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Management Theories

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about leadership and management are true?

a)

Both leadership and management are not essential for organisational success.

b)

They are often used synonymously because they are the same.

c)

Leadership is the ability to influence a group towards the achievement of a vision or set of goals.

d)

Management is the use of authority to formulate detailed plans, create efficient organisational structures and oversee strategic operations.

2.

Which of the following statements about traits and behavioural theories are true?

a)

Trait theories propose that general behaviours differentiate leaders from non-leaders.

b)

Trait theories consider personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from non-leaders.

c)

Behavioural theories propose that specific behaviours differentiate leaders from various leaders.

d)

Behavioural theories consider personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from non-leaders.

3.

Which of the following statements about traits and behavioural theories are true?

a)

Trait theories propose that general behaviours differentiate leaders from non-leaders.

b)

Trait theories consider personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from non-leaders.

c)

Behavioural theories propose that specific behaviours differentiate leaders from various leaders.

d)

Behavioural theories consider personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from non-leaders.

4.

Fiedler identified contingency variables to match the leader with the situation what are they:

a)

Task discipline: the degree to which the job assignments are procedural.

b)

Leader/member relations: the degree of confidence, trust and respect members have in their leader.

c)

Organisational structure: the degree of influence a leader has over power variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions and salary increases.

d)

Charismatic trait: extent to the situation influences the leader’s vision.

5.

Charismatic leadership:

a)

depends solely on the situation and on the leader’s vision.

b)

depends, to some extent, on the situation and on the leader’s vision.

c)

depends on convincing followers to pursue a vision.

d)

is often unsuccessful at convincing followers to pursue a vision can be disastrous.

6.

Transformational leadership:

a)

engenders commitment on the part of followers and instills less trust in the leader.

b)

engenders commitment on the part of followers and instills distrust in the leader.

c)

charisma is more important than a charismatic communication style in explaining the success of entrepreneurial companies.

d)

vision is more important than a charismatic communication style in explaining the success of entrepreneurial companies.

7.

Authentic leadership:

a)

dictate the moral tone for an organisation, demonstrate those standards through behaviour and encourage and reward integrity in others, while avoiding abuses of power.

b)

is based on are ethical people who know who they are, know what they believe in, and value, and act on those values and beliefs secretly.

c)

is a style based on distrust.

d)

is characterised by leaders who teach ethical behaviours and a socialised.

8.

Authentic leadership dimensions include:

a)

integrity, compliance, consistency, loyalty and freedom.

b)

integrity, compliance, consistency, trust and openness.

c)

integrity, competence, consistency, trust and freedom.

d)

integrity, competence, consistency, loyalty and openness.

9.

Mentoring functions include:

a)

counselling and acting as a role model.

b)

coaching, assisting and sponsoring.

c)

counselling, sharing and teaching leadership skills.

d)

coaching, assisting, sponsoring, and knowledge.

10.

The attribution theory of leadership says that:

a)

leadership is merely an attribution that people make about other individuals.

b)

leaders are not responsible for extremely negative or extremely positive performance

c)

leadership is merely an attribution that people make about themselves.

d)

we attribute to leaders intelligence, outgoing personality, poor verbal skills, aggressiveness, understanding and industriousness.

11.

Organisations can help build effective organisations through effective leaders. They do this through:

a)

Selection.

b)

Recruitment.

c)

Development.

d)

Performance Reviews.

12.

Which of the following is not a part of Management function

a)

Directing

b)

Planning

c)

Delegating

d)

Controlling

13.

Creating company mission statement is

a)

Planning

b)

Controlling

c)

Organising

d)

Staffing

14.

A manager engaged in the managerial function of______is monitoring progress toward goal achievement and taking corrective action when needed

a)

Motivating

b)

Planning

c)

Controlling

d)

Coordinating

15.

Art of getting things done through others

a)

Planning

b)

Management

c)

Controlling

d)

MoraleStaffing

16.

