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AWS SA Class 1. Cloud Computing and AWS Quiz

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main focus of this chapter on Cloud Computing and AWS?

a)

The history of cloud computing

b)

The basics of cloud computing and AWS

c)

Advanced AWS deployment strategies

d)

Comparing AWS with other cloud service providers

2.

According to the introduction, what is necessary to be successful as an AWS solutions architect?

a)

Understanding the history of Amazon

b)

Knowing the competitors of AWS

c)

Understanding what the cloud really is and how Amazon's end of it works

d)

Learning about the stock market performance of AWS

3.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a topic this chapter will explore?

a)

How to access and manage your AWS-based resources

b)

How to migrate existing on-premises resources to your AWS account

c)

The environmental impact of cloud computing

d)

What makes cloud computing different from other applications and client-server models

4.

What is the core technology that enables all cloud operations according to the text?

a)

Distributed Computing

b)

Virtualization

c)

Network Segmentation

d)

Data Encryption

5.

What does virtualization allow you to do with the hardware resources of a single physical server?

a)

Connect multiple physical servers together

b)

Divide the hardware resources into smaller units

c)

Encrypt the data stored on the server

d)

Increase the physical server's storage capacity

6.

What can each virtual machine (VM) running on a physical server have its own of?

a)

Hypervisor

b)

Physical server

c)

Operating system, memory, storage, and network access

d)

Cloud Computing Architecture

7.

What is the role of a hypervisor in virtualization?

a)

It acts as a storage resource manager

b)

It serves as the physical server itself

c)

It is the virtual machine administration layer

d)

It is a type of virtual machine

8.

What is the benefit of virtualization's flexibility as mentioned in the text?

a)

It allows for permanent allocation of resources to a project

b)

It enables the creation of a single, static virtual environment

c)

It makes it possible to provision a virtual server quickly for temporary needs

d)

It reduces the need for experimental and sandboxed environments

9.

According to the text, what can major cloud providers like AWS maintain?

a)

Small server farms with limited storage

b)

Enormous server farms with hundreds of thousands of servers and disk drives

c)

A single data center with minimal network cabling

d)

Cloud services without the need for physical servers

10.

What is a cloud computing platform typically offering?

a)

Fixed compute resources with upfront payment

b)

On-demand, self-service access to pooled compute resources

c)

Limited access to compute resources during business hours

d)

Predefined compute resources with no scalability

11.

What are the three features that make the cloud a great choice for serious workloads?

a)

Scalability, elasticity, and cost-effectiveness

b)

Permanence, rigidity, and high cost

c)

Limited access, inflexibility, and unpredictability

d)

Manual scaling, fixed capacity, and variable pricing

12.

What does scalability in cloud infrastructure allow you to do?

a)

Decrease the number of virtual machines as demand decreases

b)

Efficiently meet unexpected decreases in demand by removing resources

c)

Efficiently meet unexpected increases in demand by adding resources

d)

Keep the number of virtual machines constant regardless of demand

13.

What is the AWS term for virtual machines?

a)

Copies

b)

Clusters

c)

Instances

d)

Nodes

14.

What does elasticity in cloud computing address?

a)

The ability to maintain a constant infrastructure despite demand

b)

The system's management of changing demand by ramping up capacity

c)

The fixed capacity of the system to handle workloads

d)

The system's ability to lock in resources for long-term use

15.

What does cloud computing allow businesses to convert in terms of IT spending?

a)

From variable operational expenditure to fixed capital expenditure

b)

From fixed capital expenditure to variable operational expenditure

c)

From fixed operational expenditure to variable capital expenditure

d)

From variable capital expenditure to fixed operational expenditure

16.

What can be automatically reduced when demand drops in cloud computing?

a)

Costs

b)

Capacity

c)

Security

d)

Electricity

17.

What does the cloud paradigm allow for in terms of resource scaling?

a)

It allows for scaling resources only down when demand changes.

b)

It allows for scaling resources only up when demand changes.

c)

It allows for scaling resources both up and down to meet changing demand.

d)

It does not allow for scaling resources according to demand.

