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Aviation Safety Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How often must an operator provide safety training to all crew members?

a)

Once every 6 months

b)

Only at the commencement of employment with the company

c)

Once every 12 months

d)

Once every 18 months

2.

What is the minimum fuel requirement for night VFR?

a)

Fuel required for destination plus 30 minutes at cruise speed

b)

Fuel required for destination plus 45 minutes at cruise speed

c)

Fuel required for destination plus 25 minutes at cruise speed

d)

Fuel required for destination plus 20 minutes at cruise speed

3.

What is the minimum visibility required for a helicopter for night VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace?

a)

1 mile

b)

½ mile

c)

2 miles

d)

3 miles

4.

MVH Helicopters has just purchased an R22 from CBA helicopters. How long is the C of R valid for after the sale to MVH Helicopters?

a)

The C of R is permanent and is only cancelled when the aircraft is damaged beyond repair

b)

The C of R is valid for 90 days after the sale

c)

The C of R is valid forever, the new owner just has 90 days to send in the change of ownership form

d)

The C of R is valid for 60 days after the sale

5.

What is the minimum height you must be when flying over an aerodrome if you have no intentions of landing?

a)

No less than 1000 feet AGL

b)

No less than 2000 feet AGL

c)

No less than 1500 feet AGL

d)

No less than 3000 feet AGL

6.

Your helicopter and another aircraft towing a banner are converging on the same point in the sky at about the same altitude. The aircraft towing the banner is on your left, who has the right of way?

a)

I would because I am on his right

b)

He would because he is on my left

c)

He would because any aircraft towing an object has the right of way over a powered aircraft not towing an object

d)

I would because any aircraft towing an object has the right of way over a powered aircraft not towing an object

7.

What weather minimum is required to fly VFR within a Control Zone?

a)

No less than 3SM visibility, 2000ft horizontally and 500ft vertically from cloud.

b)

No less than 3SM visibility, 1SM horizontally and 500ft vertically from the clouds and 500ft AGL

c)

No less than 3SM visibility, 1000ft horizontally and 500ft vertically from the ground

d)

No less than 3SM and clear of cloud at all times

8.

What does a flashing green light on the ground and a steady red light in the air mean?

a)

Flashing green means cleared for taxi, and steady red means give way and continue circling

b)

Flashing green means cleared for takeoff and steady red means airport unsafe do not land

c)

Flashing green means cleared for taxi and steady red means airport unsafe do not land

d)

Flashing green means cleared for takeoff and steady red means give way and continue circling

9.

Which of the following equipment is not needed for Day VFR flight in a helicopter?

a)

A sensitive altimeter

b)

A manifold pressure gauge

c)

A vertical speed indicator

d)

An airspeed indicator

10.

When can an ELT be tested?

a)

At least twice a year by a certified AME in a certified testing rig

b)

During the last 5 minutes of any UTC hour for no more than 5 seconds

c)

During the last 5 minutes of any hour for no more than 10 seconds

d)

During the first 5 minutes of any UTC hour for no more than 5 seconds

11.

What entries do you need to copy in the new Journey Log from the old Journey Log?

a)

The last 3 entries

b)

The last 5 entries

c)

The last page of entries

d)

Enough entries to ensure chronological order

12.

You are flying in the Northern Domestic Airspace with a true track of 190 degrees, magnetic variation is 21 degrees East. What altitude should you fly at assuming you need to maintain at least 3000ft AGL for obstacle clearance and radio reception?

a)

Odd thousands plus 500ft

b)

No change in altitude since it is in the Northern Domestic Airspace

c)

Even thousands plus 500ft

d)

Odd thousands

13.

What are the dimensions of a Control Zone?

a)

From 2000ft AGL to 18000ft AGL

b)

Surface to 3000ft AAE with a diameter of 3, 5, or 7 NM

c)

From 9500ft AGL to 2200ft at 35NM and 1200ft at 12NM

d)

From 7000ft AGL to height of overlying airspace and 15NM in diameter

14.

