WorksheetsAP 1 Exam 3 More Practice_version1
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Important functions of the skeletal system include
a)
protection of the brain and soft organs.
b)
storage of water.
c)
production of Vitamin E.
d)
regulation of acid-base balance.
e)
integration of other systems.
2.
Which of the following is NOT a function of bone?
a)
Support
b)
Movement
c)
Immunity
d)
Calcium storage
e)
Blood cell formation
3.
Which of the following occurs in the formation of mineralized bone matrix?
a)
Hydrogen ions form an acid environment in bone matrix.
b)
Osteoblasts form collagen and proteoglycans.
c)
The protein components of bone matrix are digested.
d)
Ca2+ is actively transported from bone matrix to the blood.
e)
Blood calcium is elevated.
4.
The primary mineral in bone is_________.
a)
sodium
b)
oxygen
c)
calcium
d)
potassium
e)
iron
5.
Which of the following cell types is responsible for breaking down bone matrix?
a)
Chondroclast
b)
Osteoclast
c)
Chondroblast
d)
Fibroblast
e)
Osteocyte
6.
The primary function of osteoblasts is to
a)
prevent osteocytes from forming.
b)
resorb bone along the epiphyseal plate.
c)
inhibit the growth of bone.
d)
stimulate bone growth.
e)
lay down bone matrix.
7.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
a)
Osteocyte - functions in bone remodeling
b)
Osteoclast - responsible for reabsorption
c)
Osteoblast - breaks down bone tissue
d)
Endosteum - lines central canal of the osteon
e)
Periosteum - lines the medullary cavity
8.
A passageway connecting neighboring osteocytes in an osteon is a_________.
a)
central canal
b)
lamella
c)
canaliculus
d)
lacuna
e)
osteocanal
9.
Thin sheets of bone matrix are_________.
a)
lamellae
b)
lacunae
c)
canaliculi
d)
periosteum
e)
trabeculae
10.
Spaces in the bone matrix that are occupied by osteocytes are_________.
a)
lamellae
b)
lacunae
c)
periosteum
d)
trabeculae
11.
Which of the following correctly matches the bone type with an example?
a)
Short bone - carpal bone
b)
Long bone - vertebra
c)
Irregular bone - femur
d)
Flat bone - phalanges of the toes
e)
Short bone - humerus
12.
An example of a long bone would be_________.
a)
the sternum
b)
a rib
c)
a carpal bone
d)
the tibia
e)
the clavicle
13.
Some marrow of long bones is termed "red" marrow. The function of red marrow is to
a)
manufacture blood cells.
b)
manufacture tissue cells for the skin.
c)
store adipose tissue.
d)
store bone-forming cells.
e)
make vitamin D.
14.
What is the end of a long bone?
a)
Epiphysis
b)
Sharpey's fibers
c)
Growth plate
d)
Medullary cavity
e)
Endosteum
15.
The spaces between developing skull bones that have not ossified are called_________.
a)
epiphyseal plates
b)
articular cartilages
c)
fontanels
d)
bone collars
e)
medullary cavities
16.
Appositional growth deposits a new layer of bone tissue
a)
on the surface of the bone.
b)
in the epiphyseal plate of long bones.
c)
in the secondary ossification center of the epiphyses.
d)
in interstitial areas.
e)
on spongy bone, but not compact bone.
17.
How does the nervous system contribute to homeostasis in individuals suffering from osteoporosis?
a)
Address inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
b)
Stimulate exercise to reduce muscle stress on bone.
c)
The sense of pain following injury helps prevent further injury.
d)
Inhibit blood clotting to halt the repair process.
e)
Reduce calcitonin secretion.
18.
Which of the following is an example of how the cardiovascular system works to counteract the effects of osteoporosis?
a)
Improve the absorption of calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
b)
Increase exercise to increase muscle stress on bone.
c)
Reduce pain following injury.
d)
Blood clotting starts repair process.
e)
Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis.
19.
How does the digestive system contribute to osteoporosis?
a)
It is impacted by inadequate amounts of calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
b)
Lack of exercise reduces muscle stress on bone.
c)
Pain following injury helps prevent further injury.
d)
Blood clotting starts repair process.
e)
Calcitonin is used to treat osteoporosis.
20.
How do the lymphatic and immune systems contribute to osteoporosis?
a)
Macrophages in the skin destroy the precursor to vitamin D.
b)
Immune cells resist infections and release chemicals that promote tissue repair.
c)
Excessive smoking stimulate immune cells to attack bones, which increases bone loss.
d)
Calcium ions are excreted by immune cells at the lymph nodes.
e)
Decreased estrogen levels following a viral infection contribute to the disease.