Which of the following tend to be least important to the success of lower level management

a)

Decisions skills

b)

Human skills

c)

Conceptual skills

d)

Technical skills

17.

Management as a profession has which of the features

a)

well defined and systematised knowledge

b)

Service motive

c)

Code of conduct

d)

All of the above

18.

Select various skills required by a manager

a)

Technical

b)

Human

c)

Conceptual

19.

Management is defined as the organizational function of using all available resources efficiently to achieve the best possible returns.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Which function in management involves monitoring improvements and taking corrective actions whenever needed?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Leadership

d)

Controlling

21.

Whose responsibility is it to set objectives that are consistent with an organisation's objectives as well as plan and implement the objectives?

a)

top management

b)

middle management

c)

lower level mangement

d)

team leader

22.

What is Alfie Kohn's theory in behavior management?

a)

Student-Directed Learning Theory

b)

Choice Theory

c)

Operant Conditioning Theory

d)

Social Learning Theory

23.

Who developed the Social Learning Theory?

a)

B.F. Skinner

b)

William Glasser

c)

Alfie Kohn

d)

Albert Bandura

24.

TRUE OR FALSE

Existential therapy was developed by William Glasser which helps people recognize the reality of your choices and choose more effective behavior.

a)
b)
25.

TRUE OR FALSE

Psychotherapy uses talk therapy to treat people for emotional problems and mental illness.

a)
b)
26.

Check the three (3) types of Behavioral Therapy.

a)

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

b)

Play Therapy

c)

Occupational Therapy

d)

Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) Therapy

27.

Which among the following is the book written by F W Taylor.

a)

The Principle of Scientific Time and Motion Study

b)

Time and Motion Study

c)

The Principle of Standardized Management

d)

The Principle of Scientific Management

28.

What kind of management approach should be followed towards 'Y' category as per theory X and Y?

a)

Autocratic.

b)

Authoritarian.

c)

Participatory.

d)

Laissez Faire

29.

What was the Gilbreth's study called as?

a)

Time and Work Study.

b)

Time and Motion Study.

c)

Work and Motion Study.

d)

Motion camera Study.

30.

What motivated Ouchi to come up with assumptions of Theory 'Z'?

a)

Japanese style of management.

b)

Change in profit of American companies.

c)

Difference in labour productivity of Japan and America during 90's

d)

Difference in labour productivity of Japan and America during 80's

31.

There were -------- experiments conducted as a part of Hawthrone Research.

(a)  

32.

Who are the 3 major proponents of Classical Management Theory?

a)

Piaget

Bruner

Kohlberg

b)

Taylor

Fayol

Weber

c)

Freud

Aristotle

Socrates

d)

Maxwell

Friedrich

Russel

33.

Who’s the father of Scientific Management?

a)

Max Weber

b)

Frederick Taylor

c)

Henri Fayol

d)

Aristotle

34.

Who’s the father of Modern Management?

a)

Henri Fayol

b)

Frederick Taylor

c)

Socrates

d)

Max Weber

35.

Who’s the father of Modern Management?

a)

Max Weber

b)

Watson

c)

Henri Fayol

d)

Frederick Taylor

36.

All of them are characteristics of CLASSICAL management EXCEPT...

a)

focuses on efficiency, productivity, output of workers

b)

organization is viewed as a structure of relationships

c)

focuses on difference in behavior that exist among them

d)

systematic

37.

These are types of Classical Management EXCEPT...

a)

Autocratic

b)

Scientific 

c)

Bureaucratic

d)

Administrative

38.

(a)   is concerned with knowing exactly what you want men to do and seeing that they do it in the best and the cheapest way.

39.

(a)   focuses on the manager and the use of general principles and functions for improving organizational functioning.

40.

(a)   focuses on the use of rules, set hierarchy of work position, a clear  division of work and allocation of authority and impersonal relationship in performing organizational activities for goal achievement. Bureaucratic management treats an organization to be a rational legal entity.

