

a)

An increase in weight

b)

An increase in apparent speed

c)

An increase in apparent weight

d)

A decrease in apparent weight

68.

Load factor in a turn can be found using:

a)

1/Cos AoB²

b)

1/Cos AoB

c)

1/Sin AoB²

d)

1/Sin AoB

69.

I am in a steep turn, what is the load factor experienced?

a)

1

b)

1.4

c)

2

d)

2.4

70.

To make a maximum rate/minimum radius turn the aircraft should be flown at:

a)

AoA for CLmax and at VS1

b)

AoA for CLmax and at normal cruise speed

c)

AoA for CLmin and VS1

d)

AoA for CLmax and at Va

71.

What angle of bank do I need to hold to get a rate one turn if my airspeed indicator shows 117kt, my ground speed shows 134kt and I have a tailwind from the South East?

a)

18º

b)

11º

c)

d)

72.

For a given AoB an aircraft in a descending turn will:

Select all the apply

a)

Have a decreased rate of descent

b)

Have an increased rate of descent

c)

Over bank because the outer wing is traveling faster

d)

Under back because the inner wing has a higher AoA

73.

What does the line labeled 'C' represent?

a)

Va

b)

Vne

c)

Vs1

d)

Vn

74.

Blade angle is:

a)

Angle between the chord line and the plane of rotation

b)

Angle between the blade back and the plane of rotation

c)

Angle between the chord line and RAF

d)

Angle between the RAF and the blade back

75.

The angle between the RAF and the plane of rotation is known as:

a)

AoA

b)

Blade angle

c)

Helix angle

d)

Angle of incidence

76.

The most useful thrust is produced at approximately:

a)

50% to blade radius

b)

25% blade radius

c)

75% blade radius

d)

The entire blade radius assuming the propeller is twisted to maintain best AoA

77.

In an aircraft with a CSU what is the correct technique to increase power?

a)

Pitch/Rich/Power

b)

Power/Pitch/Rich

c)

Rich/Pitch/Power

d)

Power/Rich/Pitch

78.

If you put your CSU aircraft into a climb without adjusting the throttle, what will happen?

a)

The CSU will fine the blade

b)

The CSU will coarsen the blade

c)

The CSU will alert the pilot

d)

Nothing will happen unless you change it

79.

What will happen to the propeller pitch in an aircraft fitted with a CSU if the pilot increases the manifold pressure?

a)

The propeller pitch will fine in order to absorb more power

b)

The propeller pitch will coarsen in order to absorb less power

c)

The propeller pitch will fine in order to absorb less power

d)

The propeller pitch will coarsen in order to absorb more power

80.

Aerodynamic twisting moment will always act to fine the blade:

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The asymmetric blade effect is caused by:

a)

The up going blade traveling a greater distance

b)

Asymmetric blade effect is only a factor on multi-engine aircraft

c)

The down going blade traveling a greater distance

d)

The tips of the blade traveling faster than the speed of sound

82.

With the propeller feathered:

a)

Maximum drag is produced and no net torque is produced

b)

Minimum drag is produced and no net torque is produced

c)

Is the pitch setting for best cruise speed

d)

Will increase the drag and reduce glide range

83.

When operating in the pitch range for reverse thrust the propeller torque:

a)

Is acting in the same direction as for windmilling flight

b)

Is acting in the opposite direction as normal flight

c)

Is acting to oppose engine torque

d)

Is acting 90° to the plane of rotation

84.

What are the primary flight controls? (Select all that apply)

a)

Rudder

b)

Aileron

c)

Flaps

d)

Elevator

85.

To roll the aircraft left how will the ailerons be deflected?

a)

Left aileron will move down and the right aileron will move down

b)

Left aileron will move up and the right aileron will move up

c)

Left aileron will move down and the right aileron will move up

d)

Left aileron will move up and the right aileron will move down

86.

How do you increase slipstream?

a)

Fly faster

b)

Fly slower

c)

Higher power setting

d)

Lower power setting

87.

Trim tabs:

a)

Relieve control pressures. If back stick pressure is required, move the trim wheel forwards

b)

Relieve control pressure. If forward stick pressure is required, move the trim wheel backwards

c)

Increase control pressure. If forward stick pressure is required, move the trim wheel forwards

d)

Relieve control pressures. If forward stick pressure is required, move the trim wheel forwards

88.

What is the purpose of mass balancing?

a)

Eliminate flutter by moving the CoG of a control closer to the hinge line

b)

Eliminate flutter by moving the CoG of a control further from the hinge line

c)

Eliminate flutter by moving the CoG of a control further from the hinge line

d)

Increase flutter by moving the CoG of a control closer to the hinge line

89.

Flutter is caused by?

a)

CoG to far rearwards

b)

CoG to far forwards

c)

CoP to far rearwards

d)

CoP to far forwards

90.

What is the difference between a balance tab and an anti-balance tab?

Select all that apply

a)

Balance tabs move in the same direction and anti-balance tabs move in the opposite direction of the main control surface

b)

Anti-balance tabs reduce control pressures where as balance tabs increase control pressures

c)

Balance tabs move in the opposite direction and anti-balance tabs move in the same direction of the main control surface

d)

Anti-balance tabs increase control pressures where as balance tabs reduce control pressures

91.

Define flying for endurance:

a)

Flying for the greatest amount of time for the most fuel used

b)

Flying for the greatest distance in the shortest amount of time

c)

Flying for the greatest distance in the longest amount of time

d)

Flying for the greatest amount of time for the least fuel used

92.

The best conditions for maximum SAR are:

a)

Lowest weight

b)

Flying at minimum drag speed

c)

Increased altitude (Only effects best IAS)

d)

Decreased altitude (Only effects best IAS)

93.