18.

What is the purpose of the AWS free Pricing Calculator mentioned in the text?

a)

To help understand the full implications of cloud compute spending.

b)

To compare different AWS service categories.

c)

To automatically decommission resources as demand falls.

d)

To calculate the exact amount of electricity used by AWS services.

19.

What is the main focus of a solutions architect according to the text?

a)

To keep up with the steady stream of new services on the AWS Console.

b)

To focus on advanced configurations such as autoscaling and load balancing.

c)

To focus on the core service categories of AWS.

d)

To perform "apples-to-apples" comparisons between datacenter costs.

20.

What does the Compute category in AWS service categories replicate?

a)

The traditional role of local physical servers in the cloud.

b)

The traditional role of remote physical servers in the cloud.

c)

The traditional role of cloud-based software applications.

d)

The traditional role of on-premises software development.

21.

What functionality does the Networking category in AWS service categories provide?

a)

Data storage, management, and data mining.

b)

Application connectivity, access control, and enhanced remote connections.

c)

Physical server maintenance and hardware updates.

d)

Cloud-based software development and deployment.

22.

What is the function of AWS's Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2)?

a)

It provides serverless application architectures.

b)

It manages data solutions for various data formats.

c)

It provides virtual server instances that can be provisioned with CPU, memory, storage, and network interface profile.

d)

It monitors, audits, and configures AWS account services.

23.

What does AWS Lambda allow you to do?

a)

Automatically scale in and out EC2 instances based on client demand.

b)

Provide serverless application architectures that do not require a server running 24/7.

c)

Offer long-term backup storage solutions.

d)

Manage authentication and authorization services.

24.

What is the purpose of Auto Scaling in AWS?

a)

It provides immediate accessibility and long-term backup needs for storage.

b)

It allows for monitoring, auditing, and configuring AWS account services.

c)

It manages data solutions for use cases requiring multiple data formats.

d)

It automatically launches or scales up EC2 instances based on client demand and terminates unused instances when demand drops.

25.

What is the function of Elastic Load Balancing in AWS?

a)

It distributes incoming network traffic across multiple web servers to balance load.

b)

It provides a content delivery network service.

c)

It offers data storage and backups.

d)

It manages container workloads using Kubernetes.

26.

What does Amazon Elastic Container Service (ECS) use for full integration with other AWS services?

a)

Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

b)

Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (EKS)

c)

Direct Connect

d)

CloudFront

27.

What is AWS Direct Connect primarily used for?

a)

Distributing network traffic to web servers.

b)

Establishing a direct tunnel between your local datacenter and AWS.

c)

Managing DNS services and domain registration.

d)

Automating the deployment of applications.

28.

What is the main purpose of Amazon Route 53?

a)

It is a managed service for deploying applications.

b)

It is a content delivery network.

c)

It is a DNS service that manages domain registration and routing protocols.

d)

It is a storage service for data and backups.

29.

What is Amazon CloudFront best known for?

a)

It is a global content delivery network (CDN).

b)

It is a service for load balancing network traffic.

c)

It is a container service for Docker and Kubernetes.

d)

It is a secure network connection service.

30.

What is the primary use of Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)?

a)

It is used for secure network connections to AWS.

b)

It is a DNS service for AWS resources.

c)

It is a content delivery network.

d)

It is used for data storage and backups.

31.

Which AWS service is a good choice for long-term data archiving with retrieval delays measured in hours and is closely integrated with S3?

a)

Elastic Block Store (EBS)

b)

Storage Gateway

c)

S3 Glacier

d)

DynamoDB

32.

What is the main function of AWS Elastic Block Store (EBS)?

a)

To provide a managed database service

b)

To host the operating systems and working data of an EC2 instance

c)

To collect records of all your account's API events

d)

To help with change management and compliance for your AWS account

33.

