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Exam 2 Bio 153 Review

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 3hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two domains into which prokaryotic diversity falls?

a)

Eukarya and Archaea

b)

Bacteria and Eukarya

c)

Bacteria and Archaea

d)

Bacteria and Protista

2.

What percentage of prokaryotic forms of life are unknown and undescribed?

a)

10-20%

b)

90-99%

c)

50-60%

d)

75-85%

3.

Prokaryotes are known to colonize environments that are too extreme for which type of organisms?

a)

Archaea

b)

Viruses

c)

Eukarya

d)

Bacteria

4.

Prokaryotes have diverse capabilities in which of the following areas?

a)

Reproductive and developmental capabilities

b)

Metabolic and physiological capabilities

c)

Cognitive and behavioral capabilities

d)

Structural and mechanical capabilities

5.

What is the structure of the chromosome in prokaryotes?

a)

Single linear double-stranded DNA

b)

Single circular double-stranded DNA

c)

Multiple circular double-stranded DNA

d)

Multiple linear double-stranded DNA

6.

Are prokaryotic cells capable of forming biofilms?

a)

Yes, and they can include complex communities of different species

b)

No, they cannot form biofilms

c)

Yes, but only with identical species

d)

No, biofilms are exclusive to eukaryotic cells

7.

What is a unique feature of genetic exchange in prokaryotes?

a)

It occurs through mitosis

b)

It is a form of reproduction

c)

It allows for genetic recombination through horizontal gene transfer

d)

It happens only during meiosis

8.

Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?

a)

They have membrane-bounded organelles.

b)

Their plasma membrane cannot be infolded.

c)

They have simple flagella that are different from eukaryotic flagella.

d)

They lack metabolic diversity.

9.

Prokaryotes can use a variety of sources for energy. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a source of energy for prokaryotes in the text?

a)

Different electron donors and acceptors

b)

A variety of carbon sources

c)

Light for photosynthesis

d)

Nuclear fission

10.

In which of the following areas do bacteria and archaea differ?

a)

Ribosome function

b)

Plasma membranes

c)

Mitochondrial function

d)

Chloroplast structure

11.

Which of the following is NOT a key area where bacteria and archaea differ?

a)

Cell walls

b)

DNA replication

c)

Gene expression

d)

Protein synthesis

12.

What is one of the key areas where bacteria and archaea differ?

a)

Cytoplasmic content

b)

Cell walls

c)

Nucleus structure

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum presence

13.

How do the membranes of archaea differ from those of bacteria and eukaryotes?

a)

Archaeal membranes have the same structure as bacterial and eukaryotic membranes.

b)

Archaeal membranes have different lipid structures and bonds within the molecule.

c)

Archaeal membranes are made entirely of hydrocarbons.

d)

Archaeal membranes do not have any lipids.

14.

What adaptation allows some archaea to withstand high temperatures?

a)

Having a bilayer membrane.

b)

Having a monolayer membrane.

c)

Having no membrane at all.

d)

Having a triple-layer membrane.

15.

What is a distinctive feature of bacterial cell walls?

a)

Bacteria cell walls lack peptidoglycan.

b)

Bacteria cell walls have peptidoglycan.

c)

Bacteria cell walls are similar to eukaryotes.

d)

Bacteria cell walls are made of cellulose.

16.

Which of the following statements is true regarding archaeal DNA replication?

a)

Archaeal DNA replication is more similar to that of bacteria.

b)

Archaeal DNA replication is less similar to that of eukaryotes.

c)

Archaeal DNA replication is more similar to that of eukaryotes.

d)

Archaeal DNA replication does not have a single replication origin.

17.

How does gene expression in archaea compare to eukaryotes?

a)

Archaeal transcription and translation are less similar to those of eukaryotes.

b)

Archaeal transcription and translation are more similar to those of bacteria.

c)

Archaeal transcription and translation are more similar to those of eukaryotes.

d)

Archaeal transcription and translation are not similar to any other domain of life.

18.

Which characteristic was NOT one of the early classification characteristics for prokaryotes according to the image?

a)

Ability to produce spores

b)

Ability to move

c)

Nucleus presence

d)

Photosynthetic ability

19.