Select two types of stability

a)

Weight stability

b)

Static stability

c)

Dynamic stability

d)

Elevator stability

94.

Static stability refers to:

a)

The intermediate reaction of a disturbed object

b)

The subsequent reaction of a disturbed object

c)

The initial reaction of a disturbed object

d)

The last reaction of a disturbed object

95.

Which aircraft axis does lateral stability refer to?

a)

Lateral

b)

Normal

c)

Lateral stability only refers to helicopters

d)

Longitudinal

96.

Select the conditions required for dutch roll:

a)

Strong lateral stability

b)

Strong directional stability

c)

Weak lateral stability

d)

Weak directional stability

e)

Strong longitudinal stability

97.

Good cross wind landing technique:

a)

Involves crabbing to counter drift caused by wind

b)

Involves lowering the windward wing to counter drift caused by wind

c)

Involves decreasing approach speed to lower the effect of the cross wind

d)

Involves using both the crab method and the wing down method to achieve the best result

98.

Which is more stable on the ground?

a)

Tricycle type

b)

Tailwheel type

99.

The critical engine:

a)

Is the engine with the longest moment arm between the engine and CoG

b)

Will be the left engine if the propeller rotates anti-clockwise

c)

Is the engine with the shortest moment arm between the engine and CoG

d)

Will be the right engine if the propeller rotates clockwise

100.

The yawing moment is caused by:

a)

Increased drag on the live engine

b)

Incorrect rudder usage

c)

Increased weight on the side of the failed engine

d)

The thrust line will become offset from the CoG

101.

A quick way to remember how to identify the failed engine is:

a)

Dead leg working engine

b)

Working leg working engine

c)

Working leg dead engine

d)

Lazy leg working engine

102.

Vmca is

a)

The minimum control speed airborne. Based on full rudder and no more than 10° AoB

b)

The minimum control speed airborne. Based on half rudder and no more than 10° AoB

c)

The minimum control speed airborne. Based on half rudder and no more than 5° AoB

d)

The minimum control speed airborne. Based on full rudder and no more than 5° AoB

103.

Select all the methods of maintaining a constant heading under asymmetric flight:

a)

Using only rudder

b)

Using only bank

c)

Using only pitch

d)

Using rudder and bank

104.

TODA is:

a)

TORA - Clearway

b)

TORA + Clearway

c)

The length of runway suitable for the landing run of an aircraft

d)

The clearway available

105.

Climb gradient is the:

a)

Ratio of height gained over a horizontal distance

b)

Ratio of height gained in a given time

c)

Ratio of height gained over a vertical distance

d)

Ratio of height gained over any trees or other obstacles obstructing the take off path

106.

A runway has 1000m TORA under part 135 how much can you plan to use?

a)

1000m

b)

850ft

c)

500m

d)

850m

107.

If completing a P-Chart for runway 020 and the reported wind is 200°/5 knots what must you use for the P-Chart

a)

10 knots of headwind

b)

5 knots of tailwind

c)

10 knots of tailwind

d)

7.5 knots of tailwind

108.

The screen height for large and commuter aircraft may be:

a)

35m

b)

50m

c)

50ft

d)

35ft

109.

Select all the options that will effect takeoff performance

a)

Density Altitude

b)

Tailwind

c)

Headwind

d)

Slope

e)

Weight

110.

LDR means:

a)

The horizontal distance where the aeroplane can be brought to a complete stop with maximum breaking

b)

The length of runway that is declared by the airfield operator as available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane

c)

Longest Distance Required

d)

The horizontal distance where the aeroplane can be brought to a complete stop with maximum breaking. Measured from 50' above the threshold

111.

Using the 152 PChart.

I am taking off out of an aerodrome which I calculated to have a pressure altitude of 1000ft, it comes with a 0.5 downslope 506m paved runway. I grabbed the ATIS and it told me it is 16ºC and I could calculate the total headwind to be 10kts.
Under New Zealand law, what is the take off distance required and can we legally depart from this runway?

a)

422m, no

b)

422m, yes

c)

500m, no

d)

500m, yes

112.

Using the graph in the question.

The ensure the required legal clearance over terrain we must continue our flight at 4000ft. The OAT states it is 2ºC at the 4000ft. What is the maximum weight the aircraft can be in order to maintain a 1% climb gradient if one engine fails.

a)

4010lbs

b)

4010kgs

c)

3820lbs

d)

3770kgs

113.

If your propeller is windmilling what happens to the ATM and CTM forces?

Select all that apply

a)

ATM will act to fine the blade

b)

ATM will act to coarsen the blade

c)

CTM will act to fine the blade

d)

CTM will act to coarsen the blade

114.

Use the data in the image to help answer the question.

You used a tabulated PChart you calculated your landing distance to be 1490ft. What is your new landing distance if the grass runway you are landing on has no slope?

(give your answer in metres)

a)

1758m

b)

454m

c)

518m

d)

536m

115.

Use the table provided to assist you in answering the question.

You have calculated a landing distance of 311m, but you have to correct for the 0.36D slope of the runway. What will be your new landing distance?

a)

327m

b)

295m

c)

317m

d)

305m

116.

What do Eddies and Swirls over the surface of an aerofoil indicate?

a)

Turbulent Layer

b)

Seperation point

c)

No air is touching the surface of the aerofoil

d)

Approaching stall

117.

Using the table provided.

What is the ground roll required to takeoff on the grass runway at a given aerodrome when our take off weight is 1670ft, pressure altitude was calculated to be 4000 ft and a temperature of 23ºC the wind blowing has given us a total headwind component of 18kts.

a)

1127 ft

b)

1296 ft

c)

1166 ft

d)

1127 m

118.

What is the 'X' representing in the image?

a)

Torque

b)

Thrust

c)

Lift

d)

AoA