Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsUEK*
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Who should validate the requirements collected by the business analyst
a)
the client
b)
the sponsor
c)
the project team
d)
the project manager
2.
Which two elements are necessary to schedule a project (choose 2)
a)
defined actions
b)
a final performance report
c)
a sequence of actions
d)
retrospective meetings
3.
What does a burn down chart measure?
a)
the performance of each team member
b)
time available
c)
work done
d)
work still to be done
4.
Which two of the following statements are examples of defining the project scope in a project (Choose 2)
a)
the website must not cost more than $180,000
b)
The website must allow users to make online purchases from anywhere in the world
c)
the website must contain six sections, one for each of the company's product types
d)
the website must be finished before October 18
5.
Which technique is used to identify roles and the level of responsibilities?
a)
Capability table
b)
Dependency and responsibility tracker
c)
Affinity diagram
d)
Responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed (RACI) matrix
6.
What is an agile control method that shows where the project is going over time?
a)
Burnup chart
b)
Backlog
c)
Burndown chart
d)
Kanban board
7.
In an agile or adaptive environment, when should risk be monitored and prioritized?
a)
Only during the Initiation and Closing phases
b)
During the Initiation and Planning phases
c)
During each iteration as the project progresses
d)
Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting
8.
Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?
a)
Background, personality, and communications management plan
b)
Personality, background, and escalation process
c)
Sponsor relationship, personality, and background
d)
Current emotional state, personality, and background
9.
Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?
a)
Procurement statement of work (SOW)
b)
Procurement strategy
c)
Terms of reference
d)
Change request
10.
A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders, is correct?
a)
The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.
b)
Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.
c)
The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.
d)
Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.
11.
Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?
a)
Hybrid methodologies
b)
Risk register updates
c)
Outsourced project resources
d)
Reliance on lessons learned documents
12.
What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?
a)
Earned value management (EVM)
b)
Estimate at completion (EAC)
c)
Earned value analysis (EVA)
d)
Budget at completion (BAC)
13.
The project manager is creating the communications management plan. Which group of inputs is required to begin?
a)
Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register
b)
Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan
c)
Project charter, project management plan, and project documents
d)
Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan
14.
A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:
a)
create the project management plan
b)
identify the project objectives
c)
review and update stakeholder engagement
d)
create the schedule baseline
15.
Select three processes that are associated with Project Schedule Management? (Choose three.)
a)
Define Activities
b)
Plan Resource Management
c)
Estimate Activity Durations
d)
Develop Schedule
e)
Acquire Resources
16.
What are the project management processes associated with project quality management?
a)
Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Control Quality
b)
Plan Quality Management, Manage Quality, and Cost of Quality
c)
Manage Quality, Customer Satisfaction, and Control Quality
d)
Customer Satisfaction, Control Quality, and Continuous Improvement
17.
In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with charges?
a)
Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions
b)
Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints
c)
Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders
d)
Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team
18.
The activity of tailoring is necessary because:
a)
the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide; this is required for all projects
b)
each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide
c)
the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects
d)
each project is unique, and the project team must plan how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide
19.
When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process:
a)
Develop Schedule
b)
Define Activities
c)
Define Scope
d)
Collect Requirements
20.
Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?
a)
Adjust duration estimates
b)
Define activities
c)
Complete rolling wave planning
d)
Develop milestone list
21.
During what project management process does the project manager invest the most effort into creating the work breakdown structure (WBS)?
a)
Initiating
b)
Planning
c)
Executing
d)
Monitoring and Controlling
22.
Given the following information:
✑ Activity A takes one week.
✑ Activity B takes three weeks.
✑ Activity C takes two weeks.
✑ Activity D takes five weeks.
✑ Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.
✑ Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.
✑ Activity D follows Activity C.
How long will it take to complete the project?
a)
8 weeks
b)
9 weeks
c)
10 weeks
d)
11 weeks
23.
Which is an example of analogous estimating?
a)
Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.
b)
Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.
c)
Estimates are created by analyzing data.
d)
Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.
24.
With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?
a)
Suppliers
b)
Customers
c)
Governing bodies
d)
Project team
25.
Which document can help a project manager to leverage historical project information?
a)
Lessons learned register
b)
Schedule baseline
c)
Work performance data
d)
Deliverable acceptance forms
26.
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Planning
c)
Initiating
d)
Closing
27.
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
a)
Inspection
b)
Variance analysis
c)
Decomposition
d)
Product analysis
28.
An element of the project scope statement is:
a)
Acceptance criteria.
b)
A stakeholder list.
c)
A summary budget,
d)
High-level risks.
29.
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
a)
Cost baseline
b)
Service level agreement
c)
Memorandum of understanding
d)
Business case
30.
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
a)
Project team
b)
Focus group
c)
Change control board
d)
Project stakeholders
31.
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
a)
Project Scope Management
b)
Project Human Resource Management
c)
Project Integration Management
d)
Project Time Management
32.
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
a)
A requirements traceability matrix.
b)
The scope management plan.
c)
Work performance reports.
d)
Change requests.
33.
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
a)
Initiating
b)
Executing
c)
Monitoring and Controlling
d)
Planning
34.
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
a)
Project charter
b)
Enterprise environmental factors
c)
Stakeholder register
d)
Organizational process assets
35.
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
a)
Control Quality
b)
Control Scope
c)
Monitor and Control Project Work
d)
Perform Integrated Change Control
36.
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
a)
Work performance information.
b)
Inspections and audits.
c)
Payment systems.
d)
Procurement performance reviews.
37.
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
a)
Project Communications Management
b)
Project Integration Management
c)
Project Risk Management
d)
Project Scope Management
38.
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
a)
Scope baseline
b)
Organizational process assets
c)
Enterprise environmental factors
d)
Risk register
39.
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
a)
Organizational process assets.
b)
Enterprise environmental factors updates.
c)
Project staff assignments.
d)
Organizational charts and position descriptions.
40.
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
a)
Plan Human Resource Management.
b)
Acquire Project Team.
c)
Manage Project Team.
d)
Develop Project Team.
41.
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
a)
Resource calendar
b)
Tight matrix
c)
Team-building activity
d)
Focus group
42.
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Initiating
c)
Planning
d)
Monitoring and Controlling
43.
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
a)
Feedback analysis
b)
Stakeholder analysis
c)
Communication management plan
d)
Stakeholder management plan
44.
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
a)
Benchmarking.
b)
Context diagrams.
c)
Brainstorming.
d)
Prototyping.
45.
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
a)
Power/influence grid
b)
Power/interest grid
c)
Influence/impact grid
d)
Salience model
46.
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
a)
Facilitation techniques
b)
Expert judgment
c)
Analytical techniques
d)
Variance analysis
47.
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
a)
Control charts
b)
Pareto diagrams
c)
Ishikavva diagrams
d)
Checksheets
48.
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
a)
Collect Requirements.
b)
Conduct Procurements.
c)
Estimate Activity Durations.
d)
Estimate Activity Resources.
49.
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
a)
Procurement documents
b)
Communications plan
c)
Project charter
d)
Stakeholder register
50.
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
a)
Initiating
b)
Monitoring and Controlling
c)
Planning
d)
Executing
Reset