41.
Ethical behavior must uphold the rights of people, this is?
a)
Utilatarianism
b)
Rights Ethics
c)
Duty Ethics
d)
Virtue Ethics
42.
Ethics that teaches that some acts are right or wrong because of the sorts of things they are, and people have a duty to act accordingly, regardless of the good or bad consequences that may be produced.
a)
Utilatarianism
b)
Rights Ethics
c)
Duty Ethics
d)
Virtue Ethics
43.
It looks at the virtue or moral character of the person carrying out an action, rather than at ethical duties and rules, or the consequences of particular actions.
a)
Utilatarianism
b)
Rights Ethics
c)
Duty Ethics
d)
Virtue Ethics
44.
Moral activities those that create the most good for most people. this theory is
a)
Utilatarianism
b)
Rights Ethics
c)
Duty Ethics
d)
Virtue Ethics
45.
Different theories to apply when encountered with ethical dilema
a)
Utilatarianism
b)
Rights Ethics
c)
Duty Ethics
d)
Virtue Ethics
46.
What is cost benefit analysis?
a)
when benfit exceeds the cost invested
b)
when benefit equals in the investment
c)
when benefit less than invested cost
47.
What is utilatarianism?
a)
Most good for most people
b)
most good for minority people
c)
ethical behavior must uphold the rights of people
d)
it looks at the virtue or moral character of the person carrying out an action
48.
When deciding about watching a movie you prefer "shang chi", your 2 friends decide "Infinity war" but other 8 friends decide to watch "The matrix". which of the follwoing decesion is an application of utilitarianism theory in this situation?
a)
you all end up going to "The matrix" based on mejority decision
b)
you all end up going to "Shang chi" beacuase you like it
c)
You all go to all the three movies of your chice seperately
d)
You cancel the movie plan
49.

A chemical plant discharges a pollutant into the local river, where it is ingested by fish. If humans eat the fish, they experience health problems. Eliminating the pollutant will be so expensive that the plant's profits will decrease severely. Allowing the discharge to continue will save jobs and enhance the overall economic viability of the community. The pollutant will adversely affect only a small proportion of the population—the most economically deprived members of the community who fish in the river and then eat the fish. choose the best solution among the following which is applies cost benefit analysis theory for the situation?

a)
let the discharge continue which will enhance economy and viability of the community
b)
Stop discharging the pollutants
c)
Treat the pollutant which will decrease the harm causing the society but it will decrease the economy of the lives
d)
Asking them stop fishing in the river which effects only community and hamper their economy
50.

Team leadership is…

a)

How leaders facilitate team performance

b)

How leaders facilitate individual importance

c)

Not a type of leadership

51.

The four main types of teams are…

a)

Productive, Destructive, Effective, and Efficient

b)

Group Formation, Group Storming, Group Norming, and Group Performing

c)

Manager-Led, Self-Managing, Self-Designing, and Self-Governing

52.

The two key concepts of team leadership include…

a)

Leaders in team settings can either have formal or informal roles; leaders in teams may influence the team internally or externally

b)

Leaders in team settings always have formal roles; leaders in teams may only influence teams internally

c)

Leaders in team settings always have informal roles; leaders in teams may only influence teams externally

53.

The three Team Leader Functions include…

a)

Flow of Power, Inattention to Social Location, and Disregard of Context

b)

Explaining, Engaging, and Encouraging

c)

Setting Direction, Managing Operations, and Developing Team’s Capacity for Self-Management

54.

Shared leadership is…

a)

 Leadership responsibilities are distributed, people within a team lead each other

b)

Leadership responsibilities are controlled by one authority figure in a team

c)

Leadership responsibilities are continuously changed throughout a group

55.

The precursor conditions of shared leadership include…

a)

Leader-Member Exchange Theory, Team Leadership, Shared Leadership

b)

Individual reflection, authority, independence of work, individual efficacy

c)

Team environment, support of positional leaders, interdependence of work, collective efficacy

56.