While transiting from the Altimeter Setting Region to the Standard Pressure Region you are required to do what?

a)

You are required to set the altimeter to the nearest reporting station’s altimeter setting prior to leaving the Altimeter Setting region

b)

You are required to set the altimeter to 29.92" prior to entering the Standard Pressure Region

c)

You are required to set the altimeter to the nearest reporting station’s altimeter setting after entering the Standard Pressure Region

d)

You are required to set the altimeter to 29.92" immediately after entering the Standard Pressure Region

15.

What are ESCAT rules?

a)

Rules that govern the movement of aircraft in the northern domestic airspace

b)

Rules that govern the movement of aircraft when there is an air defense emergency or aerial threat to national security

c)

Rules that govern the movement of aircraft entering and exiting Canadian territorial airspace

d)

Rules that apply to the movement of foreign registered aircraft within Canada by a foreign operator

16.

Which of the following is an example of an Aviation Incident?

a)

A Boeing 757 has gone missing

b)

A Bell 206 suffers dynamic rollover and is destroyed

c)

A Bell 206 and a Cessna 172 are involved in a near miss

d)

A snowplow slides into a Bell 412 causing major structural damage to the tail boom

17.

An aircraft can be operated without an ELT if which of the following is complied with?

a)

The ELT must be repaired or removed at the first aero drone where it can be repaired or removed

b)

The ELT is removed and sent to a maintenance facility

c)

Operator displays a placard in the cockpit until the ELT is replaced with a notice saying ELT is removed and the date of removal.

d)

All of the above

18.

You intended to land at an uncontrolled airport without an MF. How should you join the circuit pattern?

a)

You can join the circuit from straight in on the downwind leg or cross over the middle of the airport from the upwind side to join downwind

b)

You can join the circuit from the upwind side crossing over onto the downwind leg provided there is no conflict to other traffic in the circuit

c)

You can join the circuit from straight in on the final leg, as long as there is no conflict to other traffic in the circuit

d)

Helicopter pilots do not need to worry about joining procedures, just set up to land in to wind and out of the way of the fixed wing circuit pattern

19.

What is the maximum length of a duty day?

a)

Not more than 14 hours

b)

Not more than 15 hours

c)

15 hours if there is less than 8 hours of flying in 24 consecutive hours and minimum rest period is increased by 1 hour

d)

16 hours if 8 hours of rest is provided in a suitable location

20.

How far offshore can a multi-engine helicopter fly if it has life jackets for all on board and a raft rated for the maximum number of people the helicopter is certified to carry?

a)

Not more than 100NM

b)

Not more than 50NM

c)

Not more than 100NM or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes at normal cruise

d)

Not more than 50NM or the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes at normal cruise

21.

If you are filing a flight itinerary, how long after your last reported ETA will SAR be initiated?

a)

20 minutes

b)

24 hours

c)

1 hour

d)

It is a flight itinerary so no SAR will be sent out

22.

You are planning a navigation flight and see that your path crosses through a Class F Airspace. Where do you look for more information?

a)

The CFS

b)

The Designated Airspace Handbook

c)

Pireps

d)

Everything you need is on the map

23.

Which of the following causes inaccuracies in LF signal reception?

a)

Coastal refraction

b)

Night effect

c)

Quadrantal error

d)

All of the Above

24.

The indication of the VOR indicator for position 1 and position 2 is?

a)

Position 1 is A, Position 2 is E

b)

Position 1 is E, Position 2 is B

c)

Position 1 is F, Position 2 is A

d)

Position 1 is D, Position 2 is D

25.

What is the name of the line that joins all points of equal variation that are greater than zero?

a)

Isogonal Line

b)

Agonic Line

c)

Isobar Line

d)

Great Circle

26.

A straight line drawn on a Lambert Conformal Conic Projection map is an example of what type of line?

a)

Rhumb Line

b)

Agonic Line

c)

Magnetic Track

d)

Great Circle

27.

