Q2. Which of the following objectives are stated in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

1. Economic Justice

2. Equality of Opportunity

3. Economic Liberty

4. Social Justice

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Q.3 Which one of the following sequences is the correct sequence for the formation of the commissions starting from the earliest?

Q4. Consider the following statements
1. The courts can declare a law violative of any DPSP as unconstitutional because they help in determining the constitutional validity of the laws. 2. They have moral and political sanctions.
Which of the above statements are correct regarding DPSPs?

Q. Which one of the following best defines the concept ‘Judicial Review’?

Q. Which of the following are the features of the parliamentary government in India?
1. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular
2. Members of the council of ministers always belong to the same political party.
3. The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Que. Which Fundamental right of the constitution safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

Q. Which of the following may make provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Municipalities and the auditing of such accounts?

Q. Consider the following provisions of Indian Constitution
1. Ideal of justice
2. Rule of Law
3. Bicameralism

4. Public Service Commission
5. Federation with a strong centre.
How many of the above-mentioned Provisions adopted from the British Constitution?

Q. Consider the following statements regarding India’s Nuclear Doctrine:
1. Nuclear retaliation to a first strike will be massive and designed to inflict unacceptable damage
2. Nuclear weapons can be used against any External Aggression
3. Export of Nuclear Material to Friendly nations in times of aggression.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. It was established in 1964 as a statutory body.
2. It was established on the recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission.
3. Its jurisdiction extends to members of the All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Assertion (A) The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories.
Reason (R) This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is/are correct?

Who among the following are both appointed and removed by the governor of a state?
1. Judges of High Court.
2. State Election commissioner.
3. Members of state public service commission.
4. Advocate-General of the state.
Select the correct answer by using the codes below.

Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court decides the disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President.
2. The Supreme Court's jurisdiction and powers with respect to matters in the State list can be enlarged by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Assertion (A): The Duty of the Comptroller and Auditor General is not merely to ensure the legality of expenditure but also its propriety.
Reason (R): He has to uphold the Constitution and the Laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

Q. With reference to the National Emergency, consider the following statements?
1. The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
2. Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed only by Loksabha by a special majority.
3. This special majority provision was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. With reference to the Doctrine of Basic Structure, consider the following statements:
1. They promote parliamentary sovereignty.
2. It does not fall within the scope of amending power of Parliament.
3. As per the Kesavananda Bharati case, Judicial Review is a part of the Basic structure doctrine. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Q. With reference to the Objective Resolution, consider the following statements:
1. It resolved for India to become a Independent Sovereign Republic and to have a written constitution. 2. It recommended having a unitary form of government with a powerful union.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. Consider following bills
1. A Bill involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. A Bill for the alteration of boundaries of states.
3. A Constitutional amendment Bill.
4. A Bill changing the structure of a Non Constitutional body.
In how many of the above-mentioned bills prior recommendation or permission of the president is needed to be introduced in the Parliament?

Q. Consider the following statements:
1. The Second Schedule is related to forms of Oaths or Affirmations of the members of the state legislature.
2. Fifth Schedule has provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. Consider the following statements
1. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
3. Promotion of cooperative societies.
4. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
How many of the above statements are the fundamental duties mentioned in the constitution of India?

Q. Since independence, many laws have been enacted by the state to give effect to the various Directive Principles under part IV of the Constitution. In this context consider the following statements:
1. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, enactments give effect to Article 50.
2. Khadi and Village Industries Board gives effect to Article 43.
3. 73rd Constitutional amendment Act gives effect to Article 40.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Q. Consider the following statements about the language of the Courts:

1. The Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court.

2. The Governor of a State without any consent or approval of the President can authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the State in the proceedings of the High Court of the State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the President's Rule under Article 356:
1. The president takes over the administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down.
2. The president’s actions during a State Emergency can not be challenged in a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. With reference to Anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. It provides that a member of a House belonging to a political party can be disqualified if he/she votes against the party whip.
2. It mandates that the presiding officer of the House has to decide a defection case within 3 months from the date on which such a petition is referred to him/her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q. Which of the following commission/committee was not constituted with respect to Centre-State relations?

Q. Consider the following statements
Statement-I: Chief Minister of the State can disqualify a sitting MLA after obtaining the advice of the State Election Commission.
Statement-II: Chief Minister is the de facto head of the State In the context of the above,
Which of the following statements is correct?

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A private member of the Lok Sabha can introduce a Constitutional Amendment bill.
2. A private member's bill introduced in the House requires one month's notice.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q. With reference to the making of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements :
1. There were 15 women members of the Constituent Assembly.
2. The motion on Draft Constitution was declared to be passed in October 1948.
3. The Provincial Constitution Committee of Constituent Assembly was presided by Sardar Patel.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?

Q. Consider the following 1. Renunciation 2. Termination 3. Deprivation How many of the above are the modes of losing Indian Citizenship?