The most distinguishing feature of shared leadership is…

a)

Influence can arise from any direction of the group, everyone can be the leader

b)

Influence can arise from one direction of the group, one person can be the leader

c)

Influence can arise from any direction of the group, but only one person can implement decisions

57.

How is the flow of power an ideal tool of Deconstruction…..

a)

Because of its focus on directionality in power dynamics and their entanglement with social location

b)

Because of its focus on teamwork and intrapersonal reflection

c)

Becuase of its focus on the shifts in leadership

58.

What is dialectical thinking?

a)

The process of holding two seemingly contradictory concepts in unison

b)

The process of comparing two seemingly similar concepts

59.

How is understanding individuals' psychological relationships with authority important?

a)

Because it's identifying and disrupting inequitable power dynamics in group-centered leadership theories

b)

Because it's telling you who has the innate traits to be a leader

c)

Becuase it's emphasizing that there must alwasy be an authority figure in leadership roles

60.

The Leader-Member Exchange Theory...

a)

Focuses on the bidirectional relationships between leaders and each of their subordinates

b)

Emphasizes that leadership is a stagnant concept

c)

Focuses on the intrapersonal relationships leaders create about themselves

61.

In the Leadership-Member Exchange model, what is the difference between in-groups and out-groups?

a)

In-groups are perceived as having higher potential; out-groups are perceived as having lower potential

b)

There is no difference between in-groups and out-groups

c)

In-groups are percieved as having lower potential; out-groups are perceived as having higher potential

62.

The main reasons for projects failure are:

a)

Time management; Costs management; Scope Management and Quality Management

b)

Only Scope and Quality Management

c)

Only Time and Cost Management

d)

Generally Cost Management because you can never have enough money to complete most projects

63.

What are the four characteristics of a project?

a)

Concept, Development, Test and Development

b)

Input; Process; Output and Feedback

c)

Temporary endeavor; Definite beginning and end; Several phases and Unique output

d)

Define the problem; Brainstorm; Generate ideas and Select an approach

64.

The major differences between  projects and operations are:

a)

Projects are ongoing and operations are short

b)

Projects are temporary and operations are ongoing

c)


Projects should always be done by engineers and operations may be performed by technicians

d)

Projects and operations are the same thing but projects always costs more to implement

65.

Which of the following is an example of a project?

a)

Inventing a new prototype for a drone

b)

Manufacturing automobiles at the Kia plant

c)

Assembling several complex drones in a production plants using robotics

d)

Utilizing robotics to lift heavy packages at a UPS distribution plant during the busy holiday season 

66.

The five phases of project management are:

a)

Defining the problem; Brainstorming; Developing a solution; Designing a prototype and Closing the project 

b)

Designing; Developing; Testing; Evaluating and Closing 

c)


Initiating; Planning; Executing; Monitoring & Control and Closing

d)


Inputting; Processing; Outputting; Closing and Giving Feedback 

67.

Which of the following is NOT a project management goal?

a)

Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

b)

Keeping overall costs within budget

c)

Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

d)

Avoiding customer complaints

68.

Project management is defined as “the application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements”.

a)


Analysis, Theories

b)

Skills, Theories

c)


Tools, Analysis

d)


Skills, Tools

69.

Which of these is NOT an example of a project?

a)


Planning for your friends wedding.

b)


Building a bridge across the Amazon river

c)


Cleaning the office building every day.

d)

Constructing a condominium in CBD

70.

What percentage of Project Manager's time is spent on communicating?

a)

35%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

90%

71.

Which process identifies the project manager?

a)


Scope planning

b)


Project planning

c)

Develop project charter

d)


Project selection process

72.

Which from the following represents the correct project process cycle?

a)

Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing

b)

Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing

c)

Initiating→Planning→Executing→Monitoring→Closing

d)

Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing

73.

The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?

a)

Closing

b)

Initiating

c)

Executing

d)

Planning

74.

The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during _____ phase.

a)

Initiation

b)

Execution

c)

Monitoring & Control

d)

Closing

75.