What class of airspace is Lethbridge's control zone, what is the radius and to what altitude does it extend up to?

a)

Class C and 5 NM and continues from surface up to 6100ft ASL

b)

Class D and 5 NM and rises to 2000ft AGL

c)

Class E and 5 NM and rises to 3000ft AGL

d)

Class D and 5 NM and continues from surface up to 6100ft ASL

28.

What information about the airport at Pincher Creek (N490 31' 14" W1130 59' 50") can you obtain from the Calgary VNC?

a)

The runway is 3093ft long, there is lighting available, altitude is 620ft ASL and the frequency is 123.2 MHz

b)

The runway is 6200ft long, there is limited lighting available, altitude is 1230ft ASL and the frequency is 3902 MHz

c)

The runway is 6200ft long, there is ARCAL lighting available, altitude is 1230ft ASL and the frequency is 3903kHz

d)

The runway is 6200ft long, there is ARCAL lighting available, altitude is 9303ft ASL and the frequency is 123.2 MHz

29.

Using the map "LO-CHART WHITECOURT" included in the appendix, what is the MEA for the trip from Whitecourt (YZU) to Peace River (YPE) on V306, and what radial would you tune on your VOR?

a)

The MEA is 6100ft AGL and you fly the 319 radial

b)

The MEA is 8000ft ASL and you fly the 319 radial

c)

The MEA is 6100ft ASL and you fly the 137 radial

d)

The MEA is 8000ft AGL and you fly the 137 radial

30.

What is the total distance from YPE to YZU via the V306 airway, and what is the MOCA?

a)

The total distance is 137 NM, the MOCA is 6100ft

b)

The total distance is 137 NM, the MOCA is 8000ft

c)

The total distance is 306 NM, the MOCA is 6100ft

d)

The total distance is 306 NM, the MOCA is 8000ft

31.

How many satellites does one need to get 3-dimensional position using GPS?

a)

One

b)

Four

c)

Three

d)

Six

32.

You are holding a heading of 073° and have been flying for 8 minutes. You realize you have gone 13 miles and are 0.5 miles to the north of your track. What direction do you have to adjust your heading to get back on track and what heading do you hold once you are back on track to get to your destination?

a)

Adjust heading to the right, hold 75.3° to your destination

b)

Adjust heading to the right, hold 77.6° to your destination

c)

Adjust heading to the left, hold 70.7° to your destination

d)

Adjust heading to the left, hold 68.4° to your destination

33.

On your VOR receiver, what is the full deflection of your CDI needle, and what does each dot represent?

a)

It is greater than 5° and 1° per dot

b)

It is greater than 10° and 2° per dot

c)

It is greater than 15° and 2° per dot

d)

It is greater than 20° and 2.5° per dot

34.

You are flying North and turn 20 degrees to the left. What compass error do you have to take into consideration?

a)

Northerly Turning Error

b)

Acceleration/Deceleration Error

c)

There is no error

d)

Magnetic Dip Error

35.

What is the total distance for the proposed trip?

a)

Total distance is 100 NM

b)

Total distance is 109 NM

c)

Total distance is 104 NM

d)

Total distance is 106 NM

36.

You depart Lethbridge and climb directly enroute. How long will it take you to cross the river 4 NM from the airport and at what altitude will you be at crossing the river?

a)

It will take 2 minutes 44 seconds and you will be at 4960ft AGL

b)

It will take 2 minutes 11 seconds and you will be at 1526ft ASL

c)

It will take 2 minutes 11 seconds and you will be at 4575ft ASL

d)

It will take 2 minutes 44 seconds and you will be at 1913ft AGL

37.

On your leg from Lethbridge to Warner, you find yourself abeam New Dayton. What would be your VFR weather requirements when flying at 6000 feet?

a)

3 SM visibility, 1 SM horizontal and 500ft vertical from cloud

b)

3 SM visibility, 2000ft Horizontal and 1000ft vertical from cloud

c)

½ SM visibility, Clear of Cloud

d)

1 SM visibility, Clear of Cloud

38.

