Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

NOCTI Practice

Total questions: 168

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This form of law enforcement places an emphasis on community relationships and preventing crimes before they occur.

a)

Reactive Law Enforcement

b)

Proactive Law Enforcement

2.

This model believes that the criminal justice system - police, courts, and corrections - work in alignment with the goal of justice.

a)

Consensus Model

b)

Conflict Model

c)

Miranda Rights

d)

Proactive Law Enforcement

3.

This Amendment provides protection against illegal search and seizures.

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

4.

This Amendment guarantees a speedy, fair, public trial with an impartial jury and the right to confront witnesses.

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

5.

This Amendment protects the convicted from cruel and unusual punishment.

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

6.

This cases states that the accused must be provided legal counsel, even if they cannot afford one.

a)

Miranda v. Arizona

b)

Gideon v. Wainwright

c)

Mapp v. Ohio

d)

Weeks v. US

7.

The ______________ states that illegal obtained evidence cannot be used in court.

a)

Miranda Warnings

b)

Bill of Rights

c)

Exclusionary Rule

d)

Public Order Advocate

8.

A _______ believes that Constitutional Rights are more important than public order; A __________ believes that civil liberties should be placed on hold to protect the public.

a)

Public Order Advocate; Individual Rights Advocate

b)

Conservative; Liberal

c)

Individual Rights Advocate; Public Order Advocate

9.

_________ established the Exclusionary Rules at the Federal Level while _____________ established the Exclusionary Rule at the state and local level.

a)

Mapp v. Ohio; Weeks v. US

b)

Weeks v. US; Mapp v. Ohio

c)

Weeks v. US; Miranda v. Arizona

d)

Mapp v. Ohio; Gideon v. Wainwright

10.

Which of the following is NOT guaranteed under the 5th Amendment?

a)

Due Process

b)

Eminent Domain

c)

The right to avoid self-incrimination

d)

Double Jeopardy

e)

None of the above

11.

The criminal justice system consists of

a)

arrest, police, and prisons

b)

courts, corrections, and punishments

c)

police, courts, and corrections

d)

sentencing, courts, and corrections

12.

An authorization by the court to make an arrest is a(n)

a)

probable cause

b)

reasonable doubt

c)

due process rights

d)

arrest warrant

13.

Before a defendant can be tried, a formal charge, or ____________ must be made.

a)

prosecution

b)

arraignment

c)

defense

d)

indictment

14.

A person who is accused of a crime is called a _____________ in court.

a)

juror

b)

prosecutor

c)

criminal

d)

defendant

15.

If there is reasonable doubt that a person is innocent of a crime, he or she ...

a)

must be acquitted

b)

can't receive a jury trial

c)

will receive a fine

d)

will be taken to prison

16.

When an accused person pleads guilty to a lesser charge than the original charge in order to receive a lesser punishment - it is called a(n)

a)

parole

b)

plea bargain

c)

acquittal

d)

sentencing

17.

Many people feel that imprisonment is a

a)

form of punishment for criminals

b)

deterrent to crime

c)

form of rehabilitation to get offenders back on their feet

d)

ALL options apply

18.

The harshest punishment for a crime is

a)

imprisonment

b)

capital punishment

c)

maximum-security prison

d)

probation

19.

Which of the following are prisoners eligible for after they have served a part of their prison sentences?

a)

probation

b)

plea bargain

c)

parole

d)

acquittal

20.

If a person is found guilty of a crime, the judge decides punishment in a process called...

a)

plea bargaining

b)

arraignment

c)

preliminary hearing

d)

sentencing

21.

Witnessing of a crime or gathering evidence that enables a police officer to make an arrest

a)

reasonable doubt

b)

arraignment

c)

probable cause

d)

arrest warrant

22.

Time in the court process when a defendant enters a plea of guilty or not guilty to the charge

a)

acquittal

b)

preliminary hearing

c)

arraignment

d)

sentencing

23.

Must be read to a suspect when arrested

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

the 5th amendment

c)

Mediation rights

d)

Miranda rights

24.

Acquittal means ..

a)

act of the jury finding a defendant not guilty

b)

pleading to a lesser offense for a lighter sentence

c)

pleading guilty

d)

having enough evidence to arrest

25.

Bail is...

a)

not having enough evidence to go to trial

b)

money used to get out of jail but guarantees you will return for trial

c)

having probable cause to make an arrest

d)

having reasonable doubt

26.

