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SA Chapter 11

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one of the objectives in Domain 3: Design High-Performing Architectures?

a)

Design scalable and loosely coupled architectures.

b)

Design highly available and/or fault-tolerant architectures.

c)

Determine high-performing and/or scalable storage solutions.

d)

Determine high-performing data ingestion and transformation solutions.

2.

Which of the following is NOT an objective listed under Domain 3: Design High-Performing Architectures?

a)

Design high-performing and elastic compute solutions.

b)

Determine high-performing database solutions.

c)

Design scalable and loosely coupled architectures.

d)

Determine high-performing and/or scalable network architectures.

3.

What is the main purpose of leveraging AWS features according to the introduction?

a)

To ensure every system is running without failures

b)

To get full value from AWS by leveraging features that set the cloud apart from legacy environments

c)

To reduce the cost of cloud resources to a minimum

d)

To replace all legacy systems with AWS services

4.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an ability for the purposes of the chapter on AWS?

a)

Quickly launch test environments to experiment and measure performance

b)

Abstract operations by using managed services to automate infrastructure provisioning

c)

Manually control the scaling of operations to meet changing demand

d)

Automate the deployment of complex, full-stack infrastructure through scripts and templates

5.

What chapter might have discussed how to respond to failures in AWS before this chapter?

a)

Chapter 9

b)

Chapter 10 "Resilient Architectures"

c)

Chapter 11

d)

Chapter 12

6.

What is the ultimate goal of "compute" services according to the text?

a)

To solve real-world performance problems.

b)

To apply some kind of compute resource to a workload demand quickly and efficiently.

c)

To provide the cheapest solution for computing needs.

d)

To always use the same kind of compute resource for every problem.

7.

What should you match the EC2 instance type to, as closely as possible?

a)

The cheapest available option.

b)

The most popular instance type.

c)

The workload you expect to face.

d)

The instance with the most storage.

8.

What does ECU stand for in the context of EC2 instance parameters?

a)

Elastic Compute Unit.

b)

Elastic CPU Usage.

c)

Efficient Compute Utility.

d)

Enhanced Computing Unit.

9.

What does the 'vCPUs' parameter represent for an EC2 instance?

a)

The velocity of the CPU.

b)

The virtualization capability of the CPU.

c)

The number of virtual CPUs allotted to an instance.

d)

The vendor of the CPU.

10.

What does 'EBS-Optimized Available' indicate about an EC2 instance?

a)

It can be optimized for energy-saving purposes.

b)

It has additional security features enabled.

c)

It can be configured to use EBS optimization for dedicated I/O throughput.

d)

It is available for use with Elastic Beanstalk services.

11.

What does Auto Scaling in AWS help with?

a)

Reducing the data transfer rate

b)

Supporting application demand by running identical workloads in parallel with existing instances

c)

Encrypting data using AES-NI

d)

Improving graphics and analytics performance

12.

What is the purpose of Intel AES-NI as mentioned in the instance type parameter descriptions?

a)

It is used to improve network performance.

b)

It supports IPv6 addressing.

c)

It is an encryption instruction set.

d)

It benefits from short-term performance boosts.

13.

What does Intel AVX stand for and what is its benefit?

a)

Advanced Vector Extensions, used for improved graphics/analytics performance

b)

Advanced Encryption Standard-New Instructions, used for encryption

c)

Auto Vector Extensions, used for automatic scaling

d)

Advanced Velocity X, used for network performance

14.

What happens when demand falls and Auto Scaling is enabled in AWS?

a)

EC2 will launch one or more exact copies of your instance.

b)

EC2 will automatically shut down instances to prevent unused resources from running.

c)

The account administrators take a snapshot of the EBS volume.

d)

A private EC2 AMI is generated.

15.

What instance type is recommended to be used when creating a launch configuration for an application using Auto Scaling according to the exercise?

a)

c4.large

b)

m5.xlarge

c)

t2.micro

d)

r3.8xlarge

16.

What command is used to install the Apache web server in the exercise?

a)

apt-get install -y apache2

b)

yum install -y apache2

c)

apt-get install -y nginx

d)

yum install -y nginx

17.