What is your expected fuel burn for the leg from N49°22’00” by W111°50’20” to Medicine Hat if you climb to 3500ft ASL for the trip? Assume your departure point is 2800ft ASL (assume cruise climb to 3500ft).

a)

You will burn 6.9 US Gal for the flight

b)

You will burn 6.0 US Gal for the flight

c)

You will burn 7.7 US Gal for the flight

d)

You will burn 8:7 US Gal for the flight

39.

After flying along and talking with your customers about their job you discover that you are unsure of your position. Noting that the GPS has gone dead, you decide to use the Lethbridge and Cutbank VOR’s for a position fix. Tuning in Lethbridge first you get the CDI centered with a radial, flag indicating FROM. Tuning in the Cut Bank VOR you on the 087 indication, with a FROM flag. Where are you?

a)

I am presently West of the town of Foremost

b)

I am presently 1 NM west of Legend

c)

I am presently West of the dam on the Chin Coulee

d)

I am presently over the Foremost aerodrome

40.

Along your flight to Medicine Hat, you decide to check your time to the station. While tuned in to Medicine Hat’s NDB, your relative bearing changes from 000 degrees to 015 degrees in two minutes.

a)

I am presently 7.5 minutes from the station

b)

I am presently 8 minutes from the station

c)

I am presently 12.5 minutes from the station

d)

None of the above

41.

Which of the following is true in regards to Warner's Airport?

a)

It is West of town

b)

Its runway is 3300ft ASL

c)

Jet fuel is not available

d)

It is operated by Transport Canada

42.

What is a suitable VFR cruising altitude for the leg from Lethbridge to Warner?

a)

You should cruise at 7300ft ASL

b)

You should cruise at 6500ft ASL

c)

You should cruise at 5500ft ASL

d)

You should cruise at 7000ft ASL

43.

What radio frequencies are available at Lethbridge's FSS?

a)

Only at 126.70MHz

b)

You can get FSS on 123.475 and 126.7 MHz

c)

You can get FSS on 115.7, 121.0 but not 126.7 MHz

d)

You can get FSS on 121.0, 126.7 MHz

44.

What is the approximate variation at the mid-point of the leg from Lethbridge to Warner?

a)

The mid-point variation is 14° E

b)

The mid-point variation is 15° E

c)

The mid-point variation is 15° W

d)

The mid-point variation is 13° W

45.

Which of the following frequencies could be used to contact the FSS at Medicine Hat?

a)

You can use 121.5, 243.0

b)

You can use 122.2 and 116.7 MHz

c)

You can use 122.2 but not 126.7 MHz

d)

You can use 123.375 and 126.7 MHz

46.

When flying between Foremost and Medicine Hat, using the hypsometric tinting on the map, what is the average elevation enroute?

a)

Sea level to 2000ft

b)

Above 2000ft

c)

Below 4000ft

d)

Between 2000ft and 2500ft

47.

From North to South, the order of the principle air masses that affect Canada's weather are:

a)

cA, mP, mA, and mT

b)

mA, cA, mT, and mP

c)

cA, mA, mP, and mT

d)

mA, cA, mP, and mT

48.

________ ice forms from ________, super-cooled water droplets.

a)

Rime, small

b)

Rime, large

c)

Clear, small

d)

A and C

49.

Which of the following clouds would be classified as a cloud of vertical development?

a)

AS

b)

AC

c)

ACC

d)

None of the Above

50.

Which of the following is true in regards to frontal fog?

a)

Dew point temperature is raised by adding moisture to the air

b)

Dew point temperature remains the same

c)

Dew point temperature is reduced by the addition of moisture

d)

Dew point temperature has nothing to do with frontal fog

51.

Dew point temperature is 9 degrees C and the surface temperature is 12 degrees C. Under these conditions, the freezing level in convective cloud would be found where?

a)

at 5000ft

b)

at 6000ft

c)

at 7000ft

d)

at 8000ft

52.