System that isolated criminal using solitary confinement with no interaction with other prisoners?

a)

New York System

b)

Pennsylvania System

c)

Auburn System

d)

Texas System

27.

System where prisoners worked during the day but were isolated at night?

a)

Pennsylvania System

b)

New York System

c)

Texas System

d)

Chicago System

28.

Early forms of criminal punishment included ________?

a)

Whipping (flogged)

b)

Branding

c)

Hanging

d)

All answers are correct

29.

Which system used prisoners after the Civil War as a way to rebuild the south?

a)

Contract system

b)

Congregate system

c)

Lease system

d)

Rehabilitation system

30.

Which system sold inmate's labor to private employer's?

a)

Lease system

b)

Congregate system

c)

Contract system

d)

Rehabilitation system

31.

The first penitentiary in the United States was in which state?

a)

New York, New York

b)

Philadelphia, Pennsylvania

c)

Fort Worth, Texas

d)

Chicago, Illinois

32.

The first penitentiary was called _______?

a)

Walnut Grove Jail

b)

Pecan Street Jail

c)

Walnut Street Jail

d)

Pecan Grove Jail

33.

A model of corrections that emphasized vocational and educational training?

a)

Rehabilitation model

b)

Crime control model

c)

Community model

d)

Justice model

34.

Model that emphasized a goal of reintegrating offenders back into society and the community.

a)

Rehabiltation model

b)

Crime control model

c)

Community model

d)

Justice model

35.

Model that's based on assumption that criminal behavior can be controlled with more prison time.

a)

Rehabilitation model

b)

Crime control model

c)

Contract model

d)

Community model

36.

What are the three levels or classifications of corrections in Mississippi?

a)

Minimum, Medium, Intermediate

b)

Minimum, Intermediate, Maximum

c)

Minimum, Medium, Maximum

d)

Minimum, Maximum, Super Maximum

37.

Prisoner's in this color jump suit are considered?

a)

Medium security

b)

Maximum security

c)

Minimum security

d)

Reception and reclassification

38.

Prisoner's in a Red & White stripped jumpsuit are considered to be which classification?

a)

Minimum

b)

Medium

c)

Maximum (High)

d)

Reception & Classification

39.

This prisoner would be classified as which level?

a)

High security

b)

Low security

c)

Medium security

d)

Reception and Classification

40.

Which of the following prisons in Mississippi is responsible for housing men on death row?

a)

George-Greene Regional Facility

b)

Parchman

c)

Central Mississippi Correctional Facility

d)

South Mississippi Correctional Facility

41.

Which facility in Rankin County houses the majority of women offenders?

a)

Parchman

b)

Central Mississippi Correctional Facility

c)

South Mississippi Correctional Facility

d)

George-Greene Regional Facility

42.

Federal institutions that house offenders for more than one year?

a)

Jail

b)

Prison

43.

Local facilities that detain offender for less than one year?

a)

Jail

b)

Prison

44.

Jails in the United States originated from which country?

a)

Germany

b)

France

c)

Italy

d)

England

45.

Which court case dealt with inmates ability to correspond with other inmates using mail?

a)

Cooper v. Pate

b)

Turner v. Safely

c)

Hudson v. Palmer

d)

Terry v. Ohio

46.

Hudson v. Palmer allows prison officials to do which of the following?

a)

Search and confiscate materials found in a cell

b)

Use excessive force to detain an inmate

c)

Violate an inmates Civil Rights

d)

Prohibit inmates freedom of religion

47.

Which individual typically has the responsibility of managing a prison?

a)

Sheriff

b)

Warden

c)

Deputy

d)

Probation board

48.

Early release granted by a judge, usually occurs before time is served?

a)

Parole

b)

Probation

c)

Clemency

d)

Pardon

49.

Early release granted by a board after an offender has served time?

a)

Pardon

b)

Probation

c)

Parole

d)

Reprieve

50.

Given by a governor for state crimes and a president for federal crimes allowing the offender to go free?

a)

Parole

b)

Clemency

c)

Probation

d)

Reprieve

51.

First state to introduce probation as a punishment option?

a)

Texas

b)

Massachusetts

c)

New York

d)

Florida

52.

Temporary suspension of a sentence while a person tries to get a reduction in their sentence.

a)

Clemency

b)

Pardon

c)

Parole

d)

Reprieve

53.

Parole is given by which of the following?

a)

Sheriff

b)

Judge

c)

Parole Board

d)

Govenor

54.

