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AWS_Database_Quizz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which domains are covered in Chapter 5 of the AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Exam learning material?

a)

Domain 1: Design Secure Architectures

b)

Domain 2: Design Resilient Architectures

c)

Domain 3: Design High-Performing Architectures

d)

Domain 4: Design Cost-Optimized Architectures

2.

What allows an application to store, organize, and quickly retrieve data?

a)

A) A spreadsheet

b)

B) A relational database

c)

C) A flat file

d)

D) A programming language

3.

What are the two flavors of databases mentioned in the text?

a)

A) Relational and nonrelational

b)

B) Static and dynamic

c)

C) Local and cloud-based

d)

D) SQL and NoSQL

4.

What are the columns in a relational database table also called?

a)

A) Cells

b)

B) Records

c)

C) Attributes

d)

D) Entries

5.

What are the rows in a relational database table also called?

a)

A) Cells

b)

B) Records or tuples

c)

C) Attributes

d)

D) Entries

6.

Which AWS service is NOT mentioned as a managed database service provided by AWS?

a)

A) Amazon RDS

b)

B) Amazon Redshift

c)

C) DynamoDB

d)

D) Amazon S3

7.

What term is used to describe a database that allows for flexible queries and is represented by tables such as the one in Table 5.1?

a)

Hierarchical database

b)

Object-oriented database

c)

Relational database

d)

Network database

8.

According to the text, what is a disadvantage of not using multiple related tables in a database?

a)

It increases the security of the database.

b)

It makes the database easier to understand.

c)

It can lead to unnecessary duplication and make queries slower.

d)

It simplifies the structure of the database.

9.

What happens if you delete a column from a relational database table?

a)

It deletes only the column header but keeps the data.

b)

It deletes the data stored under the column for all employees.

c)

It rearranges the remaining columns automatically.

d)

It creates a backup of the deleted data.

10.

Why might an application use multiple related tables instead of a single table?

a)

To increase the complexity of the database.

b)

To make data entry more challenging.

c)

To avoid wasted space and improve query performance.

d)

To limit the types of queries that can be performed.

11.

What is the data type of the 'Employee ID' column in Table 5.1?

a)

String

b)

Date

c)

Number

d)

Boolean

12.

What is the data type of the 'Birthdate' column in Table 5.1?

a)

String

b)

Date

c)

Number

d)

Boolean

13.

How many times does the string "Information technology" appear in the Employees table for the information technology department?

a)

1

b)

50

c)

100

d)

It is not mentioned how many times it appears.

14.

What is the primary key in the Employees table as shown in Table 5.3?

a)

Department ID

b)

Last name

c)

Employee ID

d)

Birthdate

15.

In the context of Table 5.3, what does the Department ID in the Employees table represent?

a)

A foreign key

b)

A primary key

c)

A string value

d)

A unique employee identifier

16.

Which table is considered the parent table in the relationship described?

a)

The Employees table

b)

The Departments table

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B

17.

What is the purpose of defining primary and foreign keys in database tables?

a)

To enforce foreign key constraints

b)

To create a new table

c)

To delete records from the database

d)

To update the table structure

18.

What is a common misconception about the term "relational" in relational databases?

a)

It refers to the relationship between tables.

b)

It refers to the relationship of attributes within a row.

c)

It means that the database can only have one table.

d)

It implies that there are no relationships between tables.

19.

What is the SELECT statement used for in a SQL database?

a)

To insert data into a table

b)

To query data from a database

c)

To copy data into a table

d)

To join two databases

20.

What is the purpose of the INSERT statement in SQL?

a)

To create a new database

b)

To delete data from a table

c)

To insert data into a table

d)

To update data in a table

21.

Which type of processing is an OLTP database optimized for?

a)

Slow, infrequent transactions

b)

Fast, frequent transactions

c)

Complex queries against large data sets

d)

Data warehousing

22.

What are OLAP databases optimized for?

a)

Fast, frequent transactions

b)

Simple queries against small data sets

c)

Complex queries against large data sets

d)

Real-time data insertion

23.

What is a common use case for an OLTP database?

a)

Backing an online ordering system that processes hundreds of orders a minute

b)

Managing employee data for a large corporation

c)

Aggregating multiple databases into a single data warehouse

d)

Performing regular backup of data

24.