What is the purpose of the AWS Storage Gateway service?

a)

To monitor process performance and resource utilization

b)

To use template files to define full and complex AWS deployments

c)

To act as a hybrid storage system that exposes AWS cloud storage as a local, on-premises appliance

d)

To evaluate any future states against that ideal when a configuration change pushes too far from the baseline

34.

Which AWS service provides a stable, secure, and reliable database instance that supports a variety of SQL database engines?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

CloudWatch

c)

Relational Database Service (RDS)

d)

CloudTrail

35.

What is DynamoDB best suited for?

a)

Long-term data archiving

b)

Virtual storage drives

c)

Fast, flexible, and highly scalable managed NoSQL database workloads

d)

Hybrid storage systems

36.

What is the main use of AWS CloudWatch?

a)

Data archiving

b)

Monitoring process performance and resource utilization

c)

Managing template files for AWS deployments

d)

Auditing and troubleshooting account activities

37.

What does AWS CloudFormation enable you to do?

a)

Monitor performance and resource utilization

b)

Archive data over the long term

c)

Use template files to define full and complex AWS deployments

d)

Collect records of all your account's API events

38.

What is the purpose of AWS CloudTrail?

a)

To provide virtual storage drives

b)

To expose AWS cloud storage as a local appliance

c)

To collect records of all your account's API events

d)

To help with change management and compliance

39.

What is the main function of the AWS Config service?

a)

To provide a managed NoSQL database service

b)

To help with change management and compliance for your AWS account

c)

To monitor process performance and resource utilization

d)

To use template files to define AWS deployments

40.

What is the function of AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

a)

It is a notification tool that can automate the publishing of alert topics to other services.

b)

It administers user and programmatic access and authentication to your AWS account.

c)

It allows for event-driven messaging within distributed systems.

d)

It enables you to create and manage secure and reliable APIs for your AWS-based applications.

41.

What does AWS Key Management Service (KMS) allow you to do?

a)

Coordinate a series of tasks that must be performed using a range of AWS services.

b)

Decouple the coordinating in the discrete steps of a larger process.

c)

Administer the creation and use of encryption keys to secure data used by and for any of your AWS resources.

d)

Integrate AWS resources with identity providers like Amazon Cognito and Microsoft AD domains.

42.

What is the purpose of AWS Directory Service?

a)

To automate the publishing of alert topics to other services.

b)

To administer user and programmatic access and authentication to your AWS account.

c)

To manage identities and relationships, and integrate AWS resources with identity providers.

d)

To create and manage secure and reliable APIs for AWS-based applications.

43.

What is the main function of Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS)?

a)

It is used to administer user and programmatic access to AWS accounts.

b)

It is a managed service for encryption key administration.

c)

It is a tool for coordinating a series of tasks using AWS services.

d)

It automates the publishing of alert topics to other services or to recipients using email or SMS.

44.

What does Amazon Simple Workflow Service (SWF) help you coordinate?

a)

Encryption keys for securing data.

b)

A series of tasks that must be performed using AWS services or even nondigital (meaning human) events.

c)

User and programmatic access to AWS accounts.

d)

The publishing of alert topics to other services.

45.

What is the main use of Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)?

a)

To administer encryption keys for AWS resources.

b)

To integrate AWS resources with identity providers.

c)

To automate the publishing of alert topics to other services.

d)

To allow event-driven messaging within distributed systems and reliably deliver messages.

46.

What is the purpose of AWS API Gateway?

a)

To coordinate a series of tasks for AWS services.

b)

To manage identities and relationships for AWS environments.

c)

To create and manage secure and reliable APIs for AWS-based applications.

d)

To administer user and programmatic access to AWS accounts.

47.

How many non-government AWS regions are listed in Table 1.3?

a)

21

b)

24

c)

23

d)

22

48.

Which AWS region corresponds to the endpoint "us-west-1.amazonaws.com"?

a)

US East (N. Virginia)

b)

US East (Ohio)

c)

US West (N. California)

d)

US West (Oregon)

49.