Probation is granted by which of the following?

a)

Judge

b)

Warden

c)

Sheriff

d)

Parole Board

55.

Clemency or a pardon would be granted by which of the following?

a)

Judge

b)

Parole Board

c)

Pardon Board

d)

Governor

56.

Period where England and France looked at prisoner behavior and punishment.

a)

Reformation period

b)

Industrial period

c)

Enlightenment period

d)

Corrections period

57.

Programs or services responsible for the management of individuals accused of crimes.

a)

Corrections

b)

Institutions

c)

Prisons

d)

Schools

58.

The Auburn, New York system was developed by:

a)

John Sims

b)

Eliam Llynds

c)

Walker Jones

d)

Elvis Drummond

59.

The 14th Amendment protects which two rights as it relates to inmates?

a)

Privacy, Freedom of Speech

b)

Due Process, Freedom of Religion

c)

Due Process, Equal Protection

d)

Equal Protection, Privacy

60.

The first women's prison was located in which state?

a)

New York

b)

Indiana

c)

Florida

d)

Texas

61.

The purpose of arraignment is to?

a)

Enter a plea

b)

Argue with the prosecution

c)

Hold a trial

d)

Get out of jail

62.

What are the advantages of a plea bargain? (Choose all that apply)

a)

Lower sentences

b)

Higher sentences

c)

No trial

d)

VIP area in prison

e)

Reduced charges

63.

What is one major issue with plea bargains?

a)

Guilty people get out earlier

b)

Juvenile offenders will not be punished

c)

People may plead guilty to get out of jail even when they are innocent.

d)

Plea bargains cost more than trials.

64.

Who determines if it is a jury trial or a bench trial?

a)

The Judge

b)

The Governor

c)

The Defendant

d)

The Victim's Family

65.

What percentage of the jurors must vote guilty for a defendant to be convicted?

a)

Half

b)

Half plus 1

c)

Two-thirds

d)

All

66.

If you are convicted of a crime and you keep appealing, which court is your last chance?

a)

US Court of Appeals

b)

US District Court

c)

US Supreme Court

d)

Municipal Court

67.
The _____________has the responsibility to prove guilt beyond a reasonable doubt
a)
Judge
b)
Jury
c)
Prosecutor
d)
Defendant
68.
Imprisonment in a jail or prison is also known as
a)
Punitive damages
b)
Incarceration
c)
Demeanor
d)
Probabtion
69.
The criminal justice system consist of
a)
Law enforcement (police)
b)
Courts and corrections
c)
Prosecutors and defense attorneys
d)
All the above
70.
Which courtroom workgroup actor is responsible for maintaining custody of the jury 
a)
Clerk of Courts
b)
Bailiff
c)
Court Reporter
d)
Sherrif's Deputy
71.
A written order issued by judicial officer or grand jury requiring an individual to appear in court and give testimony or bring evidence material. 
a)
Court order
b)
Subpeona
c)
Prosecution
d)
Writ 
72.
What are the 2 levels of the dual court system in the US? 
a)
State and federal
b)
Felony and misdemeanors
c)
General and appellate 
d)
Decision and procedural 
73.
What is release on recognizance
a)
to clear a debt
b)
Shaquitta Carlos
c)
to make sure you pay your bond
d)
the promise that you come back to court as promise.
74.
What is the primary purpose of criminal trial
a)
to place a sentencing on a person
b)
to give them a court hearing
c)
determine the guilt or innocence of a person.
d)
to organize the paper work of the criminal
75.

Which of the following interrogation techniques are not prohibited?

a)

Force

b)

Torture

c)

Threats

d)

Lying

76.

A court session at which a defendant is charged and enters a plea is _____________.

a)

A booking

b)

An arraignment

c)

An indictment

d)

A preliminary hearing

77.

Jury selection takes place during __________________.

a)

Waiver

b)

Voir Dire

c)

Retribution

d)

Habeus Corpus

78.

Which of the following is a reason an attorney can dismiss a potential juror?

a)

Race

b)

National Origin

c)

Gender

d)

Relationship to Victim

79.

Which of the following is NOT a constitutional due process right?

a)

Right to an attorney

b)

Right to dismiss jurors

c)

Right to confront witnesses

d)

Right to speedy trial

80.

Someone who does not have the financial means to hire an attorney is _____________.

a)

Indigent

b)

Immune

c)

Incapacitated

d)

Interrogated

81.

