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Financial Management Multiple Choice Questions

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The main objective of financial management is:

a)

Maximizing sales

b)

Minimizing cost

c)

Maximizing shareholder wealth

d)

Increasing market share

2.

Finance deals primarily with:

a)

Money and investment decisions

b)

Product design

c)

Human resources

d)

Advertising and promotion

3.

Investment, financing, and dividend decisions are:

a)

Accounting functions

b)

Marketing functions

c)

Core financial decisions

d)

HR decisions

4.

Working capital is defined as:

a)

Total assets minus total liabilities

b)

Fixed assets minus current assets

c)

Current assets minus current liabilities

d)

Current liabilities minus current assets

5.

Capital structure refers to:

a)

Mix of debt and equity financing

b)

Inventory control

c)

Dividend policy

d)

Fixed assets investment

6.

Cost of capital represents:

a)

Minimum rate of return required by investors

b)

Interest rate on short-term loans

c)

Tax rate

d)

Depreciation rate

7.

Liquidity refers to a firm’s ability to:

a)

Meet short-term obligations

b)

Increase profitability

c)

Expand operations

d)

Reduce expenses

8.

Leverage means:

a)

Use of fixed costs to magnify returns

b)

Reduction of debt

c)

Increase in equity

9.

Financial planning ensures:

a)

Adequate funds at the right time

b)

Increased production

c)

Market share growth

d)

Reduction of taxes

10.

Risk and return are:

a)

Directly related

b)

Inversely related

c)

Unrelated

d)

Negatively correlated

11.

Which ratio measures liquidity?

a)

Current ratio

b)

Debt-equity ratio

c)

Return on equity

d)

Price-earnings ratio

12.

The formula for current ratio is:

a)

Current Assets / Current Liabilities

b)

Total Assets / Total Liabilities

c)

Fixed Assets / Shareholders’ Equity

d)

Equity / Liabilities

13.

Debt-Equity ratio indicates:

a)

Financial leverage of the company

b)

Liquidity position

c)

Profitability

d)

Solvency only

14.

Depreciation is classified as:

a)

Non-cash expense

b)

Cash inflow

c)

Operating income

d)

Capital receipt

15.

Time value of money means:

a)

A. A rupee today is worth more than a rupee tomorrow

b)

B. A rupee today is worth less than tomorrow

c)

C. Value of money is constant

d)

D. Depends only on inflation

16.

NPV stands for:

4 lines
17.

If NPV > 0, then the project is:

a)

Acceptable

b)

Rejectable

c)

Risky

d)

Neutral

18.

IRR represents:

a)

Discount rate where NPV = 0

b)

Highest profit rate

c)

Accounting rate of return

d)

Depreciation rate

19.

Payback period measures:

a)

Time taken to recover initial investment

b)

Profit after tax

c)

Return on assets

d)

Cash flow per share

20.

Beta measures:

a)

Market risk

b)

Credit risk

c)

Operational risk

d)

Inflation risk

21.

WACC is calculated as:

a)

Weighted average of cost of debt and equity

b)

Average profit of all projects

c)

Weighted cost of liabilities only

d)

Weighted average of current assets

22.

EBIT stands for:

a)

Earnings Before Interest and Taxes

b)

Expenses Before Interest and Taxes

c)

Earnings Before Income and Taxes

d)

Expenditure Before Investment Turnover

23.

Capital budgeting relates to:

a)

Long-term investment decisions

b)

Short-term borrowing

c)

Payroll management

d)

Inventory purchase

24.

Equity shares represent:

a)

Ownership in a company

b)

Short-term liability

c)

Debt instrument

d)

Preference capital

25.

Retained earnings are:

a)

Internal source of finance

b)

External source of finance

c)

Borrowed funds

d)

Dividend payout

26.

A debenture is:

a)

A long-term debt instrument

b)

A share certificate

c)

A government bond

d)

A current liability

27.

Preference shareholders receive:

a)

Fixed dividends before equity shareholders

b)

Variable dividends after equity holders

c)

No dividends

d)

Interest payments

28.

Commercial paper is:

a)

A short-term unsecured debt instrument

b)

A stock certificate

c)

A long-term bond

d)

Treasury bond

29.

A company’s dividend policy affects:

a)

Retained earnings and shareholder wealth

b)

Production cost

c)

Inventory management

d)

Asset depreciation

30.

A highly leveraged firm means:

a)

High proportion of debt in its capital structure

b)

Low equity base

c)

High profit margin

d)

No dividend policy

31.

The primary market deals in:

a)

New issue of securities

b)

Trading of existing shares

32.

The secondary market deals in:

a)

Existing securities

b)

Foreign exchange only

c)

Futures contracts

d)

Primary shares

33.

The capital market deals with:

a)

Long-term funds

b)

Short-term funds

c)

Medium-term loans

d)

Commodity trade

34.

The money market deals with:

a)

Short-term financial instruments

b)

Fixed deposits

c)

Long-term investments

d)

Real estate

35.

SEBI regulates:

a)

Securities market in India

b)

Banking system

c)

Mutual funds only

d)

Insurance companies

36.

Stock exchanges are part of:

a)

Secondary market

b)

Primary market

c)

Money market

d)

Forex market

37.

BSE stands for:

a)

Bombay Stock Exchange

b)

Bharat Securities Exchange

c)

Banking Securities Entity

d)

Business Stock Environment

38.

NSE stands for:

a)

National Stock Exchange

b)

National Savings Entity

c)

New Securities Exchange

d)

National Sector Exchange

39.

Mutual funds pool money from:

a)

Multiple investors to invest in diversified securities

b)

Government only

c)

Banks only

d)

Foreign institutions

40.

NAV in mutual funds means:

a)

Net Asset Value

b)

Net Annual Value

c)

Nominal Asset Value

d)

Normalized Account Value

41.

Derivatives derive their value from:

a)

Underlying assets

b)

Real estate prices

c)

Market interest rates

d)

Company profits

42.

Examples of derivatives include:

a)

Futures and Options

b)

Stocks and Bonds

c)

Cash and Deposits

d)

Notes and Bills

43.

Bonds pay:

a)

Fixed interest periodically

b)

Variable dividends

c)

Profits only

d)

Commission

44.

A credit rating agency evaluates:

a)

Borrower’s creditworthiness

b)

Employee performance

c)

Company marketing strategy

d)

Tax compliance

45.

Dividend yield =

a)

Dividend per share / Market price per share

b)

Profit / Share capital

c)

Earnings per share / Dividend

d)

Net profit / Total assets

46.

P/E ratio =

a)

Market price per share / Earnings per share

b)

Market capitalization / Total revenue

c)

Earnings / Price

47.

Systematic risk is:

a)

Market-related and non-diversifiable

b)

Company-specific and diversifiable

c)

Avoidable through diversification

d)

Always constant

48.

Unsystematic risk is:

a)

Company-specific and diversifiable

b)

Market-related

c)

Inflation-based

d)

Uncontrollable

49.

Portfolio diversification helps to:

a)

Reduce unsystematic risk

b)

Increase systematic risk

c)

Guarantee profits

d)

Eliminate all risks

50.

Portfolio management aims at:

a)

Balancing risk and return

b)

Eliminating all losses

c)

Reducing market volatility completely

d)

Maximizing debt

51.

Dividend policy determines:

a)

How much profit is retained vs. distributed

b)

How interest is paid on debt

c)

Tax rates on profit

d)

Employee incentives

52.

The Modigliani–Miller (MM) theory of capital structure assumes:

a)

Perfect capital markets with no taxes or transaction costs

b)

Market imperfections

c)

Dividend taxes

d)

Changing interest rates

53.

EPS stands for:

a)

Earnings Per Share

b)

Equity Profit Share

c)

Earnings Per Stock

d)

Equity Price System

54.

EPS is calculated as:

a)

(Net profit – Preference dividend) / No. of equity shares

b)

Net profit / Total shares

c)

Dividend / Share price

d)

Profit after tax / Total assets

55.

A bond’s price moves:

a)

Inversely with market interest rates

b)

Directly with inflation

c)

Parallel to stock prices

d)

With government expenditure

56.

The CAPM model gives:

a)

Expected return on an asset

b)

Actual profit margin

c)

Accounting rate of return

d)

Operating leverage

57.

In CAPM, Beta =

a)

Measure of systematic risk

b)

Return on equity

c)

Measure of total risk

d)

Alpha coefficient

58.

If NPV = 0, it means:

a)

The project earns exactly the cost of capital

b)

The project is unprofitable

c)

IRR < Discount rate

d)

Cash flow is negative

59.

Cash Flow Statement shows:

a)

Inflows and outflows of cash during a period

b)

Income and expenditure

c)

Balance sheet transactions

d)

Equity fluctuations only

60.

Operating activities in cash flow include:

a)

Day-to-day business transactions

b)

Purchase of fixed assets

c)

Share issue

d)

Loan repayment

61.

Return on Investment (ROI) =

a)

(Net Profit / Investment) × 100

b)

Investment / Net Profit

c)

Sales / Assets

62.