What is the endpoint for the Asia Pacific (Seoul) AWS region?

a)

ap-northeast-2.amazonaws.com

b)

ap-northeast-1.amazonaws.com

c)

ap-southeast-1.amazonaws.com

d)

ap-southeast-2.amazonaws.com

50.

Which of the following AWS regions is located in Canada?

a)

ca-central-1

b)

us-east-1

c)

eu-central-1

d)

ap-northeast-1

51.

What is the unique aspect of accessing and authenticating to the two Chinese regions mentioned in the document?

a)

They require unique protocols.

b)

They have the same endpoint as US regions.

c)

They do not require authentication.

d)

They are not publicly accessible.

52.

What is the endpoint for the AWS region EU (Ireland)?

a)

eu-central-1.amazonaws.com

b)

eu-west-1.amazonaws.com

c)

eu-north-1.amazonaws.com

d)

sa-east-1.amazonaws.com

53.

Which AWS region's endpoint is 'eu-north-1.amazonaws.com'?

a)

EU (Stockholm)

b)

EU (Frankfurt)

c)

EU (London)

d)

Middle East (Bahrain)

54.

What are prefixes like 'ec2' and 'api-gateway' used for in AWS endpoint addresses?

a)

To specify a particular AWS service

b)

To designate edge network locations

c)

To organize resources within a VPC

d)

To list available AWS locations

55.

What is the purpose of availability zones within an AWS region?

a)

To provide a list of endpoint addresses

b)

To offer services like Amazon CloudFront and AWS Shield

c)

To expose physical AWS datacenters

d)

To consist of one or more datacenters

56.

How can a VPC provide effective resource isolation and durable replication in AWS?

a)

By using prefixes in endpoint addresses

b)

By associating work subnets with availability zones

c)

By designating edge network locations

d)

By listing all available AWS locations

57.

What does the AWS Shared Responsibility Model imply?

a)

AWS is responsible for everything in the cloud, including customer data and operating systems.

b)

Customers are responsible for the underlying AWS platform and physical infrastructure.

c)

AWS is responsible for the physical infrastructure, while customers are responsible for managing their data and operating systems.

d)

Customers are responsible for hardware and network maintenance.

58.

Which of the following is NOT a customer responsibility under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model?

a)

User Applications

b)

Data Encryption

c)

Hardware and Network Maintenance

d)

Operating System, Network, and Access Configuration

59.

According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, what is AWS responsible for?

a)

User Applications, Access Management

b)

Customer Data

c)

Hardware and Network Maintenance

d)

Data Encryption

60.

What does AWS's Service Level Agreement (SLA) for EC2 guarantee in terms of uptime percentage?

a)

95.99%

b)

99.99%

c)

99.9%

d)

100%

61.

According to the text, what will AWS provide if service uptime falls below a defined threshold?

a)

Technical support

b)

Service credits

c)

Additional storage space

d)

Free upgrade to a better service

62.

What is the primary purpose of AWS Organizations?

a)

To manage a single AWS account

b)

To provide technical support for AWS services

c)

To consolidate the management of multiple AWS accounts

d)

To offer discounts on AWS services

63.

What is the recommended approach when building your applications on AWS to handle potential failures?

a)

To assume that failures will never occur

b)

To build applications that are geographically dispersed and fault-tolerant

c)

To focus on frequent data backups only

d)

To rely solely on AWS's SLA for uptime guarantees

64.

What does AWS Organizations allow you to do with account security policies?

a)

Apply them to individual accounts only

b)

Apply them to a single region within AWS

c)

Apply them globally through service control policies (SCPs)

d)

Apply them to non-AWS cloud services

65.

What has AWS Organizations replaced?

a)

AWS Control Tower

b)

AWS Service Catalog

c)

Consolidated Billing tool

d)

AWS Single Sign-On

66.

What is the purpose of AWS Control Tower?

a)

To replace AWS Organizations

b)

To extend the functionality of AWS Organizations through "landing zones"

c)

To provide a set of AWS services for business analytics

d)

To configure AWS Single Sign-On settings

67.