In data warehousing, what is a common practice involving OLTP databases?

a)

Splitting a single OLTP database into multiple OLAP databases

b)

Aggregating multiple OLTP databases into a single OLAP database

c)

Converting OLTP databases into real-time analytics platforms

d)

Reducing the size of OLTP databases for better performance

25.

What is the Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)?

a)

A software that stores, organizes, and retrieves data in a database

b)

A managed database service that lets you run relational database systems in the cloud

c)

A virtual private cloud that fully manages database instances

d)

A database engine that runs multiple database engines

26.

What does AWS RDS take care of?

a)

Configuring a database instance and managing SSH sessions

b)

Setting up the database system, performing backups, and patching the database software

c)

Providing automatic backups for OLTP applications only

d)

Managing virtual private clouds and EC2 instances

27.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the database instances managed by AWS RDS?

a)

They exist in a virtual private cloud (VPC)

b)

They are fully managed by AWS

c)

They allow direct SSH access

d)

They do not show up under your EC2 instances

28.

Which storage engines does MySQL offer for RDS-managed automatic backups?

a)

MyISAM and XtraDB

b)

MyISAM and InnoDB

c)

InnoDB and XtraDB

d)

MyISAM and MariaDB

29.

Which of the following is recommended by AWS for maximum compatibility with RDS?

a)

MyISAM storage engine

b)

XtraDB storage engine

c)

InnoDB storage engine

d)

MariaDB storage engine

30.

What is MariaDB in relation to MySQL?

a)

A virtual private cloud service

b)

A managed database service

c)

A drop-in binary replacement for MySQL

d)

A storage engine used by MySQL

31.

Which Oracle Database edition is NOT listed as an option provided by RDS?

a)

Oracle Database 11g

b)

Oracle Database 21c

c)

Oracle Database 19c

d)

Oracle Database 12c Release 1

32.

Which open source database is known as the most Oracle-compatible according to the text?

a)

MySQL

b)

Amazon Aurora

c)

Microsoft SQL Server

d)

PostgreSQL

33.

What does Amazon Aurora provide to reduce the number of writes to the underlying storage?

a)

A virtualized storage layer

b)

An in-memory caching system

c)

A proprietary file system

d)

A distributed ledger technology

34.

Which feature of Amazon Aurora allows you to restore your database to any point within the last 72 hours?

a)

Aurora Backtrack

b)

Aurora Snapshot

c)

Aurora Rollback

d)

Aurora Replay

35.

Which RDS licensing model requires you to obtain a license for the database engine you run?

a)

License included model

b)

Bring Your Own License (BYOL) model

c)

Enterprise Edition (EE) model

d)

Standard Edition Two (SE2) model

36.

Which database engine software supports the Bring Your Own License model according to the text?

a)

MariaDB

b)

MySQL

c)

PostgreSQL

d)

Oracle

37.

What do database option groups allow you to do?

a)

Increase the size of the database

b)

Specify features and apply them to one or more instances

c)

Decrease the cost of database management

d)

Reduce the amount of memory used by databases

38.

Which database engines offer transparent data encryption (TDE)?

a)

MySQL and MariaDB

b)

Microsoft SQL Server and Oracle

c)

Microsoft SQL Server and MySQL

d)

Oracle and MariaDB

39.

What is the purpose of an audit plug-in for MySQL and MariaDB?

a)

To increase query performance

b)

To encrypt data before writing it to storage

c)

To log user logons and queries run against the databases

d)

To provide additional memory to the database

40.

What does the latest-generation standard instance class db.m6i provide?

a)

512 GB of memory and 128 vCPU

b)

40 Gbps network bandwidth and 50,000 Mbps disk throughput

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

41.

What is the most memory-optimized instance class mentioned in the text?

a)

db.m6i

b)

db.xle

c)

db.m4

d)

db.r5

42.

How much memory does the most memory-optimized instance class provide?

a)

512 GB

b)

3,904 GB

c)

128 GB

d)

40 GB

43.

What type of storage do database instances use according to the text?

a)

SSD storage

b)

HDD storage

c)

EBS storage

d)

NAS storage

44.

Do both standard and memory-optimized instance classes provide dedicated bandwidth for transfers to and from EBS storage?

a)

Yes, they both provide dedicated bandwidth

b)

No, only standard instance classes provide dedicated bandwidth

c)

No, only memory-optimized instance classes provide dedicated bandwidth

d)

The text does not specify

45.