According to the early classification characteristics, which of the following was considered when classifying prokaryotes?

a)

Their multicellular structure

b)

Their cell wall structure

c)

Their eukaryotic features

d)

Their ability to reproduce sexually

20.

Which type of RNA is especially focused on during gene and RNA sequencing for molecular classification?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

snRNA

21.

What is the most comprehensive method of molecular classification listed in the document?

a)

Amino acid sequencing

b)

Nucleic acid hybridization

c)

Gene and RNA sequencing

d)

Whole-genome sequencing

22.

What is the basis for proposing several prokaryotic groupings?

a)

Genetic similarities

b)

Molecular data

c)

Physical characteristics

d)

Metabolic types

23.

What does large scale sequencing of random samples indicate about bacteria?

a)

All bacteria have been cultured

b)

Most bacteria are well studied

c)

A vast majority of bacteria have never been cultured or studied in detail

d)

Bacteria are easy to culture

24.

What type of environments do Euryarchaeota typically inhabit?

a)

Mild, temperate environments

b)

Extreme environments, such as those with high salinity or temperature

c)

Aquatic environments with stable conditions

d)

Urban environments with high pollution levels

25.

Which group within the domain Archaea is known for being mostly anaerobic and includes methanogens and halophiles?

a)

Crenarchaeota

b)

Eukaryota

c)

Euryarchaeota

d)

Bacteria

26.

Compared to Euryarchaeota, Crenarchaeota are more extreme in their tolerance to what conditions?

a)

Cold temperatures

b)

Heat and cold temperatures

c)

Heat temperatures

d)

Humid conditions

27.

Which of the following diseases is caused by spirochetes?

a)

Common cold

b)

Syphilis and Lyme disease

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Influenza

28.

Thermophiles are described as:

a)

Monophyletic and photosynthetic.

b)

Not monophyletic and chemoheterotrophs.

c)

Not monophyletic and chemoautotrophs.

d)

Monophyletic and parasites.

29.

What are the characteristics of Proteobacteria in the Domain Bacteria?

a)

Gram-positive, photoautotrophs, release oxygen

b)

Gram-negative, metabolically diverse, aerobic and anaerobic

c)

Gram-positive, metabolically limited, anaerobic only

d)

Gram-negative, photoheterotrophs, consume oxygen

30.

Which of the following bacteria is NOT an example of Proteobacteria?

a)

E. coli

b)

Salmonella

c)

Vibrio cholerae

d)

Cyanobacteria

31.

What is the significance of most bacteria within the Proteobacteria group?

a)

They are primarily involved in disease causation.

b)

They are used in bioremediation and nitrogen fixing.

c)

They are not significant in medical or agricultural contexts.

d)

They are used in industrial food production.

32.

What is the role of Cyanobacteria in photosynthesis?

a)

They consume oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

b)

They are not involved in photosynthesis.

c)

They release oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis.

d)

They fix nitrogen but do not participate in photosynthesis.

33.

What is the composition of peptidoglycan?

a)

Nucleic acids cross-linked with amino acids

b)

Polysaccharides cross-linked with polypeptides

c)

Fatty acids cross-linked with glycerol

d)

Proteins cross-linked with lipids

34.

Which organisms have a molecule similar to peptidoglycan?

a)

Plants

b)

Fungi

c)

Archaea

d)

Animals

35.

What is the purpose of the Gram stain process?

a)

To identify the type of bacterial cell wall

b)

To determine the size of bacteria

c)

To count the number of bacteria

d)

To observe the motility of bacteria

36.

What is a characteristic of most pathogenic bacteria in terms of Gram staining?

a)

They are mostly Gram-positive

b)

They are mostly Gram-negative

c)

They do not respond to Gram staining

d)

They change colors multiple times during staining

37.

Why are Gram negative bacteria often resistant to antibiotics?

a)

They have a thick layer of peptidoglycan

b)

They lack a plasma membrane

c)

They have a second outer membrane with lipopolysaccharide

d)

They can be easily killed with penicillin

38.

What is the S-layer in prokaryotic cells?

a)

A flexible protein layer found in all bacteria

b)

A rigid protein layer found in some bacteria and archaea

c)

A gelatinous layer found in some bacteria

d)

A slime layer that is highly organized

39.