What is the target value for the CPU Utilization to confirm that the autoscaling is working in this exercise?

a)

70 to 80 percent

b)

5 percent

c)

20 percent

d)

50 percent

18.

What is the minimum and maximum capacity set for the Auto Scaling group in the exercise?

a)

Minimum 0, Maximum 2

b)

Minimum 1, Maximum 1

c)

Minimum 1, Maximum 2

d)

Minimum 2, Maximum 2

19.

According to the exercise, what do you need to do after the Auto Scaling group starts the first instance?

a)

Configure notifications and tags

b)

Point your browser to the IP address associated with the instance

c)

Create a new security group

d)

Increase the Group Size value

20.

What command is suggested to "cheat" and raise the CPU level high enough to launch a second instance in the exercise?

a)

while true; do true; done

b)

while false; do true; done

c)

while true; do false; done

d)

while false; do false; done

21.

Which AWS service is designed for container management and works with its front-end abstraction AWS Fargate?

a)

Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2)

b)

Amazon Elastic Container Service (ECS)

c)

AWS Lambda

d)

Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3)

22.

What is the maximum duration for which AWS Lambda functions can run code bursts?

a)

Up to 5 minutes

b)

Up to 15 minutes

c)

Up to 30 minutes

d)

Up to 60 minutes

23.

For which use case are EC2 instances considered a good fit according to Table 11.2?

a)

Short-lived, ephemeral tasks

b)

Long-lived, more complex web applications

c)

Highly scalable, automated applications

d)

Applications that do not require monitoring

24.

Which type of applications are ECS containers best suited for, as per the common use cases in Table 11.2?

a)

Long-lived, more complex web applications

b)

Short-lived, stateless applications

c)

Highly scalable, automated applications

d)

Infrequently used applications

25.

What is the primary benefit of using serverless workloads like AWS Lambda?

a)

They require a dedicated ongoing server host.

b)

They provide "instant-on" compute functionality with less overhead than a full server.

c)

They are not closely integrated with other AWS services.

d)

They run indefinitely until manually stopped.

26.

Which AWS service provides durable storage where IOPS, latency, and throughput settings determine data access performance?

a)

Amazon S3

b)

Amazon Glacier

c)

Elastic Block Store (EBS)

d)

Amazon FSx for Windows File Server

27.

Which of the following is not a use case for Lambda functions according to the table?

a)

Microservices deployments

b)

Testing environments

c)

Processing transactions

d)

Data backup and recovery

28.

Why are RAID 5 and RAID 6 configurations not recommended by AWS for instances that require high IOPS?

a)

They provide too much available bandwidth.

b)

They are only suitable for smaller instances.

c)

They can leave the instance unbootable if a single drive fails.

d)

They are not supported on the AWS platform.

29.

What is the purpose of S3 Cross-Region Replication (CRR)?

a)

To increase the storage capacity of S3 buckets.

b)

To automatically synchronize content of a bucket in one region with a bucket in another region.

c)

To reduce the cost of S3 bucket storage.

d)

To improve the upload speed to S3 buckets.

30.

What can be replicated using S3 Cross-Region Replication?

a)

Only objects with a specified prefix.

b)

Only new objects created after enabling versioning.

c)

All objects in the source bucket.

d)

Only objects that are publicly accessible.

31.

What happens to the objects from the source bucket when S3 Cross-Region Replication is enabled?

a)

They are moved to the destination bucket and deleted from the source bucket.

b)

Copies of the objects are created in the destination bucket.

c)

They are archived in the source bucket and sent to the destination bucket.

d)

They are encrypted and sent to the destination bucket.

32.

What must be done to the destination bucket to ensure that deleted objects from the source bucket do not disappear from the destination bucket in S3 Cross-Region Replication?

a)

Enable versioning on the destination bucket.

b)

Increase the storage class of the destination bucket.

c)

Disable public access to the destination bucket.

d)

Configure lifecycle policies on the destination bucket.

33.