21.
How does the integumentary system contribute to osteoporosis?
a)
Lack of exposure to sunlight reduces vitamin D production and decreases calcium absorption.
b)
Lack of exposure to sunlight increases calcitonin secretion leading to reduced calcium storage in the bones.
c)
Estrogen produced in the dermis reduces calcium excretion in the kidneys.
d)
Calcium ions released from the bones are excreted through sweat.
e)
Decreased estrogen levels following menopause contribute to the disease.
22.
How does the urinary system contribute to osteoporosis?
a)
Lack of exposure to sunlight increases vitamin D production at the kidneys and decreases calcium absorption.
b)
Immune cells of the kidneys absorb excess calcium under the direction of PTH.
c)
Excessive smoking lowers calcitriol levels, which decreases bone loss.
d)
Calcium ions released from the bones are excreted as part of urine.
e)
Decreased estrogen levels following menopause contribute to the disease.
23.
Most of the joints in the appendicular skeleton are_________ joints.
a)
fibrous
b)
immovable
c)
synovial
d)
cartilaginous
e)
inarticulate
24.
Synovial fluid
a)
lacks cells.
b)
is found between all bony junctions.
c)
increases friction between bones.
d)
is produced by articular cartilage.
e)
decreases friction between bones.
25.
Which of the following joints is most movable?
a)
Suture
b)
Syndesmosis
c)
Symphysis
d)
Synovial
e)
Synchondrosis
26.
Which of the following joints is most movable?
a)
Plane
b)
Saddle
c)
Hinge
d)
Pivot
e)
Ball and socket
27.
Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
a)
Body movement
b)
Maintenance of posture
c)
Respiration
d)
Constriction of organs
e)
Production of heat
28.
Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both
a)
are under involuntary control.
b)
are striated.
c)
are widely distributed in the body.
d)
have multiple nuclei.
e)
are under voluntary control.
29.
Skeletal muscle fibers
a)
possess striations.
b)
can contract but are not extensible or excitable.
c)
do not require nerve innervation to contract.
d)
increase dramatically in number after birth.
e)
are found in the walls of the stomach.
30.
Which type of muscle tissue has spindle-shaped cells?
a)
Skeletal muscle
b)
Smooth muscle
c)
Cardiac muscle
d)
Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct.
e)
Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.
31.
Which type of muscle tissue is autorhythmic?
a)
Only skeletal muscle
b)
Only smooth muscle
c)
Only cardiac muscle
d)
Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct.
e)
Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.
32.
Which type of muscle tissue is multinucleated?
a)
Skeletal muscle
b)
Smooth muscle
c)
Cardiac muscle
d)
Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct.
e)
Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.
33.
Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
a)
Skeletal muscle
b)
Smooth muscle
c)
Cardiac muscle
d)
Both skeletal and cardiac muscle are correct.
e)
Both cardiac and smooth muscle are correct.
34.
The active sites to which cross-bridges attach are found on the
a)
sarcoplasmic reticulum.
b)
actin myofilaments.
c)
Z disks.
d)
T tubules.
e)
myosin myofilaments.
35.
The sarcolemma is the
a)
plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
b)
cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.
c)
structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle fiber.
d)
contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber.
e)
protein strand composed of actin.
36.
Synaptic vesicles in the neuromuscular junction contain
a)
calcium.
b)
ATP.
c)
acetylcholine.
d)
acetylcholinesterase.
e)
sodium.
37.
Acetylcholine binds to a membrane bound receptor and causes ligand-gated sodium channels to open and results in
a)
hyperpolarization.
b)
depolarization.
c)
hypoplarization.
d)
no change in membrane potential.
e)
There is not enough information to predict the outcome.
38.
T tubules
a)
provide nutrients to the muscle fiber.
b)
generate new muscle fibers.
c)
conduct action potentials deep into the muscle fiber.
d)
release acetylcholine.
e)
store calcium ions.
39.
Which of the following statements concerning types of muscle contractions is false?
a)
In isometric contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle is constant.
b)
In isotonic contractions, the muscle fibers shorten.
c)
The contractile processes in isometric and isotonic contractions are the same.
d)
Most skeletal muscle contractions are a combination of isometric and isotonic contractions.
e)
In isotonic contractions, the amount of tension produced by the muscle fibers is constant during the contraction.
40.
