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Worksheets

MTEB

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the best explanation for the meaning of the word “theory”?

a)

A general, verifiable principle that explains many observations

b)

An observation that manages to mostly explain many principles

c)

Principles that explain many observations, verifiable or not

d)

A general, verifiable principle that explains all observations succinctly

2.

The main scientific theory regarding how life arose on Earth is known as: 

a)

Evolution

b)

Abiogenesis

c)

Panspermia

d)

Empiricism

3.

A strand of DNA contains 40% thymine. What percentage of guanine does it contain?

a)

0%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

40%

4.

According to the central dogma, the flow of information in a cell occurs in what order?

a)

DNA → RNA → Protein

b)

RNA → DNA → Protein

c)

Protein → RNA → DNA

d)

Protein → DNA → RNA

e)

DNA → Protein → RNA

5.

The secondary level of protein structure is?

a)

The main shape, formed by interactions between side chains.

b)

Linear polypeptide chain

c)

Involves interactions between protein sub-units

d)

α-helix and β-pleated sheets (due to hydrogen bonding)

6.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Proteins store genetic information

b)

Ribosomes are used to transcribe DNA 

c)

DNA changes are responsible for evolution 

d)

DNA is first translated, then transcribed, to produce a protein 

7.

Which of the following is NOT one of Darwin’s observations or theories?   

a)

The environment continues to expand to support the offspring produced by different species

b)

Members of a population often vary in their inherited traits

c)

Individuals with more beneficial inherited traits are more likely to survive and leave offspring

d)

All life is related and has a common ancestor 

8.

Evolution is thought to...

a)

Be goal-oriented (i.e. not random) 

b)

Be a product of mutations

c)

Lead to higher and more complex forms 

d)

Be supported only by fossil evidence and Galapagos finch species

9.

Evolution resulting from migration is known as: 

a)

Natural selection

b)

Genetic drift

c)

Gene flow

d)

Immigratory change

10.

Which of the following orders the key events of Life on Earth (human-centric) correctly?

a)

First single-celled organism → Appearance of animals → Multicellularity → First eukaryotes → Oxygen revolution → Appearance of humans → Colonisation of land 

b)

First single-celled organism → First eukaryotes → Multicellularity → Appearance of animals → Oxygen revolution  Colonisation of land → Appearance of humans 

c)

First single-celled organism → Multicellularity → Oxygen revolution → First eukaryotes  Appearance of animals  → Colonisation of land → Appearance of humans 

d)

First single-celled organism Oxygen revolution  First eukaryotes Multicellularity Appearance of animals  Colonisation of land  Appearance of humans 

11.

A group of a phylogenetic tree that contains a common ancestor and some but not all of its decedents is known as:

a)

Monophyletic

b)

Paraphyletic

c)

Polyphyletic

d)

Clade

12.

The most recent common ancestor of birds and Ornithischian dinosaurs would be:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

13.

Which of the following structures is present in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Nucleus

d)

Plasma membrane

14.

The organelle that packages proteins for transport out of a cell is known as:

a)

Ribosome

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Golgi body

15.

Biological membranes are

a)

Selectively permeable

b)

Able to sense the external environment

c)

Fluid mosaic

d)

All of the above

16.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Diffusion is a spontaneous process in which particles diffuse from an area of greater concentration to an area of lower concentration

b)

Diffusion is a spontaneous process in which particles diffuse from an area of lower concentration to an area of greater concentration

c)

Active transport is a non-spontaneous process in which particles diffuse from an area of greater concentration to an area of lower concentration, using energy

d)

Osmosis is a non-spontaneous process in which water diffuses to an area of greater solute concentration

17.

Binary fission is:

a)

The combination of 2 cells to create 1 giant cell

b)

Cell division by meiosis

c)

Cell division in prokaryotes, creating 2 genetically identical daughter cells

d)

Cell division in eukaryotes, creating 2 genetically identical daughter cells

18.

Which of the following processes occurs in meiosis?

a)

DNA replication after Meiosis I

b)

Sister chromatids separate in Meiosis I

c)

At the end of Meiosis II, 2 haploid cells are created

d)

Pairs of homologous chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate in Meiosis I

19.

Which of the following statements defines ‘anabolic’ reactions?

a)

Breakdown of complex molecules and compounds into simpler one

b)

Alteration of the shape of complex molecules

c)

Neutralising the charge of complex molecules

d)

Synthesis of more complex compounds and molecules from simpler ones

20.

An enzyme-catalysed reaction will:

a)

Increase activation energy

b)

Decrease activation energy

c)

Will not change activation energy

d)

Only affect enzymes

21.

Which of the following is NOT a product of the citric acid cycle?

a)

2 Acetyl-CoA

b)

3 CO

c)

4 NADH + 4 H+ and 1 FADH2

d)

1 ATP

22.

The majority of the ATP in aerobic respiration is directly produced in:

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Pyruvate oxidation

c)

Citric Acid Cycle

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation

23.

Energy produced by the partial breakdown of sugars and other organic fuels is known as:

a)

Aerobic respiration

b)

Anaerobic respiration

c)

Fermentation

d)

All of the above

24.

With regards to the Calvin cycle:

a)

Light energy is used to synthesise ATP

b)

ATP is required 

c)

Water is reduced to oxygen

d)

It occurs in the thylakoid stacks of the chloroplast

25.
  1. A science student isolates a novel strain of the bacterial E. coli. Which of the following features could not apply to this organism?

a)

Absence of internal organelles

b)

Multicellular

c)

Rod-shaped (bacillus)

d)

Cell wall

26.
  1. The endospore is:

a)
  1. Formed when a prokaryote faces harsh conditions

b)
  1. Formed when a prokaryote wishes to replicate

c)
  1. Produced as a food source when food is scarce

d)
  1. Allows prokaryotes to “stick” to substrate

27.
  1. A public health researcher visits a very ill community, presenting with diarrhea, greasy stools and dehydration. They discover that this community visits one particular creek to obtain drinking water as well as to shower and toilet. The most likely infective organism is __________. The protist clade it belongs to is ___________.

a)
  1. Brown algae; SAR

b)
  1. Red algae; Archaeplastida

c)
  1. Slime moulds; Unikonta

d)
  1. Giardia; Excavata

28.
  1. S. aureus is a bacterium which lives on the skin of humans. If the skin is intact the human does not develop any diseases from this bacterium. This is an example of:

a)
  1. Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Predation

29.

The cell wall in fungi is made of:

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Starch

c)

Chitin

d)

Cellulose

30.

The fungal phylum distinguished by arbuscular mycorrhizae formed with plants is:

a)

Chytridiomycota

b)

Zygomycota

c)

Glomeromycota

d)

Ascomycota

31.

SAQ1. Discuss the similarities and differences between DNA and RNA. You may provide your answer in table format or dot points (paragraph structure is not necessary).

4 lines
32.

SAQ2. Name and describe two examples of evidence that supports the theory of evolution.

4 lines
33.

SAQ3. Label the Diagram:

4 lines
34.

SAQ4. Explain when and why photorespiration occurs and describe 2 types of adaptations that allow plants to survive in arid and hot climates.

4 lines
35.

SAQ5. What are some mutualistic relationships between plants and organisms living in soil?

4 lines
36.

Bonus question: Eukaryotes perform two types of cell division. Below is a diagram illustrating both processes. Fill in the blanks:

4 lines