What is the additional per-gigabyte cost of Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration often found in the range of?

a)

$0.04

b)

$0.10

c)

$0.02

d)

$0.50

34.

To check if S3 Transfer Acceleration would benefit your use case, what URL should you enter in your browser?

a)

s3-accelerate-speedtest.s3-accelerate.amazonaws.com/en/accelerate-speed-comparison.html?region=us-east-1&bucket=my-bucket-name

b)

s3-transfer-speedtest.s3.amazonaws.com/en/speed-comparison.html?region=us-east-1&bucket=my-bucket-name

c)

s3-accelerate-test.s3.amazonaws.com/en/accelerate-speed-comparison.html?region=us-east-1&bucket=my-bucket-name

d)

s3-speedtest.s3-accelerate.amazonaws.com/en/speed-comparison.html?region=us-east-1&bucket=my-bucket-name

35.

Which AWS CLI command enables S3 Transfer Acceleration on an existing bucket?

a)

aws s3api put-bucket-accelerate-configuration --bucket my-bucket-name --accelerate-configuration Status=Enabled

b)

aws s3api enable-bucket-acceleration --bucket my-bucket-name --acceleration-status Enabled

c)

aws s3api set-bucket-accelerate --bucket my-bucket-name --accelerate Enabled

d)

aws s3api update-bucket-accelerate-configuration --bucket my-bucket-name --status Accelerate

36.

What is the correct endpoint URL to use when transferring a file with S3 Transfer Acceleration?

a)

http://s3-accelerate.amazonaws.com

b)

http://s3-accelerate-speedtest.amazonaws.com

c)

http://s3-accelerate-speedtest.s3.amazonaws.com

d)

http://s3-accelerate.amazons3.com

37.

What is one example of using CloudFront with an S3 bucket for optimizing content delivery?

a)

Using an S3 bucket containing videos and images as a load balancer

b)

Using an S3 bucket containing videos and images as an origin for a CloudFront distribution

c)

Using an EC2 instance as an origin for a CloudFront distribution

d)

Hosting media files locally on EC2 instances

38.

What are the critical factors to consider when choosing the right RDS instance type?

a)

Software updates and patches only

b)

Replication and network accessibility only

c)

Database schemas, indexes, and views only

d)

Software updates and patches, replication, network accessibility, and database schemas, indexes, and views

39.

What are the elements that make up the CAP theorem of distributed data?

a)

Consistency, Availability, and Performance

b)

Consistency, Administration, and Partition Tolerance

c)

Consistency, Availability, and Partition Tolerance

d)

Consistency, Accessibility, and Performance

40.

What will the storage volume type you choose for your database impact the most?

a)

The color and design of the database interface

b)

The read and write performance of your database

c)

The geographical location of your data storage

d)

The brand of the database software

41.

What is the role of Pivotal Greenplum Database according to Table 11.3?

a)

Distributed Hadoop-based SQL query engine

b)

Petabyte-scale data warehouse SaaS designed for cloud environments

c)

Massively parallel data warehouse for big data analytics and data science

d)

Automated resource growth for databases

42.

Which technology is available as an EC2 marketplace AMI?

a)

Pivotal Greenplum Database

b)

Snowflake

c)

Presto

d)

Amazon Redshift

43.

What is the maximum network speed provided by enhanced networking on AWS compatible instance types?

a)

10 Gbps

b)

50 Gbps

c)

100 Gbps

d)

1 Gbps

44.

Which of the following is not one of the enhanced networking technologies mentioned in the text?

a)

Elastic Network Adapter (ENA)

b)

Elastic Fabric Adapter (EFA)

c)

Virtual Function (VF) interface

d)

Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)

45.

What is the primary function of a load balancer in front of infrastructure as described in the text?

a)

To distribute incoming requests to DNS servers like Route 53 or CloudFront

b)

To ensure that all traffic goes to a single server to prevent overloading

c)

To route incoming requests to the appropriate backend application servers

d)

To serve as a firewall and protect the infrastructure from cyber attacks

46.