Which of the following are lifting processes?

a)

Convection, convergence, advection, and conduction

b)

Convection and convergence

c)

Convection, advection, radiation, and conduction

d)

Convergence, radiation, and conduction

53.

Under which of the following cloud types would little turbulence be expected?

a)

Stratus

b)

Altocumulus

c)

Cumulonimbus

d)

Towering cumulus

54.

Which of the following is the dominant feature of the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm?

a)

Lightning

b)

Hail

c)

An anvil cloud

d)

Updrafts

55.

Following the passage of a squall line, there will be a ______ in temperature and a ______ in barometric pressure.

a)

Decrease, increase

b)

Decrease, decrease

c)

Increase, decrease

d)

Increase, increase

56.

What strength of winds are reported on the GFA?

a)

Winds that are stronger than light and variable

b)

Significant or unusual winds

c)

Winds that are stronger than 20 knots

d)

Winds that are stronger than 25 knots

57.

The areas marked on the ICG TURBC & FZLVL with lines and dots are:

a)

Continuous icing and showers

b)

Continuous and showery precipitation

c)

Areas of icing and turbulence

d)

Areas of both clear and rime icing

58.

In the north east corner of the GFA (See Appendix) what do you have to lookout for according to the icing, turbulence, and freezing level chart?

a)

High winds

b)

Intermittent precipitation

c)

Mixed icing, low level wind shear, and mechanical turbulence

d)

Clear air turbulence and icing

59.

An aircraft is flying above Airport A where the altimeter setting is 30.12"Hg and the aircraft is at 6000ft indicated altitude. The pilot does not reset the altimeter while flying. Over Airport B the altimeter setting is 29.72"Hg and the elevation is 4690ft ASL. The pilot continues to maintain indicated altitude of 6000ft. What will the absolute altitude be for the aircraft when it is over Airport B?

a)

910ft

b)

6400ft

c)

5600ft

d)

1710ft

60.

Which of the following gives the altitude of cloud tops?

a)

GFA

b)

TAF

c)

GFA and TAF

d)

METAR

61.

The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is __________. It differs from the dry adiabatic lapse rate due to __________.

a)

1.5°F/1000ft, high relative humidity and dew point

b)

3.0°C/1000ft, heat absorption during condensation

c)

1.5°C/1000ft, heat released during condensation

d)

1.5°C/1000ft, high relative humidity and dew point

62.

What is the temperature at (CYQL) Lethbridge?

a)

It is measured at 3C

b)

It is measured at -7C

c)

It is measured at 7C

d)

It is measured at -3C

63.

What is the dew-point temperature at (CZPC) Pincher Creek?

a)

It is measured at -5C

b)

It is measured at -8C

c)

It is measured at 5C

d)

It is measured at 8C

64.

How are the winds changing at CYYC as you climb from 6000ft to 12,000ft?

a)

Veering and backing

b)

Backing and increasing

c)

Veering and increasing

d)

Backing and decreasing

65.

What is the pressure level forecast to be at Earlton (CYXR) at 0000Z?

a)

Between 1024 and 1028 hPa

b)

Between 50 and 30 hPa

c)

1033 inches mercury

d)

1020 SLP

66.

What is the highest forecast altitude for the freezing level in Ontario?

a)

2500ft AGL

b)

Surface

c)

2500ft ASL

d)

1028ft ASL

67.

What is the lowest expected ceiling between 1100Z and 1800Z at CYYC?

a)

It is expected at 3000ft OVC

b)

It is expected to be at 3000ft BKN and temporarily 800ft BKN

c)

It is expected to be 20000ft OVC

d)

It is expected to be 3000ft BKN

68.

What types of clouds make up the BKN layer at 2200Z in CYQL?

a)

Stratocumulus for 4/8 and Altocumulus for 2/8 of the sky

b)

Stratus Fractus for 1/8 and Altocumulus Castellonus for 2/8 of the sky

c)

Strato Cirrus for 4/8 and Altocumulus Castellonus for 2/8 of the sky

d)

Stratocumulus for 4/8 and Alto Cirrus for 2/8 of the sky

69.