What can you define with AWS Service Catalog?

a)

Governance policies for AWS Control Tower

b)

Custom billing reports for AWS Organizations

c)

Consistent sets of tools and predefined services for teams

d)

New AWS regions for your organization

68.

What is the purpose of AWS License Manager?

a)

To manage software licenses and avoid licensing violations

b)

To track AWS service costs and usage

c)

To secure AWS accounts and services

d)

To provide a digital repository for compliance-related information

69.

What can you use AWS Artifact for?

a)

To run complex AWS operations from your local terminal

b)

To manage software licenses for cloud-based software

c)

To download compliance-related information about AWS accounts and services

d)

To handle security and general best practices for AWS services

70.

What does the AWS CLI allow you to do?

a)

Avoid licensing violations by tracking usage and monitoring compliance

b)

Download compliance-related information about AWS accounts and services

c)

Run complex AWS operations more simply and efficiently

d)

Manage software licenses for on-premises software

71.

What is the purpose of the AWS CLI?

a)

To configure AWS resources in your application code

b)

To list the buckets that currently exist in your account and perform other AWS operations

c)

To provide technical or account support

d)

To access customer service and support forums

72.

Which of the following is NOT a language for which AWS provides an SDK?

a)

Java

b)

.NET

c)

Python

d)

C++

73.

What can you do with the Basic support plan on AWS?

a)

Access to AWS developer tools

b)

Configure the AWS CLI on your local system

c)

Get access to customer service, documentation, whitepapers, and the support forum

d)

Copy a simple file or document from your machine to a new S3 bucket

74.

What is the monthly cost for the Developer support plan on AWS?

a)

$29/month or 3 percent of monthly AWS charges

b)

$100/month or 10 percent of monthly AWS charges

c)

$5,500 one time fee

d)

$15,000 each month

75.

Which AWS support plan provides a "system impaired" response?

a)

Developer plan

b)

Business plan

c)

Enterprise On-Ramp plan

d)

Enterprise plan

76.

What is the guaranteed response time for the Business support plan on AWS?

a)

Unlimited users for help with impaired systems

b)

Personal guidance and troubleshooting

c)

10 percent of monthly AWS charges

d)

$5,500 one time fee

77.

Which AWS support plan includes access to a technical account manager and online self-paced labs?

a)

Developer plan

b)

Business plan

c)

Enterprise On-Ramp plan

d)

Enterprise plan

78.

What is the minimum monthly cost for the Enterprise support plan on AWS?

a)

$29/month

b)

$100/month

c)

$5,500 one time fee

d)

$15,000 each month

79.

Where can you find self-service support for AWS outside of the official support plans?

a)

AWS re:Post community forum

b)

AWS Migration Hub

c)

AWS Application Migration Service

d)

AWS Database Migration Service

80.

What is the purpose of the AWS Well-Architected page?

a)

To provide a community forum

b)

To offer commercial support for AWS deployments

c)

To link to valuable whitepapers and documentation addressing best practices for cloud deployment design

d)

To help migrate existing applications to the cloud

81.

What is the purpose of AWS Migration Hub?

a)

To provide a central place to view information about your existing inventory and the status of all your migration projects.

b)

To automate the deployment of new applications to the AWS cloud.

c)

To manage user access and security settings for AWS services.

d)

To offer a data storage solution on the cloud.

82.

What did the AWS Application Migration Service replace?

a)

AWS Database Migration Service

b)

AWS Server Migration Service

c)

AWS Replication Agent

d)

AWS CloudEndure Migration

83.

How does AWS Application Migration Service simplify the migration process?

a)

By requiring manual installation of software on each server.

b)

By automating the testing and transfer of AWS-bound migrations of non-cloud application servers.

c)

By providing physical storage devices for data transfer.

d)

By offering in-person technical support for migrations.

84.

What is the main goal of AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)?

a)

To provide a tool for managing database access permissions.

b)

To offer a data analytics service for databases.

c)

To make your non-cloud data available in the cloud with comparable or better performance.

d)

To create backups of your on-premises databases.