A judge’s order that something be done is a ________________.

a)

Voir Dire

b)

Habeus Corpus

c)

Writ

d)

Nolo Contendere

82.

What type of release has no requirements attached?

a)

Suspended Sentence

b)

Parole

c)

Probation

d)

Work Release

83.

The act of restoring, repaying, or refunding is ______________.

a)

Restitution

b)

Revocation

c)

Retribution

d)

Reentry

84.

A grand jury's formal charge or accusation of criminal action

a)

indictment

b)

arrest

c)

pre-trial hearing

d)

plea bargain

85.

A group that hears preliminary evidence to decide if there is reason to formally charge someone with a crime

a)

pre-trial diversion

b)

Grand Jury

c)

Booking

d)

arrest

86.

The formal process of making a police record of an arrest.

a)

arrest

b)

booking

c)

pre-trial motion

d)

plea bargain

87.

money or property put up by the accused to allow release from jail before trial

a)

bail

b)

arrest

c)

pre-trial diversion

d)

arraignment

88.

When a person is released before the completion of a sentence on the promise of good behavior:

a)

Parole

b)

Waiver

c)

Amnesty

d)

Judicial will and pleasure

89.

When a trial or jury is moved from one jurisdiction to another for just cause it is called:

a)

Change of venue

b)

Judicial modification

c)

trial de neovo

d)

Re-trial of fact

90.

A crime generally punishable by a

fine or by incarceration in jail for not more

than one year and less than $1000.00

a)

Felony

b)

Complaint

c)

Misdemeanor

d)

Ordinace

91.

A standard of proof that requires evidence

sufficient to make a reasonable person

believe that, more likely than not, the

proposed action is justified.

a)

Proof of Burden

b)

Suspicious

c)

Probable Cause

d)

Gut Feeling

92.

A legal position taken by the accused is called what?

a)

Defense

b)

Prosecutor

c)

Subpoena

d)

Self-Defense

93.

A trial before a judge is called a ________ trial?

a)

Bench

b)

Jury

c)

Preliminary

d)

Bond

94.

The party that wins the case and has to answer the appeal to the higher court

a)

Appelant

b)

Respondent

c)

Petitioner

d)

Defendant

95.

A command in the form of written process requiring a witness to come to court and testify

a)

subpoena

b)

setllement

c)

jurisdiction

d)

trial

96.

The examination of potential jurors to determine if they are qualified to serve

a)

background check

b)

voir dire

c)

summary remedy

d)

prima facie case

97.

An objection to a juror based upon bias or prejudice

a)

challenge for cause

b)

court of appeals

c)

conciliation

d)

confession of judgement

98.

The process by which a higher court is requested by a party to a lawsuit to review the decision of a lower court is:

a)

a challenge for cause

b)

an amicus curiae

c)

a peremptory challenge

d)

appeal

99.

The freedom from prosecution even when one as committed the crime charged is called..

a)

Immunity

b)

Arraignment

c)

Contempt of Court

d)

Indictment

100.

the principle that states you can't be tried twice for the same crime

a)

due process

b)

twice guilty

c)

double entendre

d)

double jeopardy

101.

Someone could be tried again for the same crime if:

a)

there is a mistrial

b)

they are actually innocent

c)

they are racist

d)

they file a writ of double jeopardy 

102.

The right to a fair treatment through the normal judicial system, especially as a citizen's entitlement is called

a)

Representation

b)

Miranda Rights

c)

Due Process

d)

Probable Cause

103.

Fingerprints are taken from the suspect during this part of the criminal process

a)

Arrest

b)

Initial Appearance

c)

Booking

d)

Arraignment

104.

If the Grand Jury decides there is enough evidence to go to trial, they will issue an

a)

Indictment

b)

Affidavit

c)

Order

d)

Injunction

105.

The Grand Jury is made up of a collection of ___________

a)

police officers

b)

politicians

c)

citizens

d)

witnesses

106.

The United States has a ___________ court system where the power is segregated between the federal government and individual state governments.​

a)

dual

b)

primary

c)

single

d)

democratic

107.

Once the court system convicts and sentences an offender, she or he is delegated to the _____________ system in order to carry out his or her sentence.​

a)

corrections

b)

management

c)

supervision

d)

treatment

108.
It is inexcusable and illegal for prosecutors to suppress _________ evidence.
a)
good
b)
critical
c)
shared
d)
bad
109.
Ethics means to determine what is ______, proper and __________________.
a)
wrong, upsetting
b)
right, wrong
c)
right, moral
d)
none of the above
110.

define "good time"

a)

no jail time

b)

lawyer spoken

c)

reduced sentence

111.