What is the sea level pressure at CYXH?

a)

The barometric pressure is 30.40 Mb

b)

The barometric pressure is 30.40 inches of Hg

c)

The barometric pressure is 1033.1 inches of Hg

d)

The barometric pressure is 1033.1 Mb

70.

How much of the sky is not covered in CYQL at 2200Z?

a)

There is 0/8 of the sky clear

b)

There is 1/8 of the sky clear

c)

There is 3/8 of the sky clear

d)

There is 7/8 of the sky clear

71.

At 2200Z what is the height of the ceiling above ground at CYQL?

a)

The ceiling is 2000ft AGL

b)

The ceiling is 4000ft AGL

c)

The ceiling is 3000ft AGL

d)

The ceiling is 10,000ft AGL

72.

What set of conditions will give you a minimum rate of descent in autorotation?

a)

High weight, high airspeed, low pressure

b)

Low weight, low airspeed, high density altitude

c)

Low weight, airspeed of between 40 and 60 it’s, low density altitude

d)

Low weight, low density altitude, airspeed between 70 and 80 kts

73.

What conditions are best for carburetor icing?

a)

-5C to +15C, high humidity, any power setting

b)

+5C to -15C, low or zero humidity, any power setting

c)

Less than -5C, high humidity, cruise power

d)

Less than -15C, low humidity, cruise power

74.

Cyclic and collective movements are translated to the blades by:

a)

The swash plate

b)

By control cables

c)

Control rods and pitch links

d)

A and C

75.

The static port is partially blocked, what happens to the airspeed indicator?

a)

Over reads in a climb, under reads in a descent

b)

Under reads in a climb, over reads in a descent

c)

Shows an increase in airspeed as altitude increases

d)

Shows an increase in airspeed during a descent

76.

A Turn coordinator indicator displays what information?

a)

Rate of roll, rate of turn

b)

Rate of bank, rate of turn

c)

Rate of roll, rate of bank

d)

Rate of turn plus roll and yaw indications.

77.

What effect does carburetor heat have on the fuel air mixture?

a)

It will enrich the mixture

b)

It will have no effect on the mixture

c)

It will keep the pilot warm in the winter

d)

It will lean the mixture

78.

You are hovering in a no wind situation and you tilt the disc. What happens?

a)

The vertical component of the lift increases

b)

The total amount of lift remains the same

c)

Lift is increased

d)

Lift resultant decreases

79.

When fueling:

a)

You should use plastic funnels

b)

You should remove your survival equipment. If something goes wrong (fire, explosion) you still have it.

c)

You don’t need to bond your equipment

d)

Don’t fuel out of barrels

80.

You are flying an aircraft that uses Jet B. It is currently 0C outside, your maximum fuel load is 250lbs and your machine burns 10 U.S. gallons per hour. How long can you fly? (see appendix)

a)

3:80 hours

b)

3:69 hours

c)

3:14 hours

d)

4:17 hours

81.

What precautions must be taken when flying in rain?

a)

Ensure that the fuel caps are on after fuelling, so that no water can enter the fuel system

b)

Objects ahead may appear higher than they really are

c)

Objects ahead may appear lower than they really are

d)

Both A and C

82.

What must occur for ground resonance to take place?

a)

C of G too far forward

b)

Contact with the ground

c)

A high density altitude

d)

A faulty lead lag hinge

83.

What surface when hovered over will give the most ground effect?

a)

Tarmac

b)

Tall grassy field

c)

Water

d)

Slope

84.

What type of vibration would an engine problem in a piston powered helicopter be associated with?

a)

Low frequency

b)

Medium frequency

c)

High frequency

d)

Two - per - rev

85.

You inadvertently fly into a cloud and do a rate-one 180 degree turn using your instruments. When you roll out of the turn what sensation may you have?

a)

That you are flying straight and level

b)

Turning in the opposite direction

c)

That you are continuing the turn

d)

That you are in a turn of some sort or another

86.