Where is the S-layer located in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Inside the peptidoglycan layer

b)

Within the cytoplasm

c)

Outside of peptidoglycan or outer membrane layers in gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria

d)

Directly attached to the cell's DNA

40.

What is one of the functions of the S-layer in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Replication

b)

Adhesion

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Protein synthesis

41.

What is the capsule in prokaryotic cells?

a)

A rigid layer that provides structural support

b)

A slime layer that is highly organized

c)

A gelatinous layer found in some bacteria

d)

A protein layer that aids in cell division

42.

What are the functions of the capsule in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Aids in attachment and protects from the immune system

b)

Provides energy through photosynthesis

c)

Involved in the replication of DNA

d)

Acts as a storage for nutrients

43.

How does the slime layer of prokaryotic cells compare to the capsule?

a)

The slime layer is more rigid and organized than the capsule

b)

The slime layer is looser and less organized than the capsule

c)

The slime layer is found inside the cell, while the capsule is outside

d)

The slime layer aids in photosynthesis, unlike the capsule

44.

What is the structure of bacterial flagella?

a)

Short, hairlike structures

b)

Long, flexible, helical structures

c)

Slender, rigid, helical structures

d)

Composed of multiple protein fibers

45.

What is the function of bacterial flagella?

a)

Attachment and conjugation

b)

DNA replication

c)

Locomotion, spinning like a propeller

d)

Nutrient absorption

46.

What do endospores develop around their genome and some of the cytoplasm when exposed to?

a)

Nutrient-rich environments

b)

Environmental stress

c)

Low temperature conditions

d)

High oxygen levels

47.

Endospores are highly resistant to what type of environmental stress?

a)

Chemical exposure

b)

Heat

c)

Radiation

d)

High pressure

48.

What can endospores do when environmental conditions improve?

a)

Multiply rapidly

b)

Germinate and return to normal cell division

c)

Become dormant

d)

Die off

49.

Which diseases are caused by bacteria that can form endospores?

a)

Influenza, pneumonia, and tuberculosis

b)

Tetanus, botulism, and anthrax

c)

HIV, hepatitis, and malaria

d)

Measles, mumps, and rubella

50.

What components make up a virus?

a)

RNA or DNA surrounded by a lipid envelope

b)

RNA or DNA enclosed within a protein shell

c)

Both RNA and DNA within a carbohydrate coat

d)

A combination of proteins, a lipid bilayer, and RNA

51.

What occurs once the virus enters the host cell?

a)

it starts synthesizing proteins

b)

it undergoes replication

c)

it integrates into the host's genetic material

d)

it activates its infectious phase

52.

What is the composition of the outer layer of a virus?

a)

proteins

b)

sugars

c)

fats

d)

minerals

53.

Why are viruses often not considered living entities by biologists?

a)

they need a host cell to replicate

b)

they do not perform metabolic activities

c)

they lack cellular structure

d)

all of the mentioned reasons

e)

none of the mentioned reasons

54.

What happens in the lytic cycle?

a)

the spacecraft shaped virus attaches to the host cell then leaves

b)

the spacecraft virus kills the host cell

c)

the spacecraft shaped virus attaches to the host cells and as it leaves it kills the host cell

d)

the spacecraft virus attaches to the host cell injects DNA as the virus leaves it kills the host cell

55.

What is the name of the protein shell that encases the genetic material of a virus?

a)

membrane

b)

capsule

c)

capsid

d)

lipid layer

56.

Viral DNA that is incorporated into a host cell's chromosome is called a

a)

provirus

b)

plasmid

c)

party animal

d)

prophage

57.

What does the term 'obligate intracellular parasite' mean?

a)

does not need a host to survive

b)

needs a host to survive

58.

Which feature is shared by both viruses and bacteria?

a)

Ability to reproduce independently

b)

Presence of a cellular structure

c)

Containment of nucleic acids as genetic material

d)

Capability for photosynthesis

59.

Which of the following viruses utilize single-stranded RNA as a template for synthesizing DNA?

a)

temperate phages

b)

oncoviruses

c)

lysogenic viruses

d)

retroviruses

e)

prions

60.