What are the constraints in managing a project?

a)

Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

b)


Features, Priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff, Scope

c)

Resources, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Risk, Scope

d)


Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Customer

76.

Planning is often called the primary management function because it...

a)


create the vision for the organizational members

b)


sets the tone for the organizational culture

c)

establishes the basis for all the other functions

d)

offers some basis for future decision making

77.

Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a project management?

a)

Initiation

b)

Planning

c)

Execution

d)

Monitoring & Controlling

78.

What are change management models?

a)

Marketing strategies for new products

b)

Guides to help you successfully lead change

c)

Technological frameworks for software development

d)

Financial models for business investments

79.

How many categories do change management models broadly fall into?

a)

Three

b)

Two

c)

Five

d)

Four

80.

What is the focus of process-focused change management models?

a)

The steps you take in the process of change

b)

Improving team communication

c)

Managing financial resources

d)

Developing new products

81.

Who first described the Eight Step Change Model?

a)

John P. Kotter

b)

Virginia Satir

c)

W. Edwards Deming

d)

Kurt Lewin

82.

What does the PDCA cycle stand for?

a)

Prepare, Develop, Create, Assess

b)

Plan, Do, Check, Act

c)

Plan, Design, Construct, Analyze

d)

Predict, Determine, Calculate, Adjust

83.

Which model is known for focusing on guiding change at the individual level?

a)

McKinsey's 7S Framework

b)

Moore's Three Levels of Resistance

c)

Lewin's Change Model

d)

ADKAR Model

84.

What is the first stage in Bridges' Transition Model?

a)

Planning and Preparation

b)

Ending, Losing, and Letting Go

c)

New Beginning

d)

Neutral Zone

85.

What does Nudge Theory leverage to influence behavior?

a)

Legal obligations

b)

Financial incentives

c)

Cognitive biases

d)

Social pressure

86.

What is the central element in McKinsey's 7S Framework?

a)

Strategy

b)

Structure

c)

Shared Values

d)

Systems

87.

What does the Change Curve model help to understand?

a)

Market response to organizational change

b)

The technological adaptation curve

c)

How people emotionally experience change

d)

Financial impact of change

88.

What are the Five Project Management Process Groups in order?

a)

Initiating, Planning, Monitoring & Controlling, Executing, and Closing.

b)

Initiating, Monitoring & controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing

c)

Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing

d)

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling. and Closing

89.

You are a Project Manager currently. You have finalized the list of Stakeholders. Which Process Group are you working in?

a)

Planning

b)

Executing

c)

Monitoring & controlling

d)

Initiating

90.

Full form of CSM is ?

a)

Client Success Manager

b)

Customer Success Manager

c)

Customer Success Management

d)

Client Success Management

91.

No charges are associated with any complex integration requests

a)

True

b)

False

93.

A project Phase is always

a)

Dynamic

b)

Unique

c)

Interesting

d)

Redundant

94.

The sooner you identify these _____the sooner you nip negative developments

a)

Risk

b)

Goal

c)

requirement

d)

advantages

95.

What is a scope creep?

a)

Change of request

b)

modification request

c)

additional request

d)

not clearly defined

96.

During which phase of a project is the project plan most closely monitored?

a)

Design phase

b)

Planning and analysis phase

c)

Implementation or publishing phase

d)

Building and testing phase

97.

Which SDLC Model do we follow?

a)

Spiral

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Iterative

98.

What skills are needed to successfully complete projects?

a)

Leadership skills

b)

Interpersonal skills

c)

Teamwork skills

d)

Listening skills

99.

User Acceptance testing and End user testing are one and the same ?

a)

True

b)

False

100.

INM Stands for ?

a)

Integration Network Management

b)

Interface Network Management

c)

Integration Network Monitoring

d)

Interface network Monitoring

101.

What is a cycle time ?

a)

Diff in days between phase assigned and actual deployment date

b)

Diff in days between phase Project created and actual deployment date

c)

Diff in days between phase assigned and closing date

102.