According to the text, what is the benefit of using a load balancer with regards to traffic patterns?

a)

It allows for manual updates to server addresses and availability

b)

It prevents customers from accessing the application

c)

It automates the process and handles unexpected and violent changes in traffic patterns

d)

It requires constant monitoring of server load and manual rerouting of traffic

47.

What is the role of a domain like 'example.com' in the context of a load balancer?

a)

It is used to manually update the load balancer's configuration

b)

It is associated with the load balancer to route traffic to backend servers

c)

It serves as the only server in the infrastructure

d)

It is the technology that enhances the network

48.

What is the purpose of the website link provided in the text?

a)

To offer a tutorial on how to set up a load balancer

b)

To provide details and instructions for enabling enhanced networking

c)

To sell networking equipment

d)

To register a new domain for load balancing

49.

As of August 2022, which Elastic Load Balancing service has been removed from service?

a)

Application Load Balancer

b)

Network Load Balancer

c)

Gateway Load Balancer

d)

Classic Load Balancer

50.

Which load balancer operates at the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model?

a)

Classic Load Balancer

b)

Network Load Balancer

c)

Gateway Load Balancer

d)

Application Load Balancer

51.

At which layer of the OSI model does the Network Load Balancer function?

a)

Layer 3

b)

Layer 4

c)

Layer 5

d)

Layer 7

52.

Which AWS service is tightly integrated with Auto Scaling, the Elastic Container Service, and CloudFormation?

a)

Classic Load Balancer

b)

Network Load Balancer

c)

Gateway Load Balancer

d)

Application Load Balancer

53.

On which layer of the OSI model does the Gateway Load Balancer operate?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 7

54.

What is the primary function of the Gateway Load Balancer?

a)

To manage HTTP and HTTPS traffic

b)

To manage TCP traffic

c)

To manage private connectivity between servers in one VPC

d)

To manage containerized applications

55.

What is the file extension of the health check file that needs to be entered in the Create Target Group link for the exercise?

a)

.php

b)

.html

c)

.js

d)

.css

56.

What is the target type value that should be changed to when creating a target group in the exercise?

a)

Instance ID

b)

IP

c)

DNS Name

d)

URL

57.

What can be heavily automated using both native AWS and third-party tools according to the text under "Infrastructure Automation"?

a)

Only AWS CLI commands

b)

Only AWS SDK foundations

c)

Sophisticated operations

d)

Basic AWS operations

58.

What formats can AWS CloudFormation templates be in?

a)

JSON or XML

b)

YAML or CSV

c)

JSON or YAML

d)

XML or CSV

59.

What allows for an infrastructure as code (IaC) environment in AWS?

a)

Textual abstractions

b)

Graphical user interfaces

c)

Physical hardware configurations

d)

Manual scripting

60.

Which of the following is NOT a way to create templates as mentioned in the document?

a)

Using the browser-based drag-and-drop interface

b)

Working with prebuilt sample templates

c)

Manually writing and uploading a template document

d)

Using a command-line interface to auto-generate templates

61.

What is a CloudFormation stack?

a)

A set of cloud-based storage options

b)

The group of resources defined by your template

c)

A type of virtual private cloud

62.

What will AWS report when a CloudFormation stack has been successfully loaded?

a)

The logical ID of the stack

b)

The physical ID of the stack

c)

That the stack resources are in a pending state

d)

That the stack has successfully loaded or, in the event of a failure, will roll back changes

63.

What is the logical ID in a CloudFormation template?

a)

The identifier for the AWS command-line interface

b)

The identifier for the S3 bucket where templates are stored

c)

The unique identifier for each resource within a template

d)

The physical ID of the VPC created by CloudFormation

64.

How can you create a stack named Network using a template stored locally?

a)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-url file://network-stack.json

b)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-body file://network-stack.json

c)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-body network-stack.json

d)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-url network-stack.json

65.