What is the latest burstable performance instance class available for Amazon Relational Database Service as mentioned in the document?

a)

db.t2.micro

b)

db.t3.medium

c)

db.t4g

d)

db.m5.large

46.

How much memory does the latest burstable performance instance class provide?

a)

16 GB of memory

b)

32 GB of memory

c)

64 GB of memory

d)

128 GB of memory

47.

What is the network bandwidth available for the latest burstable performance instance class?

a)

1 Gbps

b)

5 Gbps

c)

10 Gbps

d)

20 Gbps

48.

What is the disk throughput for the latest burstable performance instance class?

a)

1,024 Mbps (128 MBps)

b)

2,048 Mbps (256 MBps)

c)

3,072 Mbps (384 MBps)

d)

4,096 Mbps (512 MBps)

49.

Which AWS instance classes are based on the AWS Nitro System?

a)

db.t3 and db.t4g

b)

db.t2 and db.m4

c)

db.t3, db.m5, and db.r5

d)

db.m5 and db.r5

50.

What is the page size of MySQL and MariaDB as mentioned in the document?

a)

4 KB

b)

8 KB

c)

16 KB

d)

32 KB

51.

According to the document, what is the relationship between IOPS and page size?

a)

The larger the page size, the more IOPS you need.

b)

The larger the page size, the fewer IOPS you need.

c)

The page size has no effect on IOPS.

d)

The smaller the page size, the more IOPS you need.

52.

What is the minimum storage volume you can create for general-purpose SSD (gp2) storage in RDS?

a)

20 GB

b)

10 GB

c)

5 GB

d)

1 TB

53.

For each gigabyte of data that you allocate to a volume, how many IOPS does RDS allocate for general-purpose SSD (gp2) storage?

a)

3 IOPS

b)

6 IOPS

c)

10 IOPS

d)

50 IOPS

54.

What is the maximum number of IOPS you can provision with general-purpose SSD (gp2) without needing to overallocate storage?

a)

10,000 IOPS

b)

3,000 IOPS

c)

16,000 IOPS

d)

5,334 IOPS

55.

How is the burst duration in seconds calculated for a volume that temporarily needs to burst to 3,000 IOPS?

a)

(Credit balance) / [3,000 - 3 * (storage size in GB)]

b)

(Credit balance) / [3,000 - 3^(storage size in GB)]

c)

(Credit balance) / [3,000 - 3 * (storage size in TB)]

d)

(Credit balance) / [3,000 - 3 / (storage size in GB)]

56.

Upon booting a database instance, what is the initial credit balance for IOPS that you receive?

a)

5,400,000 IOPS

b)

2,250 seconds

c)

3,000 IOPS

d)

16,000 IOPS

57.

If you are running MariaDB with a page size of 16 KB, how do you determine the number of IOPS you'll need to sustain 2,000 Mbps of disk throughput?

a)

Divide the bandwidth by the page size

b)

Multiply the bandwidth by the page size

c)

Divide the page size by the bandwidth

d)

Multiply the page size by 2,000

58.

What is the rate at which the credit balance is replenished for IOPS on an Amazon RDS gp2 volume?

a)

One baseline IOPS every minute

b)

600 IOPS every second

c)

One baseline IOPS every second

d)

5,400,000 IOPS every hour

59.

What is the maximum number of IOPS you can provision per io1 volume?

a)

5,400,000 IOPS

b)

32,000 IOPS

c)

256,000 IOPS

d)

256,000 IOPS per io1 volume

60.

For Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1), what is the minimum ratio of storage in gigabytes to IOPS?

a)

50:1

b)

100:1

c)

10:1

d)

30:1

61.

When creating an RDS database instance using MariaDB, which template should be selected to avoid incurring any charges?

a)

Standard Create

b)

Dev/Test

c)

Free Tier

d)

Production

62.

According to the RDS guarantee, what percentage of the provisioned IOPS will be achieved within 10 percent for 99.9 percent of the year?

a)

90 percent

b)

99.9 percent

c)

99 percent

d)

10 percent

63.

What is the maximum size of magnetic storage offered by RDS for backward compatibility with older instances?

a)

500 GB

b)

1 TB

c)

2 TB

d)

100 GB

64.