What type of virus infects bacterial cells?

a)

Retrovirus

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Adenovirus

d)

Herpesvirus

61.

What part of the phage is the tail fibers?

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
62.

What are prions?

a)

Infectious RNA molecules

b)

Initial amino acids in proteins of eukaryotes

c)

Proteins around which DNA is coiled

d)

Proteins that have misfolded

63.

What role do the spikes on a virus's surface play?

a)

They assist in the virus's reproduction

b)

They enable the virus to attach to and enter host cells

c)

They are involved in the virus's nutrient absorption

d)

They protect the virus from the host's immune system

64.
Why do doctors suggest people get a flu vaccine every year?
a)
Flu viruses replicate more rapidly over time
b)
Flu viruses can mutate from year to year
c)
Vaccines are absorbed by the body after a year
d)
Vaccines get stronger over time
65.

What is a defining feature of the lytic cycle in the context of viral replication?

a)

The host's DNA is replaced with viral DNA.

b)

Viral DNA merges with the host's genome and lies dormant.

c)

Viruses replicate without causing immediate harm to the host cell.

d)

It results in the destruction of the host cell due to the release of new viruses.

66.

What is the term for the process where there is a major change in the influenza virus due to the reassortment of genes from two different strains, leading to a new subtype?

a)

Antigenic drift

b)

Antigenic shift

c)

Genetic recombination

d)

Phenotypic modulation

67.

What was the nature of the earliest organisms on Earth in terms of their cellular structure and oxygen requirements?

a)

eukaryotic and aerobic

b)

eukaryotic and anaerobic

c)

prokaryotic and aerobic

d)

prokaryotic and anaerobic

68.

Which gas is believed to have been missing from the primordial Earth's atmosphere, considering the environmental conditions of that era?

a)

Nitrogen (N2)

b)

Hydrogen (H2)

c)

Oxygen (O2)

d)

Ammonia (NH3)

e)

Argon (Ar)

69.

What was the primary purpose of the 1953 Miller-Urey experiment, and why is its outcome considered significant in the study of the origins of life?

a)

It aimed to demonstrate the role of water in the formation of life, which remains a controversial theory.

b)

It sought to prove that organic molecules could be synthesized from inorganic substances through natural processes.

c)

The experiment was designed to show the impact of solar radiation on the evolution of life forms on Earth.

d)

Its goal was to test the viability of amino acids surviving in the harsh conditions of early Earth.

70.

Considering the theory of endosymbiosis, why would early eukaryotic cells containing organelles similar to mitochondria be considered evolutionarily advantageous?

a)

They could replicate faster than other cells

b)

They could utilize energy more efficiently

c)

They had a larger size

d)

They could resist viruses more effectively

71.

These scientists proved that organic molecules formed from inorganic molecules present in the Earth’s early atmosphere when given energy from lightening.

a)

Lennon and McCartney

b)

Einstein and Newton

c)

Watson and Crick

d)

Miller and Urey

72.

Which of the following organelles are believed to have originated from prokaryotic cells being absorbed by ancestral eukaryotic cells?

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum and Golgi Apparatus

b)

Mitochondria and Chloroplasts

c)

Nucleus and Ribosomes

d)

Lysosomes and Peroxisomes

73.

What was formed in the Miller-Urey experiments?

a)

amino acids

b)

proteins

c)

living cells

d)

DNA

74.

Organic molecules can form spontaneously from inorganic materials

a)

True

b)

False 

75.

What are the gases found in primitive air? 

a)

Hydrogen

Methane

Water

C02

b)

Oxygen

Methane

Chlorine

c)

Methane 

Silicon

Oxygen

d)

Water 

Oxugen

CO2

Methane

76.
If we wanted to model the introduction of oxygen to this model, where would it take place?
a)
from the atmosphere to the ocean
b)
from the ocean to the atmosphere
c)
from the sediment to the atmosphere
d)
from the ocean to the sediment
77.

Which era is known for the earliest known records of many major groups of animals and plants?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Cambrian

c)

Devonian

d)

Carboniferous

78.

During what Era do we currently live?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Precambrian

79.

violent and chaotic with constant meteor and asteroid bombardment; toxic and noxious atmosphere; no life

a)

transform

b)

Early Earth

c)

seafloor spreading

d)

cyanobacteria

80.

dome shaped rock made from cyanobacteria; some of the oldest fossils in the world

a)

stromatolites

b)

zircon

c)

iron banded formations

d)

convection current

81.

Identify the ancient photosynthetic organisms believed to be among the earliest forms of life on Earth.

a)

archaea

b)

cyanobacteria

c)

diatoms

d)

red algae

82.

A theory stating that the Earth's surface is broken into plates that move (transform, convergent, divergent boundaries)

a)

Early Earth

b)

iron banded formations

c)

convection currents

d)

Plate Tectonics

83.

These are the longest units of geologic time.

a)

eons

b)

era

c)

period

d)

epoch

84.

During the Paleozoic Era, the continents were together in a super-continent known as ________.

a)

Pangaea

b)

Gondwana

c)

Pangaea Ultima

d)

Anteurasiafricalia

85.

The Earth is _____________________ years old.

a)

4.6 million

b)

4.6 billion

c)

4.6 trillion

d)

4.6 zillion

86.

The three earliest eons make up 90% of geologic time, known as Precambrian. Which of the following is the correct sequence of these eons from OLDEST TO YOUNGEST?

a)

Hadean, Proterozoic, Archean

b)

Archean, Proterozoic, Hadean

c)

Hadean, Archean, Proterozoic

d)

Proterozoic, Hadean, Archean

87.

Named after the Greek underworld "Hades" due to the extreme conditions that characterized this eon.

a)

Hadean

b)

Archean

c)

Proterozoic

d)

Phanerozoic

88.

During which eon did Earth experience a cooling phase, allowing single-celled prokaryotic life forms to flourish?

a)

Hadean

b)

Archean

c)

Proterozoic

d)

Phanerozoic

89.

The fossil record shows that multicellular organisms first appeared during this eon.

a)

Hadean

b)

Archean

c)

Proterozoic

d)

Phanerozoic

90.

There are no fossils from this eon

a)

Hadean

b)

Archean

c)

Proterozoic

d)

Phanerozoic

91.

Apart from offering protection to a virus, what is another function of the virus's protein coat?

a)

Interact with the host cell's membrane

b)

Inject genetic material into the host cell

c)

Synthesize proteins inside the host cell

d)

Eliminate the host cell's nucleus

92.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
93.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
94.

Identify structure Z.

a)

Capsid

b)

Membrane Envelope

c)

Viral Genome (RNA/DNA)

d)

Glycoproteins

95.

The scientific name for the "spikes" on a virus

a)

Capsid

b)

Membrane Envelope

c)

Viral Genome (RNA/DNA)

d)

Glycoproteins

96.

Derived (Stolen) from the membranes of the host cell

a)

Capsid

b)

Membrane Envelope

c)

Viral Genome (RNA/DNA)

d)

Glycoproteins

97.

Also known as a "protein coat"

a)

Capsid

b)

Membrane Envelope

c)

Viral Genome (RNA/DNA)

d)

Glycoproteins

98.
Bacteriophages are and example of a 
a)
complex virus
b)
helical virus
c)
enveloped virus
d)
polyhedral virus
99.
Complete, fully developed infectious viral particle which has a nucleic acid and protein coat. 
a)
lysozyme
b)
prion
c)
viroid
d)
viron
100.
Has a cylindrical capsid. Ebola and rabies are examples
a)
Polyhedral virus
b)
Complex virus
c)
Enveloped virus
d)
Helical virus
101.

Naked RNA with  no protein coat – sometimes found in plants

a)

Virion

b)

immature virus

c)

viroid

d)

host

102.

How is influenza an example of a zoonotic disease?

a)

a disease that can pass from species to species

b)

a disease that stays in one species

c)

a disease that is a

dead end disease

103.

If a virus only passes its genetic material to the cell without making copies of itself this means the virus is _____________.

a)

active

b)

latent

c)

sleeping

104.
A prion is a bad protein.
a)
True
b)
False
105.

A prion is:

a)

misfolded tissue

b)

a misfolded protein

c)

misfolded nervous tissue

d)

misfolded cells

106.

Which four help classify a virus?

a)

Shape (morphology)

b)

Size

c)

Type of genetic Material

d)

type of host (what it takes over)

e)

Gram positivity

107.