Which AWS CLI command can be used to create a stack named Network using a template stored in an S3 bucket?

a)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-url https://s3.amazonaws.com/cf-templates-c23z8b2vmpbb-us-east-1/network-stack.json

b)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-body https://s3.amazonaws.com/cf-templates-c23z8b2vmpbb-us-east-1/network-stack.json

c)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-url s3://cf-templates-c23z8b2vmpbb-us-east-1/network-stack.json

d)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name Network --template-body s3://cf-templates-c23z8b2vmpbb-us-east-1/network-stack.json

66.

What allows you to pass custom values to your stack when creating it in AWS CloudFormation?

a)

Parameters

b)

Logical IDs

c)

Nested stacks

d)

Termination protection

67.

What will happen if termination protection is not enabled on a CloudFormation stack and you delete it?

a)

The stack will be marked for review before deletion.

b)

The stack and all resources created by it will be immediately deleted.

c)

The stack deletion will be postponed for 24 hours.

d)

Only the stack will be deleted, but the resources will remain.

68.

What is a best practice for organizing AWS infrastructure to avoid having all resources in a single stack?

a)

Using multiple stacks organized by life cycle and ownership.

b)

Hard-coding all resources into a single template.

c)

Enabling termination protection on all resources.

d)

Defining all resources as parameters.

69.

What are the additional stacks called that are configured within a CloudFormation template to create more stacks?

a)

Parameter stacks

b)

Logical stacks

c)

Nested stacks

d)

Dependent stacks

70.

What is the stack that creates additional stacks in CloudFormation called?

a)

Child stack

b)

Parent stack

c)

Base stack

d)

Master stack

71.

What does the "Ref" intrinsic function return in the context of the 'PublicVPC' resource?

a)

The logical ID of the 'PublicVPC' resource

b)

The URL of the 'PublicVPC' resource

c)

The physical ID of the 'PublicVPC' resource

d)

The outputs of the 'PublicVPC' resource

72.

What must be created first when creating a web stack using the provided CloudFormation template?

a)

The EC2 Auto Scaling group

b)

The network stack

c)

The Secure Shell (SSH) key pair

d)

The CloudFormation templates

73.

What can the Outputs section in a CloudFormation template be used for?

a)

To reference values from the parent stack

b)

To store the physical IDs of resources

c)

To define the logical IDs of resources

d)

To provide the URL of the CloudFormation template

74.

What AWS CLI command is used to create a stack in CloudFormation?

a)

aws cloudformation describe-stacks

b)

aws cloudformation delete-stack --stack-name web-stack

c)

aws cloudformation create-stack --stack-name web-stack --template-url [URL of the web-stack.json template] --parameters ParameterKey=KeyName,ParameterValue=[the name of your SSH keypair] --capabilities CAPABILITY_NAMED_IAM

d)

aws s3 cp network-stack.json s3://[bucket-name]/

75.

What is the purpose of the "Export" field in the Output section of a CloudFormation template?

a)

To delete the stack output values

b)

To describe the stack output values

c)

To share information with stacks outside of a nested hierarchy

d)

To create a new stack with the specified output values

76.

What is the AWS::StackName in CloudFormation?

a)

A function to delete a stack

b)

A parameter that defines the stack's region

c)

A pseudo-parameter that returns the name of the stack

d)

A command to update the stack's resources

77.

What is the best way to modify a resource configuration in a stack according to the text?

a)

Delete the stack and recreate it with the new configuration

b)

Modify the resource configuration directly in the CloudFormation console

c)

Perform a direct update or create a change set

d)

Manually update each resource outside of CloudFormation

78.

What does CloudFormation provide when you create a change set?

a)

A list of user permissions required for the changes

b)

A list of every resource it will add, remove, or modify

c)

A new stack with the updated resources

d)

Immediate execution of changes without review

79.

What happens when a resource is updated with 'Update with No Interruption'?

a)

The resource is deleted and recreated with a new physical ID

b)

The resource is updated with an interruption and changes its physical ID

c)

The resource is updated without interruption and without changing its physical ID

d)

The resource is temporarily disabled but retains its physical ID

80.

What occurs when a resource is updated with 'Update with Some Interruption'?

a)

The resource is updated without any changes to its physical ID

b)

The resource is updated with an interruption but retains its physical ID

c)

The resource is updated with an interruption and changes its physical ID

d)

The resource is permanently removed from the stack

81.