Aggravating circumstances

a)

line officers

b)

disorganized

c)

impact statements

d)

Harsher sentence

112.

What is the element that need to be fulfilled for a person to be criminally liable for their criminal act?

a)

Actus reus

b)

Bona fide

c)

Pro bono

d)

De facto

113.

Which of these is NOT mens rea?

a)

Criminal negligence

b)

motive

c)

knowledge

d)

feelings

114.

In the case of R v Nicholls

"A grandmother was found guilty because there is actus reus of not  feeding her grandchild and as a result caused the child's death". Which part of criminal liabilty is this?

a)

Mens rea

b)

Motive

c)

Strict liability

d)

Omission

115.
Which 2 elements do we require for criminal liability?
a)
Victim and prosecutor
b)
Crime and defence
c)
Actus reus and mens rea
d)
Actus rea and Mens reus
116.
Actus reus refers to:
a)
The guilty act and physical elements of the offence
b)
Guilty mind and mental elements of the offence
c)
Guilty actions and wrongful conduct
d)
Elements of a crime
117.
What is an omission?
a)
NOT doing something you ought to do
b)
A positive act
c)
Agreeing to do something
d)
Failing to comply with the law
118.

What is Jurisdiction?

a)

authority of a court to hear a wide range of cases, both civil and criminal

b)

division of two separate court systems, federal and state; federal courts have limited jurisdiction over state courts

c)

the authority of a court to hear and decide cases within an area of the law or a geographical territory

d)

the authority of the court to hear a particular type of case, depending on the nature of the claim or controversy

119.

An act must be voluntary in order for it to be deemed a criminal act.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

In a court case, who must prove actus reus and mens rea?

a)

Prosecutor

b)

The defendant

c)

The judge

d)

The jury

121.

Culpable is best described as

a)

The ability to do something

b)

The inability to do something (alibi)

c)

The responsibility for wrongdoing

d)

The ability to be easily fooled

122.

The four culpable mental states are

a)

Intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, negligence

b)

unintentionally, wittingly, carelessly, clumsily

c)

unintentionally, unknowingly, carelessly, negligence

d)

intentionally, knowingly, recklessly, carelessly

123.

Concurrence with respect to the elements of a crime refers to

a)

the defendant's conduct

b)

the defendant's criminal intent

c)

both mens rea and actus rea occurring together

d)

either mens rea or actus rea occurring

124.

Horseplay is _______ at all times

a)

Encouraged

b)

Forbidden

c)

Hilarious

d)

Important

125.

Double locking the handcuffs is _______.

a)

Difficult

b)

Dangerous

c)

Required

d)

Optional

126.

Safety Plans for Emergencies should be _______ as they are designed.

a)

Followed

b)

Altered

c)

Changed

d)

Shown

127.

Simulation Firearms are to be treated and used as if they are ______&______.

a)

Safe & Secure

b)

Toys & Fun

c)

Cool & Safe

d)

Real & Loaded

128.

Handcuffs can cause __________ injury to the wrist if not used correctly.

a)

Weird

b)

Slight

c)

Permanent

d)

Temporary

129.

If at any time you feel ill or uncomfortable while handling chemicals or lab equipment, you should ______the area immediately and notify the teacher supervising the lab.

a)

Leave

b)

Lay in

c)

Sit in

d)

Stay in

130.

Sprays and powders used for fingerprint detection are _________.

a)

Non-toxic

b)

Toxic

c)

Safe

d)

Harmless

131.

Prolonged plaster inhalation is ___________.

a)

Dangerous

b)

Safe

c)

Normal

d)

Expected

132.

____________ must give authorization before in work in the crime lab can be performed.

a)

Anyone

b)

The safety Officer

c)

Class leader

d)

An Instructor

133.

Leaving handcuffs in the _______ position can make them a more dangerous weapon.

a)

Pre-loaded

b)

Open

c)

Closed

134.

Pay (a)   to the instructions from the teacher and what you are doing.

135.

Use (a)   sense when making decisions.

136.

Masks are (a)   and currently required when unable to social distance .

137.

If you don’t (a)   the assignment, activity, or any part of the instructions, raise your hand and ask the teacher for clarification.

138.

Class time is (a)   the time to practice escaping from handcuffs.