Which of the following is a recognized shape of viral capsids?

a)

spherical

b)

icosahedral

c)

cuboidal

d)

hexagonal

108.

Antigenic shifts can lead to the development of novel viruses that cause pandemics.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

In viruses, protein spikes on the outer surface are responsible for _________.

a)

attachment

b)

replication

c)

protein synthesis

d)

translation

110.

Viruses can be a variety of shapes. Identify the various names of viral shapes.

a)

Icosahedral

b)

Helical

c)

Coccus

d)

Complex

e)

Bacillus

111.

How does an amoeba move?

a)

It uses cilia.

b)

It uses a flagellum.

c)

It uses pseudopods.

d)

It cannot move.

112.
The word "pseudopodia" means
a)
small cell
b)
fake eye
c)
false foot
d)
first animal
113.

Which organelle functions to remove excess water in many protists?

a)

micronucleus

b)

contractile vacuole

c)

food vacuole

d)

oral groove

114.

The long, whip-like structure which helps some protists move is called the ______________.

a)

cilia

b)

flagellum

c)

tail

d)

pseudopod

115.
Protist?
a)
Euglena
b)
Paramecium
c)
Amoeba
d)
Volvox
116.
Protist?
a)
Euglena
b)
Paramecium
c)
Amoeba
d)
Stentor
117.

Which organelles found in algae are the sites of photosynthesis?

a)

eyespots

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplasts

d)

contractile vacuoles

118.
True or False: Kingdom Protista belongs to the Domain Eukarya.
a)
True
b)
False
119.
All protists are __________________________.
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Unicellular
d)
Multicellular
120.
What is the nickname for Kingdom Protista?
a)
"Kingdom of Everything"
b)
"Junk Drawer Kingdom"
c)
"Crazy Kingdom"
d)
"Kingdom of Nonsense"
121.
Saprobe is another term which means "decomposer." Identify an example of a saprotrophic protist.
a)
Slime Mold
b)
Euglena
c)
Amoeba
d)
Paramecium
122.
Which number in the paramecium diagram is pointing to the cilia?
a)
1
b)
5
c)
9
d)
4
123.
which animal-like protest causes malaria
a)
giardia lamblia
b)
paramecium
c)
plasmodium vivax
d)
typanosma
124.
structure that controls the cell functions in a paramecium
a)
macronucleus
b)
micronucleus
125.
structure that passes genetic traits from one paramecium to another
a)
micronucleus
b)
macronucleus
126.
some protists reproduce sexually through conjugation, some asexually through binary fission and some both
a)
true
b)
false
127.

These have a macronucleus and micronucleus.

a)

zooflagellates (Giardia)

b)

sporozoans (Plasmodium)

c)

ciliates (Paramecium)

d)

sarcodines (Amoeba)

128.

What is the insect vector for malaria?

a)

Anopheles mosquito

b)

Tsetse fly

c)

kissing bug

d)

Domestic feline

129.

Sponges (phylum: Porifera) are animals that possess feeding cells called collar cells. These cells have a central flagellum surrounded by a collar of microvilli. The collar filters organic matter out of the water column. Which protists share a most recent common ancestor with the poriferans?

a)

Ciliates

b)

Rhodophytes

c)

Choanoflagellates

d)

Radiolarians

130.

The Irish potato famine in the 1840's was caused in large part by a proliferation of a(n)

a)

Oomycete

b)

Dinoflagellate

c)

Chlorophyte

d)

Paramecia

131.

Which feature unites paramecia, malarial parasites, and dinoflagellates into a single group?

a)

The use of cilia

b)

Parasitic life style

c)

Type of Ribosomes

d)

Possession of Alveoli

132.

A patient presents in an ER with severe stomach cramps and diarrhea. She was recently swimming in unclean water. Which protist would be the most likely cause of her symptoms?

a)

Giardia

b)

Plasmodium

c)
Toxoplasma gondii
d)

Trypanosome

133.

What would be strong evidence to suggest a protist is phagotrophic?

a)
Actively engulfing and consuming other organisms or particles
b)
Having a rigid cell wall made of cellulose
c)
Reproducing asexually through binary fission
d)
Photosynthetic and producing oxygen
134.