What does CloudFormation do when a new resource with a new physical ID is created?

a)

It updates the dependent resources to point to the new resource and retains the original.

b)

It deletes the new resource immediately after creation.

c)

It creates a new resource and updates dependent resources to point to this new resource, deleting the original.

d)

It creates a duplicate of the original resource in a different availability zone.

82.

What is the purpose of a stack policy in AWS CloudFormation?

a)

To prevent specific resources in a stack from being modified by a stack update.

b)

To automatically update all resources in a stack.

c)

To delete specific resources in a stack after an update.

d)

To document the changes made to resources after an update.

83.

Which action allows updates to the specific resource only if the update will modify and not replace or delete the resource?

a)

Update:Modify

b)

Update:Replace

c)

Update:Delete

d)

Update:*

84.

What must the principal always be in a stack policy?

a)

A specific AWS account ID.

b)

The wildcard (*).

c)

A specific IAM role.

d)

The logical ID of the resource.

85.

Which element specifies the logical ID of the resource to which the policy applies in a stack policy?

a)

Action

b)

Principal

c)

Resource

d)

Condition

86.

What condition type allows you to use wildcards to specify multiple resource types within a service in a stack policy?

a)

StringEquals

b)

StringLike

c)

NumericLessThanEquals

d)

DateEquals

87.

What action is denied by the stack policy in the provided JSON snippet?

a)

Update any resource

b)

Update a specific resource identified by "LogicalResourceId/PublicVPC"

c)

Delete a resource

d)

Create a new resource

88.

What will happen if an update is attempted that is prevented by the stack policy?

a)

The update will be performed without any issues.

b)

The update will succeed only if IAM policies allow it.

c)

The update will fail and CloudFormation will not attempt to update the stack.

d)

CloudFormation will still attempt to update the stack, but the update will fail.

89.

How can you temporarily override a stack policy during a direct update?

a)

By deleting the stack policy

b)

By modifying the IAM policies

c)

By specifying a stack policy that overrides the existing one

d)

By creating a new stack

90.

What happens to the stack policy after a direct update with a temporary override is complete?

a)

It remains overridden.

b)

It is deleted.

c)

It reverts to the original policy.

d)

It must be manually reset.

91.

Which scripting languages can be used to create your own infrastructure automation scripts?

a)

Python and Java

b)

Bash and Windows PowerShell

c)

C++ and Ruby

d)

PHP and JavaScript

92.

What is the purpose of third-party configuration management tools like Puppet, Chef, and Ansible in managing AWS infrastructure?

a)

To manage and play music files on AWS

b)

To closely manage AWS infrastructure and automate resource stack definitions and deployments

c)

To enhance the graphical user interface of AWS services

d)

To provide additional security layers against unauthorized access

93.

What can be added as a layer along with a load balancer for an Amazon EC2 Container Service (ECS) cluster or an RDS database instance in AWS OpsWorks for Chef?

a)

A physical hardware component

b)

A mobile application

c)

An Amazon VPC infrastructure stack

d)

An Amazon EC2 infrastructure stack like a Node.js app server

94.

What does an 'app' point to in the context of AWS OpsWorks Chef deployments?

a)

The physical server hardware

b)

The application code you want to install on the instances running in your stack

c)

The user interface of the AWS management console

d)

The AWS customer support team

95.

What are the four goals for monitoring change in infrastructure configurations according to the text?

a)

Speed, Efficiency, Cost reduction, and Reliability

b)

Compatibility, User-friendliness, Scalability, and Performance

c)

Watching for changes, Intervention of a member of your admin team, Finding out fast and assessing implications, and Unauthorized hacker intervention

d)

Backup, Recovery, Archiving, and Data analysis

96.

What is the primary concern of passive monitoring of application performance and availability?

a)

To analyze real-time events and fix them immediately.

b)

To understand historical events and how to avoid future failures.

c)

To actively test the performance and availability of the application.

d)

To monitor and optimize the infrastructure configurations in real-time.