85.

Which of the following can you do with AWS Database Migration Service?

a)

Only migrate relational databases to Amazon S3.

b)

Migrate databases without changing the database engine.

c)

Perform a homogeneous migration, such as Oracle-to-Oracle, or convert to a different database service like Amazon Aurora.

d)

Migrate databases exclusively to physical servers on AWS.

86.

What is the primary purpose of the AWS Application Discovery Service?

a)

To provide a list of AWS services and tools for application migration

b)

To help plan application migration projects by identifying and inventorying applications in on-premises datacenters

c)

To directly migrate applications to the cloud

d)

To manage AWS resources through the management console

87.

What can be done with the data collected by the AWS Application Discovery Service?

a)

It can be deleted immediately after collection

b)

It can be exported into a CSV file for planning and records

c)

It can only be viewed within the AWS Management Console

d)

It must be processed manually by the user

88.

Which AWS service is designed to be compliant with best-practice and regulatory standards?

a)

AWS Application Discovery Service

b)

AWS Control Tower

c)

AWS Organizations

d)

Amazon Web Services

89.

What does the Shared Responsibility Model entail in the context of AWS?

a)

It defines the division of security obligations between AWS and the customer

b)

It outlines the responsibilities of AWS in managing the infrastructure

c)

It is a model for dividing physical resources into virtual units

d)

It is a support plan offered by AWS

90.

Which of the following can be migrated using the AWS Application Migration Service?

a)

Only the applications that are compliant with AWS standards

b)

Any networked application and/or workflow's needs

c)

Entire applications or individual databases

d)

Only the data that cannot be exported to CSV files

91.

How does AWS divide its servers and storage devices for enhanced availability and security?

a)

Into different data centers within a single region

b)

Into globally distributed regions and availability zones within those regions

c)

Based on the type of services offered

d)

According to the customer's geographic location

92.

What is the primary method for doing most serious work on AWS according to the text?

a)

Through the AWS management console

b)

Using third-party administration tools

c)

Through the AWS CLI and application code via an AWS SDK

d)

Via direct physical access to AWS data centers

93.

What is an important element in building a successful deployment on AWS?

a)

Choosing a random support plan

b)

Understanding which support plan level is right for a particular customer

c)

Avoiding the use of support plans

d)

Using the most expensive support plan available

94.

What often requires more than a simple upload when migrating existing applications and resources to AWS?

a)

Moving text files

b)

Migrating databases, archives, or full-stack applications

c)

Uploading profile pictures

d)

Sending emails through AWS

95.

Your developers want to run fully provisioned EC2 instances to support their application code deployments but prefer not to have to worry about manually configuring and launching the necessary infrastructure. Which of the following should they use?

a)

AWS Lambda

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

d)

Amazon Route 53

96.

Some of your application’s end users are complaining of delays when accessing your resources from remote geographic locations. Which of these services would be the most likely to help reduce the delays?

a)

Amazon CloudFront

b)

Amazon Route 53

c)

Elastic Load Balancing

d)

Amazon Glacier

97.

Which of the following is the best use-case scenario for Elastic Block Store?

a)

You need a cheap and reliable place to store files your application can access.

b)

You need a safe place to store backup archives from your local servers.

c)

You need a source for on-demand compute cycles to meet fluctuating demand for your application.

d)

You need persistent storage for the filesystem run by your EC2 instance.

98.

You need to integrate your company’s local user access controls with some of your AWS resources. Which of the following can help you control the way your local users access your AWS services and administration console? (Choose two.)

a)

AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)

b)

Key Management Service (KMS)

c)

AWS Directory Service

d)

Simple Workflow (SWF)

e)

Amazon Cognito

99.

The data consumed by the application you’re planning will require more speed and flexibility than you can get from a closely defined relational database structure. Which AWS database service should you choose?

a)

Relational Database Service (RDS)

b)

Amazon Aurora

c)

Amazon DynamoDB

d)

Key Management Service (KMS)