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WorksheetsRoad to Fame
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?
a)
Repetitive
b)
Unique
c)
No outcome
d)
Permanent
2.
Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:
a)
process groups
b)
phase gates
c)
knowledge areas
d)
project phases
3.
Which of the following is the definition of a project?
a)
Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product
b)
Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
c)
Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
d)
Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
4.
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a:
a)
guide to project management processes, tools and techniques.
b)
methodology for managing projects.
c)
guide for project, portfolio and program management.
d)
standard for project, portfolio and program management.
5.
Which of the following is a Process Group?
a)
Scoping
b)
Budgeting
c)
Closing
d)
Quality
6.
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
a)
Strategic plan
b)
Project charter
c)
Project management plan
d)
Service level agreement
7.
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
a)
Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
b)
Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
c)
Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
d)
Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
8.
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
a)
Document analysis
b)
Observations
c)
Product analysis
d)
Expert judgment
9.
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
a)
Independent estimates
b)
Market research
c)
Analytical techniques
d)
Bidder conferences
10.
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
a)
Communication models.
b)
Enterprise environmental factors.
c)
Organizational communications,
d)
Organizational cultures and styles.
11.
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
a)
Expert judgment
b)
Forecasting methods
c)
Earned value management
d)
Analytical techniques
12.
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Monitoring and Controlling
c)
Initiating
d)
Planning
13.
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
a)
Control Scope
b)
Define Scope
c)
Plan Scope Management
d)
Collect Requirements
14.
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
a)
Identify Risks
b)
Control Risks
c)
Plan Risk Management
d)
Plan Risk Responses
15.
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
a)
Plan Schedule Management.
b)
Develop Project Charter.
c)
Develop Schedule.
d)
Plan Scope Management.
16.
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
a)
Issue log
b)
Change log
c)
Expert judgment
d)
Change requests
17.
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
a)
The project charter.
b)
The stakeholder analysis.
c)
A communication management plan.
d)
A stakeholder register.
18.
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
a)
Cost estimates.
b)
Resource calendars,
c)
The project charter,
d)
The risk register.
19.
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
a)
Product analysis.
b)
Variance analysis.
c)
Document analysis,
d)
Decomposition.
20.
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
a)
Develop Project Team.
b)
Manage Project Team.
c)
Acquire Project Team.
d)
Plan Human Resource Management.
21.
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
a)
Mandatory
b)
Discretionary
c)
Internal
d)
External
22.
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
a)
Monitor and Control Project Work
b)
Perform Quality Assurance
c)
Close Project or Phase
d)
Control Scope
23.
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
a)
Work performance reports.
b)
Change requests.
c)
Activity resource requirements.
d)
Enterprise environmental factors.
24.
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
a)
Procurement statement of work
b)
Purchase order
c)
Source selection criteria
d)
Bidder conference
25.
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Planning
c)
Monitoring and Controlling
d)
Closing
26.
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
a)
Efficient
b)
Effective
c)
Push
d)
Pull
27.
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
a)
Performance measurement baseline.
b)
Analysis of project forecasts,
c)
Summary of changes approved in a period,
d)
Analysis of past performance.
28.
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
a)
Adaptive
b)
Predictive
c)
Incremental
d)
Iterative
29.
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
a)
0.50
b)
0.67
c)
1.50
d)
2.00
30.
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
a)
Schedule data
b)
Activity list
c)
Risk register
d)
Scope baseline
31.
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
a)
Interactive communication
b)
Claims administration
c)
Conflict management
d)
Performance reporting
32.
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
a)
Interrelationship digraphs
b)
Tree diagram
c)
Affinity diagram
d)
Network diagram
33.
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
a)
Planning.
b)
Executing,
c)
Monitoring and Controlling.
d)
Closing.
34.
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
a)
Manage Project Team
b)
Acquire Project Team
c)
Develop Project Team
d)
Plan Human Resource Management
35.
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
a)
Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
b)
Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
c)
Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
d)
Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
36.
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
a)
Projectized
b)
Weak matrix
c)
Functional
d)
Balanced matrix
37.
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Planning
c)
Initiating
d)
Closing
38.
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
a)
Inspection
b)
Variance analysis
c)
Decomposition
d)
Product analysis
39.
An element of the project scope statement is:
a)
Acceptance criteria.
b)
A stakeholder list.
c)
A summary budget,
d)
High-level risks.
40.
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
a)
Cost baseline
b)
Service level agreement
c)
Memorandum of understanding
d)
Business case
41.
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
a)
Project team
b)
Focus group
c)
Change control board
d)
Project stakeholders
42.
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
a)
Project Scope Management
b)
Project Human Resource Management
c)
Project Integration Management
d)
Project Time Management
43.
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
a)
A requirements traceability matrix.
b)
The scope management plan.
c)
Work performance reports.
d)
Change requests.
44.
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
a)
Initiating
b)
Executing
c)
Monitoring and Controlling
d)
Planning
45.
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
a)
Project charter
b)
Enterprise environmental factors
c)
Stakeholder register
d)
Organizational process assets
46.
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
a)
Control Quality
b)
Control Scope
c)
Monitor and Control Project Work
d)
Perform Integrated Change Control
47.
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
a)
Work performance information.
b)
Inspections and audits.
c)
Payment systems.
d)
Procurement performance reviews.
48.
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
a)
Project Communications Management
b)
Project Integration Management
c)
Project Risk Management
d)
Project Scope Management
49.
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
a)
Scope baseline
b)
Organizational process assets
c)
Enterprise environmental factors
d)
Risk register
50.
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
a)
Organizational process assets.
b)
Enterprise environmental factors updates.
c)
Project staff assignments.
d)
Organizational charts and position descriptions.
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