Concentric contractions occur when
a)
the muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
b)
the tension and length of the muscle remain constant during a contraction.
c)
tension in a muscle is maintained while the muscle increases in length.
d)
the muscle produces tension while the length of the muscle increases.
e)
isometric contractions occur.
41.
Which of the following events occurs last in intramembranous ossification?
a)
Osteoprogenitor cells become osteoblasts.
b)
A membrane of delicate collagen fibers develops.
c)
Spongy bone is formed.
d)
Periosteum is formed.
e)
Many tiny trabeculae of woven bone develop.
42.
Appositional growth deposits a new layer of bone tissue
a)
on the surface of the bone.
b)
in the epiphyseal plate of long bones.
c)
in the secondary ossification center of the epiphyses.
d)
in interstitial areas.
e)
on spongy bone, but not compact bone.
43.
When blood vessels become surrounded by concentric lamella forming osteons, the bone will grow in_________.
a)
length
b)
diameter
c)
the epiphyseal plate
d)
the articular cartilage
e)
All of the choices are correct.
44.
Low blood calcium levels cause which of the following?
a)
Increased osteoclast activity
b)
Increased calcitonin secretion
c)
Reduced calcium absorption
d)
Increased production of bone tissue
e)
Increased osteoblast activity
45.
Bone formation associated with cartilage is called_________ ossification while bone formed in connective tissue membranes is called_________ ossification.
a)
endochondral; intramembranous
b)
intramembranous; endochondral
c)
woven, spongy
d)
spongy, woven
46.
It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the_________.
a)
diaphysis
b)
medullary cavity
c)
epiphyseal plate
d)
articular cartilage
47.
The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone once it has been formed is the_________.
a)
osteoclast
b)
osteoblast
c)
chondrocyte
d)
osteocyte
e)
chondroblast
48.
Which term refers to a place where two or more bones come together?
a)
Cavity
b)
Foramen
c)
Contusion
d)
Articulation
e)
Diaphysis
49.
Joints are classified according to the
a)
bones that are united at the joint.
b)
structure of the joint.
c)
size of the joint.
d)
shape of the joint.
e)
type of fluid in the joint.
50.
Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both
a)
are under involuntary control.
b)
are striated.
c)
are widely distributed in the body.
d)
have multiple nuclei.
e)
are under voluntary control.
51.
Muscles exhibit the property of excitability. This means that the muscle
a)
shortens its length.
b)
recoils to its original resting length.
c)
stretches beyond its normal length.
d)
responds to stimulation by the nervous system.
e)
excites itself.
52.
Which of the following statements about muscle tissue is true?
a)
Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.
b)
Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.
c)
Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.
d)
Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.
e)
There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
53.
Myosin is also known as the
a)
thick myofilament.
b)
thin myofilament.
c)
intermediate myofilament.
d)
short myofilament.
e)
sarcomere.
54.
Which of the following causes an unequal ion concentration across the resting plasma membrane?
a)
The functioning of the sodium-chloride pump
b)
Negatively charged proteins not readily diffusing across the plasma membrane
c)
The attraction of chloride ions to other intracellular anions
d)
The repulsion of potassium ions by the intracellular anions
e)
The attraction of sodium ions to chloride ions
55.
Channels that open or close in response to changes in the electrical charge or voltage across the plasma membrane are called
a)
ligand-gated ion channels.
b)
leak ion channels.
c)
relegated ion channels.
d)
voltage-gated ion channels.
e)
obligated ion channels.
56.
Which of the following changes would have the most dramatic effect on the membrane potential?
a)
Increased permeability of the membrane to Na+
b)
Increased extracellular concentration of Na+
c)
Decreased permeability of the membrane to Ca+2
d)
Increased permeability of the membrane to K+
e)
Increased extracellular concentration of Ca+2
57.
An action potential
a)
occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level.
b)
is not propagated.
c)
has no repolarization phase.
d)
is an example of negative feedback.
e)
can be of varying strengths depending on strength of the stimulus.
58.
Lack of acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft would result in
a)
a decrease in acetylcholine production by the motor neuron.
b)
continuous stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane.
c)
rapid degradation of acetylcholine.
d)
relaxation of the muscle.
e)
continuous stimulation of the presynaptic membrane.
59.
T tubules
a)
provide nutrients to the muscle fiber.
b)
generate new muscle fibers.
c)
conduct action potentials deep into the muscle fiber.
d)
release acetylcholine.
e)
store calcium ions.
60.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum
a)
stores Ca+2
b)
shortens during muscle contraction.
c)
transmits nerve impulses to the myofibrils.
d)
connects adjacent sarcomeres.
e)
covers the muscle fiber.
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