139.

When cleaning up ANY spill of a non-food/beverage substance, ____________ __________ equipment will be worn. Examples of PPE are latex/rubber gloves, safety glasses, face shields, and medical masks.

(a)  

140.

Never (a)   while in handcuffs.

141.

When lifting heavy objects, one should bend at the (a)   .

142.

My expectation is for all of us to go home in the same (or better) (a)   as when we arrived.

143.

Never leave your handcuffs (a)   before, during, or after handcuffing someone.

144.

When working in the laboratory you should perform only those activities assigned by your teacher. Carefully follow all ____________, both written and oral.

a)

DIRECTIONS

b)

DANGLING

c)

SAFETY GOGGLES

d)

LOOSE

e)

FLAMMABLE

145.

Wear __________ _____________ at all times.

a)

DIRECTIONS

b)

DANGLING

c)

SAFETY GOGGLES

d)

LOOSE

e)

FLAMMABLE

146.

. Avoid apparel that presents safety hazards, such as ___________ garments and _______________ jewelry.

a)

DIRECTIONS

b)

DANGLING

c)

SAFETY GOGGLES

d)

LOOSE

e)

FLAMMABLE

147.

Keep your hair, clothing, and all other __________ materials away from open flames.

a)

DIRECTIONS

b)

DANGLING

c)

SAFETY GOGGLES

d)

LOOSE

e)

FLAMMABLE

148.

1. Police officer must use the minimal amount of force necessary to effect heir lawful law enforcement objectives.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Force may only be used to effect a custodial arrest.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

A suspect must cause harm to an officer before an officer can use force

a)

True

b)

False

151.

A police officer must use the “least intrusive” or “best” option when using force

a)

True

b)

False

152.

A subject must be armed to justify a reasonable use of deadly force.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

Violating agency use of force policy, but complying with the Fourth Amendment, can still result in criminal or civil liability.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

A subject’s known mental defect precludes officers from using deadly force, or at minimum requires officers to try options other than deadly force.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

To be used in most situations when the suspect follows verbal commands and gives in to arrest.

a)

Arrest & Handcuffing

b)

Physical Restraint

c)

Non-Deadly Force

d)

Deadly Force

156.

A martial arts hold to be used when the suspect resists

arrest, but is not armed.

a)

Arrest & Handcuffing

b)

Physical Restraint

c)

Non-Deadly Force

d)

Deadly Force

157.

Chemical spray or electronic weapons for use if the prior level does not work or is impossible.

a)

Arrest & Handcuffing

b)

Physical Restraint

c)

Non-Deadly Force

d)

Deadly Force

158.

Use of firearms or blows from baton above the shoulders. May only be used if the suspect poses an immediate threat of death or great bodily injury to an officer or bystander.

a)

Arrest & Handcuffing

b)

Physical Restraint

c)

Non-Deadly Force

d)

Deadly Force

159.

During a Basic Traffic Stop, law enforcement officers have prior knowledge of the suspect in the vehicle?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

160.

During a Felony Traffic Stop, and for Law Enforcement I class training purposes, a law enforcement officer should do what immediately following the handcuffing of a suspect?

a)

Double lock handcuffs

b)

Escort the suspect to the back of the patrol vehicle

c)

Search the suspect

d)

None of the above

161.

During a Basic Traffic Stop, law enforcement officers must have what to initiate the traffic stop?

a)

Bias

b)

Probable Cause

c)

A hunch

d)

Good gut feeling

162.

During a Felony Traffic Stop, the primary law enforcement officer is responsible for the following

a)

Verbal commands

b)

Searching the suspect

c)

Handcuffing the suspect

163.

During a Felony Traffic Stop, what verbal command must the primary officer give after their initial verbal command.

a)

Because I said so!

b)

Do it now or else!

c)

Do it now!

d)

Pretty please with sugar on top.

164.

During a Basic Traffic Stop, it is not important for law enforcement to be aware of the location of a suspect's hands.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

165.

During a Basic or Felony Traffic Stop, it is not important for law enforcement officers to notify dispatch of the exact location of the traffic stop.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

166.

Basic and Felony Traffic stops pose a great risk to everyone involved.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

167.

Extreme nervousness that is visible by law enforcement when conducting a Basic Traffic Stop is normal.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

168.

Law Enforcement officers should proceed with the traffic stop immediately after providing dispatch with the required information, even if the officer does not receive confirmation from dispatch.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE