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180 Week 7 Immune System

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with chronic kidney disease is experiencing severe anemia. Epoetin alfa is prescribed for what reason?

a)

To treat hypertension

b)

To increase platelet count

c)

To increase production of red blood cells

d)

To reduce erythrocyte counts

2.

Dr. Smith is considering prescribing Epoetin Alfa to a patient with chronic kidney disease to treat anemia. However, she is concerned about potential complications. Which of the following is a complication associated with Epoetin Alfa?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Anemia

d)

Leukopenia

3.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of filgrastim (Neupogen)?

a)

Stimulates the production of erythrocytes and leukocytes

b)

Stimulates the production of platelets and other clotting factors

c)

Stimulates the bone marrow to increase production of neutrophils

d)

Decreases thrombocytopenia and need for platelet transfusions

4.

Which of the following is a common sign or symptom of anemia?

a)

Pale mucous membranes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Pale skin

d)

Weight gain

e)

Lethargy

5.

During a nutrition workshop, you learn about enhancing iron absorption. Which of the following should you consume to achieve this?

a)

Grapefruit juice

b)

Orange juice

c)

Antacids

d)

Dairy products

6.

What is the therapeutic use of iron supplements like ferrous sulfate?

a)

To treat and prevent vitamin B12 deficiency

b)

To increase energy levels

c)

To treat and prevent iron-deficiency anemia

d)

To reduce gastrointestinal (GI) distress

7.

What is a common nursing care instruction for clients taking iron supplements?

a)

Expect to have increased energy immediately

b)

Anticipate dark green/black stools

c)

Increase intake of dairy products

d)

Take the supplements with a large meal

8.

What is the prototype of Vitamin B12 supplements?

a)

Folic acid

b)

Cyanocobalamin

c)

Hydroxocobalamin

d)

Methylcobalamin

9.

Which of the following is a therapeutic use of folic acid supplements?

a)

Treatment of hypokalemia

b)

Prevention of neural tube defects in pregnancy

c)

Increase in RBC production

d)

Sodium/fluid retention

10.

What type of vaccines contain live but weakened microbes that cannot produce the disease?

a)

Inactivated

b)

Toxoids

c)

Recombinant

d)

Attenuated

11.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of vaccines?

a)

They provide temporary immunity by introducing toxins.

b)

They produce antibodies to provide active immunity.

c)

They directly destroy pathogens in the body.

d)

They stimulate the production of white blood cells.

12.

What is a contraindication for live vaccines?

a)

Mild fever

b)

Severe febrile illness

c)

Common cold

d)

Allergic reaction to pollen

13.

What should be documented when administering a vaccine? [Select all that apply]

a)

Lot number

b)

Expiration date

c)

Site of injection

d)

Informed consent

e)

Manufacturer

14.

What is the purpose of prophylactic antibiotic therapy?

a)

To treat an existing infection

b)

To treat organism identified with cultures

c)

To prevent infection

d)

To treat infections after obtaining specific culture information

15.

Which type of therapy is initiated before specific culture information is reported or obtained?

a)

Empiric therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

c)

Prophylactic therapy

d)

Bacteriostatic therapy

16.

What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

a)

Bactericidal antibiotics prevent the growth of bacteria, while bacteriostatic antibiotics kill the bacteria

b)

Bactericidal antibiotics kill the bacteria, while bacteriostatic antibiotics slow the growth of the bacteria

c)

Bactericidal antibiotics are used for prophylactic therapy, while bacteriostatic antibiotics are not

d)

Bactericidal antibiotics are more toxic to infants and the elderly, while bacteriostatic antibiotics are not

17.

What should be performed prior to the initiation of antimicrobial therapy to identify the bacteria and what drug kills it?

a)

Empiric therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

c)

Culture and sensitivity (C&S)

d)

Prophylactic therapy

18.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Penicillin G?

a)

Inhibits protein synthesis

b)

Destroys the bacterial cell wall

c)

Inhibits DNA gyrase

d)

Slows bacterial growth

19.

Which of the following is a therapeutic use of Penicillin G?

a)

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

b)

Strep infections and meningitis

c)

Post-operative infection

d)

Pelvic infections

20.

What is a known interaction of cephalosporins?

a)

Interaction with vitamin C

b)

Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol

c)

Increased effect with grapefruit juice

d)

Decreased absorption with antacids

21.

Which of the following is a precaution for the use of cephalosporins?

a)

Do not give with penicillin allergy

b)

Avoid in patients with a history of diabetes

c)

Use cautiously in patients with a history of seizures

d)

Do not administer to patients with a history of asthma

22.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of Carbapenems like imipenem-cilastatin and meropenem?

a)

Inhibits protein synthesis

b)

Destroys the bacterial cell wall

c)

Inhibits DNA replication

d)

Blocks bacterial ribosome function

23.