SLA stands for ?

a)

Standard level agreement

b)

Service Level Assignment

c)

Service Level Agreement

103.

FTE Stands for ?

a)

Full Time Equivalent

b)

Full Time Employee

c)

Full Time Engineer

d)

Full time engagement

104.

How many FTE do we have in citius complex workstream

a)

11

b)

10

c)

13

105.

Who is your MDL ?

a)

Srikant Keerti

b)

Vaishali Nambiar

c)

Mukund Ambardekar

d)

Bhaskar

106.

Who is your BPO ?

a)

Meghan Hoegler

b)

Corinne Depietro

c)

Jordan Natale

d)

Yiu Wing

107.

Who are our covering Resources?

a)

Rutuja Sawant

b)

Maragani Naveen

c)

Prem Solanki

d)

Rohit Mourya

108.

There is a theory of loss control developed by Bottom and Kostanoski in security and loss control. It is known as:

a)

WASTE

b)

WASTMGMT

c)

WAECUP

d)

WHATSUP

109.

The ASIS International General Security Risk Assessment Guideline defines an asset as “ Any real or personal property, tangible or intangible, that a company or individual owns, that can be given or assigned a monetary value.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

CPTED stands for Crime Prevention through Environmental Dedication.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Physical security planning was originally based upon response to a military threat.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Risk Management is a term closely associated with the insurance industry.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

A vulnerability assessment will include a thorough examination of the following:

a)

Facility and personnel

b)

Contents and material

c)

Suppliers and contractors

d)

All the above

114.

Deterrence is the practice of discouraging an individual or group from even attempting to attack the asset.

a)

Ture

b)

False

115.

All risks can be reduced completely.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

There is a theory of loss control developed by Bottom and Kostanoski in security and loss control. It is known as:

a)

WASTE

b)

WASTMGMT

c)

WAECUP

d)

WHATSUP

117.

The most intangible valuation of an asset would be in what is referred to as:

a)

Liquid asset

b)

Respectful damage

c)

Punitive damage

d)

Reputational damage

118.

Intangible property include things such as goodwill, proprietary information, and related property.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

What is the objective of Succession Planning?

a)

Strategy for organisations to be successful

b)

To establish a pipeline of talented workers to fill future vacancies in the workforce

c)

To plan how many children an employee can have

d)

To identify employee's personality

120.

Companies must place priority on parachuting external talents as opposed to grooming in-house talents.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

Succession Planning must take into account diversity and inclusion policies in order to give fair opportunity for all employees to grow within the company.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Staff promotions are the prerogative of the management and cannot be challenged as it is a matter of law.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

What is a Personal Development Plan used for?

a)

Used in place of a show cause inquiry

b)

Used as a remedial tool to help underperforming employees

c)

Used to measure employees' engagement levels

d)

Used to chart employees' career path based on their short, medium and long term development requirements

124.

What are the challenges and barriers to Succession Planning?

a)

The tendency of employees to only accept initiatives they perceive to be relevant to their own areas

b)

Complex or ambiguous initiatives may not be understood by employees

c)

The initiative is seen as a threat

d)

All of the above

125.

What does a "blended approach" to Talent Management Strategy mean?

a)

All employees included as a complete talent group, however with more focus paid to a particular core group or groups of employees

b)

Talent being managed both internally and with help from external consultant

c)

Only certain selected groups of employees are given focus in career development plans

d)

Put all the employees in one blender to make an employee smoothie

126.

Which of the following is not HR's role in Strategic HR Management?

a)

Audit role

b)

Consultancy role

c)

Terminator role

d)

Facilitator role

127.

Individual may be ready to move upwards within the organisation (1 job level)

a)

High Performance, High Potential

b)

High Performance, Low Potential

c)

Medium Performance, High Potential

d)

Medium Performance, Medium Potential

128.