What would be strong evidence to suggest a protist is phototrophic?

a)

Presence of chloroplasts

b)
Ability to form spores
c)
Presence of flagella
d)
Ability to produce methane
135.

Which are features of mitochondria that reflect their endosymbiotic origin?

a)

Have their own Circular DNA

b)

Genes translated by ribosomes similar to bacterial ribosomes.

c)
Inability to replicate independently
d)

They replicate via meiosis, just like bacteria.

136.

If a researcher wants to create a phylogeny showing relationships of different groups of algae, which type of DNA would be best to compare, and why?

a)

Chloroplast DNA, because it will reflect algal relationships better than nuclear DNA.

b)

Ribosomal DNA, because it is unique to algae.

c)

Mitochondrial DNA, because only chloroplasts are from endosymbiosis.

d)

Nuclear DNA, because chloroplast DNA will reflect primary and secondary endosymbiosis

137.

A biologist uses a time machine to collect living material from two different time periods. Sample A is 3 billion years old, and sample B is 1.5 billion years old. How would these samples differ?


a)

Prokaryotic organisms would be abundant in sample A but absent from sample B.


b)

Eukaryotic organisms would be present in both samples but much more common in sample B.


c)

Prokaryotic organisms would only occur in sample B.


d)

Eukaryotic organisms would be absent from sample A.

138.

The (a)   are a group within the Euglenozoa that have a unique, single mitochondrion with minicircles and maxicircles of DNA linked in chains.

139.

The members of (a)   include dinoflagellates, apicomplexans, and ciliates.

140.

All apicomplexans are nonmotile, spore forming, and live as (a)   in animals.

141.

The common characteristic of Alveolata is

a)
Presence of alveoli
b)
Presence of flagella
c)
Absence of nucleus
d)
Ability to photosynthesize
142.

A common characteristic of choanoflagellates is


a)
Ability to photosynthesize
b)
Lack of a collar flagellum
c)

presence of a funnel-shaped, contractile collar.


d)
Presence of a hard exoskeleton
143.

The marine multicellular protists including the larger brown algae belong to the


a)

dinoflagellates

b)

choanoflagellates

c)

stramenopiles

d)

foraminifera

144.

Organisms that are characterized by being unicellular, photosynthetic, and having double shells made of silica are known as


a)
Amoebas
b)
Diatoms
c)
Euglenas
d)
Paramecia
145.

The tropical diseases such as African sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis are caused by


a)

foraminifera

b)

sporozoans

c)

oomycetes

d)

trypanosomes

146.

All (a)   have two very different types of nuclei within their cells, small micronuclei and larger macronuclei.

147.

Protists are classified into a single kingdom because of which of the following features?


a)

They are monophyletic.


b)
Belonging to multiple kingdoms
c)

They are unicellular.


d)

They are eukaryotes, but not fungi, plants, or animals.


148.

Which of the following is true about Euglena?

a)

They belong to the same phylum as Paramecium.


b)

They do not have flagella.


c)

They lack chloroplasts.


d)

They can be both autotrophs and heterotrophs.


149.

The White Cliffs of Dover, a famous landmark in England, is made of limestone, which is really a collection of the pore-studded shells (tests) of

a)

diatoms

b)
coral reefs
c)

foraminifera

d)

spirochetes

150.

Trypanosomiasis is spread by


a)
tsetse fly
b)
mosquito
c)
flea
d)
tick
151.

Vacuoles for ingesting food and regulating their water balance are characteristic of


a)

sporozoans.


b)
Bacteria
c)

trypanosomes

d)

ciliates

152.

Conjugating ciliates exchange a pair of haploid micronuclei that undergo mitosis as a diploid micronucleus, while the macronucleus in each


a)

Fuses with each other

b)

Divides

c)

Disentegrates

d)

Gets expelled

153.

The malarial parasite, Plasmodium, is a member of the group


a)

Euglenozoa

b)

Stramenopiles

c)

Alveolata

d)

Diplomonads

154.

In addition to the true amoebas (Rhizopoda), another group with pseudopods are the


a)

Euglenozoa

b)

Stramenopila

c)

Radiolarians

d)

Diplomonads

155.