In ground effect height is based on?

a)

Half the length of the helicopter

b)

The length of a rotor blade

c)

Three-quarters of the disc diameter

d)

The power of the engine

87.

What compensates for dissymmetry of lift?

a)

Feathering of the blades

b)

Flapping of the blades

c)

Coning of the blades

d)

Leading and Lagging of the blades

88.

Which conditions give the best performance for a turbine engine?

a)

High temperatures, high altitudes, high pressure

b)

Low density altitudes, high elevations, low temperature

c)

Low altitude, high pressure, and lower temperature

d)

Low temperature, low altitude, low pressure

89.

Asymmetric shedding of ice causes:

a)

Loss of lift

b)

Massive vibrations

c)

Control difficulty

d)

All of the above

90.

If a power failure occurs at altitude, the pilot should immediately:

a)

Center the pedals

b)

Apply left pedal to correct yaw

c)

Lower the collective

d)

Hold the collective in neutral position

91.

The amount of water absorbed in aviation fuels will:

a)

Remain the same regardless of temperature changes

b)

Decrease as the temperature of the fuel increases

c)

Increase as the temperature of the fuel increases

d)

Increases as the temperature of the fuel decreases

92.

What advantage does a turbo-powered engine have over a non-turbo powered engine?

a)

A turbo engine has more power

b)

A turbo engine allows the engine to maintain rated power up to higher altitudes

c)

A turbo engine runs on Jet Fuel, which is cheaper than AVGAS

d)

A turbo engine is lighter

93.

What is the purpose of a freewheeling unit?

a)

It allows the rotor to turn independently of the engine in the event of an engine failure

b)

To make it easier to start the engine without having to drive the rotors as you start

c)

It acts as a reduction gear between the main rotors and the tail rotor

d)

It disengages the starter from the engine after a successful start

94.

You are asked to land behind a large jet, what precaution must you take?

a)

You should stay under his approach path and land beyond his touchdown point

b)

You should stay under his approach path and land before his touchdown point

c)

You should stay above his approach path and land before his touchdown point

d)

You should stay above his approach path and land beyond his touchdown point

95.

When are the strongest vortices formed?

a)

When the aircraft is heavy, slow and in a clean configuration

b)

When the aircraft is heavy, slow and in a landing configuration

c)

When the aircraft is heavy, fast and in a clean configuration

d)

When the aircraft is light, slow and in a clean configuration

96.

What is a rigid rotor free to do?

a)

Flap

b)

Feather

c)

Lead

d)

Both A and C

97.

In a free turbine engine, the compressor is driven by

a)

The acceleration of intake air

b)

The turbine by-pass air

c)

The gas producer turbine

d)

The expanding gases from the combustion chamber

98.

Using the chart in the appendix, can you perform a safe autorotation in a RH22 from 450ft while travelling at 30kts?

a)

Yes

b)

There is not enough information to figure it out

c)

No

d)

Yes but you would have to have a headwind

99.

You are flying a RH22 Beta and you want to land on a mountain that is 7500ft. The OAT is +10C. What is the maximum weight your helicopter could be to land successfully?

a)

1370 lbs

b)

1325 lbs

c)

You can’t land that high

d)

1300 lbs

100.

The gross weight of your helicopter is 1596.2lbs. It has a longitudinal arm of 105.24 inches and moment of 167984. The lateral arm is 0.28 inches and the moment is 447. Your customer shows up with an extra passenger weighing 185 lbs. You decide to put this person in the rear right seat that has a longitudinal arm of 79.50 inches and a lateral arm of 12.20 inches. What is your new longitudinal C of G?

a)

Unable to solve the question due to not having all the information

b)

The new weight and balance is 1411.2lbs and 1.52 inches

c)

The new weight and balance is 1781.2 lbs and 102.57 inches

d)

The new weight and balance is 1781.2 and 114.5 inches