Who created the theories behind the MBTI Test?

a)

Harrison Ford

b)

Menteri Besar Terengganu (Darul) Iman

c)

Carl Jung

d)

Katherine Briggs and Isabel Briggs Myers

129.

Constructive and destructive conflict are distinguished from each other in which of the following ways?

a)

a. constructive conflict is We-oriented; destructive conflict is Me-oriented

b)

b. constructive conflict is characterized by de-escalation of the conflict; destructive conflict is characterized by escalation of the conflict

c)

c. constructive conflict is characterized by cross-complaining; destructive conflict is characterized by flexibility

d)

d. both a and b

130.

Constructive and destructive anger can be distinguished from each other by the ....

a)

a. intensity of the anger

b)

b. flexibility of the anger

c)

c. duration of the anger

d)

d. both a and c

131.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of conflict?

a)

a. expressed struggle

b)

b. independent parties

c)

c. perceived incompatible goals

d)

d. perceived interference for outside parties

132.

Your relationship with one of your colleagues is under a lot of stress lately, and his/her behavior has begun to trouble you greatly. Which of the following are ways to manage the anger of your partner?

a)

a. validate your colleague

b)

b. be asymmetrical

c)

c. probe

d)

d. all of the above

133.

You have continued conflict with your peer, but you hide it from your boss. This speaks to which dichotomy ...

a)

a. openness/closeness

b)

b. inclusion/exclusion

c)

c. revelation/concealment

d)

d. connection/autonomy

134.

The process of forgiveness includes which stages?

a)

a. hating what was done to us

b)

b. hurting from the wrong done to us

c)

c. forgetting what was done to us

d)

d. both a and b

135.

Which of the following can be validly concluded from research on intercultural conflict management?

a)

a. collectivist and individualist cultures typically favour different conflict management styles

b)

b. the key to effective intercultural conflict management is flexible use of conflict management styles

c)

c. disagreement should be discouraged when communicating with individuals from diverse cultures

d)

d. both a and b

136.

Conflict is ?

a)

a. an unavoidable fact of life

b)

b. sometimes constructive

c)

c. a destructive force in relationships if continually avoided

d)

d. all of the above

137.

Your relationship with one of your colleagues is under a lot of stress lately, and his/her behaviour has begun to trouble you greatly. Though you both are not working on any project jointly, you are concerned about the way he/she is behaving with everyone. Even he/she had an argument with you regarding joining one of the important meetings organized by you.

 Which of the following are ways to manage the anger of your partner?

a)

a. validate your colleague – try to empathize and understand what the situation is, and what is 

triggering such behaviour 

b)

b. offer help – speak to him/her and seek if there is anything that, you can help with to make things easier

c)

 c. probe – find the right time to sit and discuss and ask some subtle but relevant questions to      

       understand his/her issues

d)

  d. all of the above

138.

You and your peer have had a heated disagreement. Emotions are raw, and feelings have been hurt. You approach your partner after a brief silence: "I'm sorry I attacked you like that. I got angry and said things I didn't mean." This is an example of the collaborating tactic called

a)

a. integration

b)

b. confrontation

c)

c. expanding the pie

d)

d. smoothing

139.

It is a form of learning in which the knowledge, skills, and habits are transferred from one generation to the next through teaching, learning and research.

a)

Education

b)

Management

c)

Leadership

d)

Educational Leadership

140.

A process of social influence which one person can enlist the aid and support of others in the accomplishment of common task

a)

Education

b)

Leadership

c)

Management

d)

Educational Leadership

141.

A series of actions and tasks relevant to highly well-organized and effectual application of resources within the organization in order to attain organizational objectives

a)

Education

b)

Leadership

c)

Management

d)

Educational Leadership

142.

A process of enlisting and guiding the talents and energies of teachers, pupils, and parents toward achieving common educational aims.

a)

Education

b)

Leadership

c)

Management

d)

Educational Leadership

143.

It is a discipline with respect to the management of educational organizations.

a)

Educational Leadership

b)

Leadership

c)

Educational Management

d)

Management