What does scaling vertically mean in the context of database instances?

a)

Adding more database instances

b)

Upgrading to a larger instance class

c)

Distributing the load across multiple instances

d)

Decreasing the resources of an instance

65.

What is the purpose of a read replica in a database system?

a)

To increase write performance

b)

To serve as a backup for the master database

c)

To offload query load from the master database

d)

To replace the master database in case of failure

66.

How many read replicas can you have for RDS and Aurora respectively?

a)

Up to 5 for RDS and up to 10 for Aurora

b)

Up to 10 for RDS and up to 15 for Aurora

c)

Up to 5 for RDS and up to 15 for Aurora

d)

Up to 15 for RDS and up to 20 for Aurora

67.

What happens if the master database instance fails before the replication is complete?

a)

The read replicas will automatically become the new master

b)

The replication process will restart automatically

c)

You will lose the unsynchronized data

d)

The read replicas will continue to function without any data loss

68.

What is the first step in creating a Read Replica in the Amazon RDS service console?

a)

Click the Create Read Replicas button.

b)

In the navigation pane of the RDS service console, click Databases.

c)

Select the read replica you created.

d)

Click Actions and then select Promote.

69.

What must you do before promoting a Read Replica to a Master?

a)

Click the Create Read Replicas button.

b)

Delete the original master instance.

c)

Wait for the replica to enter the Available state.

d)

Click Promote Read Replica immediately after creation.

70.

In a Multi-AZ deployment, what is the role of the standby database instance?

a)

It handles reads and writes to the database.

b)

It is promoted to a read replica.

c)

It takes over if the primary database instance experiences an outage.

d)

It is used to create Read Replicas.

71.

What are some possible causes for a database instance outage?

a)

Availability zone outage

b)

Changing a database instance type

c)

Patching of the instance's operating system

d)

All of the above

72.

When should you enable multi-AZ if you want to experience a significant performance hit?

a)

Before creating your database instance

b)

After creating your database instance during a maintenance window

c)

After creating your database instance at any time

d)

When you change the database instance type

73.

In a Multi-AZ deployment with Oracle, PostgreSQL, MariaDB, MySQL, and Microsoft SQL Server, where must all instances reside?

a)

In different regions

b)

In the same availability zone

c)

In the same region

d)

In multiple availability zones

74.

What is the replication behavior in a Multi-AZ deployment with Oracle, PostgreSQL, MariaDB, MySQL, and Microsoft SQL Server?

a)

The primary instance replicates data to a read replica in a different region

b)

The primary instance does not replicate data

c)

The primary instance replicates data to the standby instance in the same region

d)

The standby instance replicates data to the primary instance

75.

What happens when a failover occurs in a Multi-AZ deployment with Oracle, PostgreSQL, MariaDB, MySQL, and Microsoft SQL Server?

a)

The standby instance becomes the primary and starts serving traffic

b)

The primary instance continues to serve traffic

c)

The application has to do nothing as the transition is seamless

d)

The application has to reconnect to the endpoint

76.

What type of license model is required if you configure multi-AZ using the bring your own license model for Oracle?

a)

A license for the primary instance only

b)

A license for the standby instances only

c)

A license for both the primary and standby instances

d)

No license is required

77.

What are the two options for multi-AZ with Amazon Aurora?

a)

Single-master and dual-master

b)

Single-master and multi-master

c)

Dual-master and multi-region

d)

Single-region and multi-region

78.

What happens to the cluster volume in an Amazon Aurora single-master cluster when the primary instance fails and no Aurora replicas exist?

a)

The cluster volume is deleted

b)

A new primary instance is created to replace the failed one

c)

The cluster volume is manually expanded

d)

The cluster volume remains unchanged

79.

What is the maximum acceptable time to recover data and resume processing after a failure according to the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

a)

The time it takes to restore a snapshot

b)

5 minutes

c)

The maximum acceptable time

d)

The time it takes to take a snapshot

80.

What is the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) in the context of Amazon RDS?

a)

The time it takes to restore a snapshot

b)

The maximum period of recent data changes that may be lost in the event of a failure

c)

The time it takes to take a snapshot

d)

The maximum acceptable time to recover data

81.