What is the purpose of Carbapenems like imipenem-cilastatin and meropenem?

a)

To treat diabetes

b)

To reduce cholesterol

c)

To treat bacterial infections such as pneumonia, peritonitis, and UTI

d)

To alleviate pain

24.

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines such as tetracycline (Sumycin)?

a)

Destroys the bacterial cell wall

b)

Increases protein synthesis

c)

Slows bacterial growth by inhibiting protein synthesis

d)

Increases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives

25.

Which of the following is a complication associated with tetracyclines? [Select all that apply]

a)

GI problems (N/V/D/esophageal ulceration)

b)

Tooth discoloration

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Photosensitivity

e)

Hepatotoxicity

26.

Vancomycin (Vancocin) is particularly used for treating infections caused by which type of bacteria?

a)

Gram-positive bacteria

b)

Gram-negative bacteria

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

27.

What is a serious side effect of vancomycin that requires monitoring and potentially slowing the infusion?

a)

Hypersensitivity

b)

Infusion reaction (Red Man Syndrome)

c)

Yeast infection

d)

Discoloration of the teeth

28.

Macrolides such as erythromycin and azithromycin are known to be effective against which of the following diseases? [Select all that apply]

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Pertussis

c)

Malaria

d)

Hepatitis C

e)

Chlamydia

29.

The drugs that end in -mycin have ​ (a)   as a common complication.

Choose from the below words
ototoxicity
nephrotoxicity
hepatotoxicity
neurotoxicity
30.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of gentamicin (Garamycin)?

a)

Inhibits DNA replication

b)

Inhibits protein synthesis

c)

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

d)

Inhibits folic acid synthesis

31.

Which of the following is NOT a complication associated with gentamicin (Garamycin)?

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Phototoxicity

32.

What should be monitored regularly when a patient is on fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin?

a)

AST, ALT, and heart rate

b)

AST, ALT, BUN, Creatinine

c)

Blood glucose and BUN/Creatinine

d)

White blood cell count and platelets

33.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of fluoroquinolones?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Children under 18 years of age

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

34.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim/Septra)?

a)

Prevents synthesis of mycolic acid in the cell wall of the bacteria

b)

Inhibits folic acid synthesis

c)

Damages bacterial DNA

d)

Increases the risk for toxicity and antibiotic resistance

35.

Which of the following is a therapeutic use of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole? [Select all that apply]

a)

UTI's

b)

Otitis media

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Pneumocystis pneumonia

e)

Herpes zoster

36.

Which are complications of nitrofurantoin? [Select all that apply]

a)

Blood dyscrasias

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Peripheral neuropathy

d)

Esophagitis

e)

Ototoxicity

37.

What is the MOA of isoniazid (INH)?

a)

Inhibits folic acid synthesis

b)

Damages bacterial DNA

c)

Prevents synthesis of mycolic acid in the cell wall of the bacteria

d)

Increases the risk for toxicity and antibiotic resistance

38.

Which of the following is a complication associated with the use of rifampin (Rifadin)?

a)

Gingival hyperplasia

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Renal impairment

d)

Phlebitis

39.

What is the mode of action (MOA) of Acyclovir (Zovirax)?

a)

It inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria

b)

It prevents the cells or by inhibiting enzymes needed for replication

c)

It prevents the reproduction of viral DNA

d)

It uses reverse transcriptase to change RNA into DNA

40.

What should be monitored when administering Ethambutol?

a)

AST and ALT levels

b)

Visual acuity

c)

Renal function

d)

Blood sugar levels

41.

Which medication adversely impacts therapy when used in combination with antituberculosis drugs?

a)

Zidovudine

b)

Echinacea

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Pyrazinamide

42.

What is the primary function of antiretroviral agents in the treatment of HIV infection?

a)

To attach to a host cell and replicate

b)

To change RNA into DNA using reverse transcriptase

c)

To prevent the virus from entering the cells or by inhibiting enzymes needed for replication

d)

To reduce antibiotic resistance

43.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of antiretroviral therapy for HIV-AIDS?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Myelosuppression

c)

Hyperglycemia

d)

Leukocytosis

44.

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of fusion entry inhibitors like enfuvirtide in the treatment of HIV?

a)

They cure HIV infection

b)

They prevent HIV from attaching to and entering the T cells

c)

They target specific phases of HIV replication cycle

d)

They are used as a multi-drug regimen

45.

Which are medications that can be prescribed to treat tuberculosis? [Select all that apply]

a)

Pyrazinamide

b)

Enfuvirtide

c)

Isoniazid

d)

Rifampin

e)

Acyclovir