A company’s cost of equity can be estimated by:

a)

CAPM

b)

P/E ratio

c)

Bond yield

d)

Dividend yield

63.

ROI measures:

a)

Profitability of total investments

b)

Liquidity

c)

Solvency

d)

Market valuation

64.

A leveraged firm means:

a)

The firm uses debt in its capital structure

b)

The firm is debt-free

c)

It holds only equity

d)

It has high liquidity

65.

Zero coupon bonds:

a)

Do not pay periodic interest

b)

Pay high annual interest

c)

Pay dividends

d)

Are redeemable at discount

66.

Dividend payout ratio =

a)

Dividend per share / Earnings per share

b)

EPS / DPS

c)

Dividend / Net profit × 100

d)

Profit / Dividend

67.

Retention ratio =

a)

1 – Dividend payout ratio

b)

EPS / DPS

c)

Dividend / Profit after tax

d)

Return / Equity

68.

Market capitalization =

a)

Market price per share × Number of outstanding shares

b)

Total assets / Liabilities

c)

Profit × Sales

d)

Equity / Reserves

69.

If Beta > 1, the stock is:

4 lines
70.

Stock split results in:

a)

Increase in number of shares, same total value

b)

Increase in company value

c)

Decrease in equity

d)

Reduction in profit

71.

Rights issue means:

a)

Offering new shares to existing shareholders

b)

Offering shares to the public

c)

Issuing debentures

d)

Bonus shares issue

72.

Book value per share =

a)

Shareholders’ equity / Number of equity shares

b)

Total assets / Current liabilities

c)

Market price / Earnings

d)

Profit / Net worth

73.

EBIT-EPS analysis helps to:

a)

Determine optimal capital structure

b)

Calculate dividend policy

c)

Measure liquidity ratio

d)

Evaluate profitability

74.

Financial breakeven occurs when:

a)

A. EBIT = Interest + Preference Dividend

b)

B. Sales = Cost

c)

C. EPS = 0

d)

D. Profit = Tax

75.

Operating leverage measures:

a)

Effect of fixed costs on EBIT

b)

Financial risk

c)

Market volatility

d)

Dividend ratio

76.

The DuPont analysis decomposes:

a)

Return on Equity (ROE)

b)

Net Profit Margin

c)

Current Ratio

d)

Debt-Equity Ratio

77.

Price-to-Book (P/B) ratio =

a)

Market price per share / Book value per share

b)

Earnings / Dividend

c)

Market cap / Revenue

d)

Profit / Equity

78.

Economic Value Added (EVA) =

a)

NOPAT – (Capital × Cost of capital)

b)

Profit + Taxes

c)

Sales – Cost of goods sold

d)

Revenue / Assets

79.

A firm’s credit policy influences:

a)

Receivables and working capital cycle

b)

Tax liability

c)

Shareholding pattern

d)

Profit and loss appropriation

80.

Financial risk increases with:

a)

Higher proportion of debt financing

b)

Higher equity

c)

Increased reserves

d)

Decreased leverage

81.

The primary goal of financial management is to:

a)

Maximize shareholder wealth

b)

Maximize sales

c)

Minimize cost

d)

Maximize market share

82.

When a firm issues new shares to the public for the first time, it is called:

a)

Initial Public Offering (IPO)

b)

Follow-on Public Offer (FPO)

c)

Private Placement

d)

Rights Issue

83.

Which of the following is a non-current liability?

a)

Debentures

b)

Creditors

c)

Bills payable

d)

Outstanding expenses

84.

A higher current ratio generally indicates:

a)

Better short-term liquidity

b)

Poor working capital

c)

High leverage

85.

Cost of preference share capital is computed as:

a)

Dividend / Net proceeds × 100

b)

Dividend × Market price

c)

Earnings / Equity × 100

d)

Dividend + Interest

86.

Payback period method ignores:

a)

A. Time value of money

b)

B. Cash inflows

c)

C. Initial investment

d)

D. Project life

87.

In the context of risk, diversification helps to:

a)

Reduce unsystematic risk

b)

Eliminate systematic risk

c)

Increase volatility

d)

Increase beta

88.

Working capital is the difference between:

a)

Current Assets and Current Liabilities

b)

Fixed Assets and Current Liabilities

c)

Total Assets and Liabilities

d)

Capital and Reserves

89.

A company’s capital budgeting decisions are based on:

a)

A. Long-term investments

b)

B. Short-term financing

c)

C. Daily cash management

d)

D. Payroll processing

90.

Financial leverage reflects:

a)

The use of debt to finance assets

b)

The efficiency of operations

c)

Sales volume changes

d)

Dividend payout levels

91.

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