How often does Amazon RDS take automated snapshots of your instances?

a)

Weekly

b)

Daily during a 30-minute backup window

c)

Monthly

d)

Every 5 minutes

82.

What is the default retention period for automated snapshots in Amazon RDS?

a)

1 day

b)

7 days

c)

35 days

d)

0 days

83.

What happens if you set the retention period for automated snapshots to 0 in Amazon RDS?

a)

It will keep the snapshots indefinitely

b)

It will delete snapshots older than 30 days

c)

It will delete all existing automated snapshots and disable point-in-time recovery

d)

It will create a snapshot every 0 days

84.

What will happen if you change the retention period from 0 to any other value in Amazon RDS?

a)

It will delete the database instance.

b)

It will trigger an immediate snapshot.

c)

It will start the maintenance window.

d)

It will upgrade the database engine.

85.

What does AWS handle as part of its responsibility for RDS maintenance items?

a)

Customer service inquiries.

b)

Patching and upgrades.

c)

Database instance creation.

d)

Data backup and restoration.

86.

How long is the maintenance window for Amazon RDS, and is it possible for tasks to run beyond this time?

a)

20 minutes, and tasks cannot run beyond this time.

b)

30 minutes, but tasks can run beyond this time.

c)

1 hour, and tasks cannot run beyond this time.

d)

45 minutes, but tasks can run beyond this time.

87.

What problem does Amazon RDS Proxy address?

a)

It handles the reconnection to the backup instance during a database failover.

b)

It upgrades the database engine automatically.

c)

It increases the retention period for database snapshots.

d)

It provides additional storage for database instances.

88.

What is maintained by Amazon RDS Proxy to prevent performance problems?

a)

A large number of open connections to the database instance.

b)

A minimal number of open connections to the database instance.

c)

A fixed number of database snapshots.

d)

A constant upgrade schedule for the database engine.

89.

What is Amazon Redshift primarily optimized for?

a)

Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)

b)

Data warehousing applications

c)

Web hosting services

d)

Real-time data analytics

90.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Amazon Redshift?

a)

Based on PostgreSQL

b)

Part of Amazon RDS

c)

Columnar storage

d)

JDBC and ODBC connectors

91.

What does Amazon Redshift use to reduce the amount of storage space required for each column?

a)

Data encryption

b)

Compression encodings

c)

Data deduplication

d)

Data partitioning

92.

What type of storage nodes can store up to 16,384 TB of storage on fast SSDs in a Redshift cluster?

a)

Dense compute nodes

b)

Dense storage nodes

c)

RA3 nodes

d)

Leader nodes

93.

Which distribution style in Redshift spreads data out evenly across all compute nodes?

a)

EVEN distribution

b)

KEY distribution

c)

ALL distribution

d)

RANDOM distribution

94.

In Amazon Redshift, what is the role of the leader node?

a)

It stores up to 2 PB of data on magnetic hard disk drives.

b)

It coordinates communication among the compute nodes and with clients.

c)

It incurs additional charges.

d)

It compresses data manually.

95.

What is the purpose of Redshift Spectrum?

a)

To import large amounts of data into your cluster

b)

To query data from files stored in S3 without importing them into your cluster

c)

To increase the storage capacity of your database

d)

To migrate databases between different AWS regions

96.

What makes AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) particularly powerful?

a)

Its ability to increase database storage automatically

b)

Its ability to migrate data between different database engines and between relational and nonrelational databases

c)

Its ability to replicate databases within the same engine only

d)

Its ability to backup data to S3 automatically

97.

Which of the following is NOT a database that AWS Database Migration Service can migrate data between?

a)

Aurora

b)

MongoDB

c)

Microsoft Excel

d)

Oracle

98.

What does DMS provision to manage the migration process?

a)

A DMS instance on an EC2 instance

b)

A dedicated S3 bucket

c)

A direct connection to the target database

d)

A virtual private cloud

99.

If a database is too large to transfer over the network for migration, what AWS service is recommended?

a)

AWS Lambda

b)

Snowball Edge

c)

AWS Glacier

d)

Amazon RDS

100.

What is a more accurate description for unstructured data in the context of nonrelational databases?

a)

Data that cannot be stored in any database

b)

Data that has a consistent and fixed structure

c)

Multistructured data that can vary in structure

d)

Data that is always text-based