Some photosynthetic euglenids can also ingest dissolved or particulate food. Which one of the following terms would best describe such a protist?


a)
mixotroph
b)
heterotroph
c)
autotroph
d)
parasite
156.

Which of the following are not shapes of bacteria

a)

Cube

b)

Spiral

c)

Sphere

d)

Rod

157.

A bacterium reproduces asexually by dividing to form two new bacterial cells. What is the name of the process by which bacteria reproduce?

a)

meiosis

b)

budding

c)

binary fission

158.

Prokaryotes that like to live in extreme environments

a)

Eubacteria

b)

Archaea

c)

Bacteriophage

159.

Structure on bacteria used to stick to other bacteria or other surfaces.

a)

cilia

b)

flagellum

c)

Pili

160.

Which cycle kills the host cell immediately?

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

161.

When viral DNA integrates with host cell DNA, this is called a:

a)

capsid

b)

bacteriophage

c)

retrovirus

d)

provirus

162.

A virus that hides within the host cell for up to years is going through the _______ cycle.

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

163.

Identify the shape and arrangement of this bacterium.

a)

single bacillus

b)

single spirrillium

c)

strepto bacillius

d)

strepto coccus

164.

Identify the shape and arrangement of this bacterium.

a)

singel bacillus

b)

diplo bacillius

c)

strepto bacillius

d)

strepto coccus

165.

Identify the shape and arrangement of this bacteria.

a)

diplo coccus

b)

strepto coccus

c)

staphlo coccus

d)

coccus tetrad

166.
One way in which bacteria are beneficial:
a)
they make food
b)
they cause disease
c)
they cause food poisoning
d)
they create sugar
167.
Another way in which bacteria are beneficial:
a)
they are decomposers
b)
they are the powerhouse of cells
c)
they contain special DNA
d)
they are used to make Diet Coke
168.
A third way in which bacterial are beneficial:
a)
they are apex predators
b)
they cause the change of seasons
c)
they help with bioremediation
d)
they help with the process of mitosis
169.

Thick peptidoglycan in cell wall

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Gram negative bacteria

170.

Thin peptidoglycan in cell wall

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Gram negative bacteria

171.

Stained pink

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Gram negative bacteria

172.

Stains purple

a)

Gram positive bacteria

b)

Gram negative bacteria

173.

What makes up cell wall of some prokaryotes?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Chitin

c)

Peptidoglycan

174.

I am single celled. I am prokaryotic. I have a cell wall that's not made of peptidoglycan. I also live in very extreme conditions. Which domain do I belong in?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Archea

c)

Eukarya

175.

Archaea can be classified as Extremophiles because of their ability to live in extreme environments. What is an example of an Extremophile?

a)

Halophiles

b)

Thermophiles

c)

Methanogens

d)

All the Following are Extremeophiles

176.

What is transformation?

a)

The use of viruses to transform or genetically


engineer cells.

b)

The measure of how well cells are transformed in a new phenotype.

c)

The insertion of a foreign plasmid into a bacterial cell which results in new acquired traits.

d)

Genetic engineering or transformation of mammalian cells.

177.

Which image is a plasmid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
178.

When bacteria is able to take up DNA, it is considered

a)

permeable

b)

semi-permeable

c)

competent

d)

curated

179.

A small, rounded, thick-walled resting cell inside a bacterial cell

a)

Endospore

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Pasteurization

d)

Flagellum

180.

A process by which bacteria reproduce sexually

a)

conjugation

b)

binary fission

c)

endospore

d)

decomposers

181.

What is the name of the bacteria shape in the image?

a)

Bacilli

b)

Cocci

c)

Spirilla

182.

What is the name of the bacteria shape in the image?

a)

Bacilli

b)

Cocci

c)

Spirilla

183.

What is the name of the bacteria shape in the image?

a)

Bacilli

b)

Cocci

c)

Spirilla

184.

Archaebacteria (Select all that apply)

a)

Live in extremely harsh environments

b)

are the most common type of bacteria

c)

are ancient bacteria

185.

Viral DNA that is incorporated into a host cell's chromosome is called a

a)

provirus

b)

plasmid

c)

party animal

d)

prophage