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BRA301

Total questions: 235

Worksheet time: 2hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An apparel marketer is planning to launch an existing brand name into a new product category. Which brand development strategy is being implemented?

a)

Line extension

b)

Multibrand

c)

Brand extension

d)

Rebranding

2.

Duration of _________ should be short and should not be repeated too often.

a)

Sales promos

b)

Market promos

c)

Brand promos

d)

Product promos

3.

The brand stature construct is equivalent to:

a)

Esteem multiplied by knowledge

b)

Differentiation multiplied by knowledge

c)

Knowledge multiplied by relevance

d)

Esteem multiplied by differentiation

4.

The process of establishing and maintaining a distinctive place in the market for an organization or its specific product offers is known as _________.

a)

Profiling

b)

Profiling Segmentation

c)

Segmentation

d)

Positioning

5.

_________ defines what the the brand thinks about the consumer, as per the consumer

a)

Brand positioning

b)

Brand attitude

c)

Brand relationship

d)

Brand manage

6.

_________ markets are made up of members of the distribution chain

a)

Consumer

b)

Business-to-business (industrial)

c)

Institutional

d)

Channel

7.

_________ markets include a wide variety of profit and nonprofit organizations, such as hospitals, government agencies, and schools, which provide goods and services for the benefit of society.

a)

Consumer

b)

Business-to-business (Industrial)

c)

Reseller

d)

Institutional

8.

_________is now a significant part of every global corporations marketing arsenal.

a)

Internet

b)

Web

c)

Mobile

d)

e - marketing

9.

_________ evokes a hierarchical set of customer response effects - i.e. building awareness, comprehension, intentions, and actions.

a)

Communication

b)

Merchandizing

c)

Distribution

d)

Branding

10.

In_________, internal workshop consisting of important aspects of 'detailed strategic definition' and 'objectives of the brand' is arranged.

a)

Brand equity

b)

Brand extension

c)

Brand planning

d)

Brand chartering

11.

A _________ has to answer the questions like what would be the short of market if our brand is not there.

a)

Brand image

b)

Brand picture

c)

Brand manager

d)

Brand association

12.

A good channel system must automatically offer _________ to the customers.

a)

Transaction services

b)

After-sales services

c)

Both of the given options

d)

None of the given options

13.

While determining levels of preferences of consumers in relation to the criterion, researchers come to know that mostly consumers give priority to the brand due to it's:

a)

Customer service

b)

Consistent performance

c)

Price value relationship

d)

Accessibility

14.

Brand resonance and the relationships that consumers have with brands have two dimensions: intensity and _________.

a)

Growth

b)

Activity

c)

Judgment

d)

Creativity

15.

Brand which is result of extension in brand or sub-brand is classified as

a)

brand extension

b)

sub-brand

c)

parent brand

d)

product extension

16.

Branding strategy is also called

a)

brand architecture

b)

branding rate

c)

brand earnings

d)

brand responsiveness

17.

Brands are born out of the following strategies:

a)

Segmentation and differentiation strategies

b)

Promotion strategies

c)

Good purchasing and supply chain strategies

d)

All of the given options


18.

Brands like to stay contemporary because of:

a)

Others do it

b)

Staying attractive

c)

Upholding the contract

d)

None of the given options

19.

Building brand equity through leveraging secondary brand associations is an _________ approach.

a)

Direct

b)

Special

c)

Procured

d)

Indirect

20.

Building the brand vision is very serious matter and cannot be decided by just one manager because of the issue of:

a)

Marketing

b)

Finance

c)

Production

d)

Promotion

21.

Which of the following is the indicator of brand strength?

a)

Brand reputation

b)

Patents and rights

c)

Perceived brand values

d)

Growth rate

22.

Buying goods and services for further processing or for use in the production process refers to which of the following markets?

a)

Consumer markets

b)

Government markets

c)

Business markets

d)

International markets

23.

Careful brand management look for to build product or services related to the

a)

cost

b)

profit

c)

all of answers are correct

d)

target audience

24.

Choosing a suitable international brand name is an important, but often difficult, part of the process that creates a strong and distinctive brand. Which of the following statements about choosing a name for a new soft drink is UNTRUE?

a)

The name should be memorable and easy to pronounce

b)

The name must be checked by experts to ensure it doesn't infringe on another company's brand name

c)

The name should have positive associations with the benefits and features of the product

d)

The brand name must be modern and contemporary

25.

Clarity about dimensions of brands means the clarity in

a)

The functions of brand

b)

The aspects of differentiation

c)

Both of the given options

d)

None of the given options

26.

While defining the industry during the analysis, brand managers must consider

a)

The range of products and services offered by the industry

b)

A picture of the geographic scope of the industry

c)

Both of the given options

d)

None of the given options

27.

Clearness regarding proportions of brands is clarity in

a)

functions of brand

b)

aspects of differentiation

c)

both of given options

d)

none of given options

28.

Companies are exploring the _________ for communicating their advertising message because of its several attractive features and advantages.

a)

television

b)

newspaper

c)

radio

d)

new media

29.

Companies employ the elements of the _________ (product concept, target audience, advertising message, and communications media) to devise strategies to achieve advertising objectives.

a)

Synergistic approach

b)

Creative mix

c)

Advertising impression

d)

Advertising response curve

30.

Complete the following definition of advertising media. The advertising media is a marketing communications umbrella concept that covers _________ to the prospective consumer.

a)

Media vehicles

b)

Advertising messages

c)

Brand

d)

Channels

31.

Continuously renewing the difference makes your product _________

a)

Look superior

b)

Highly unacceptable

c)

Not conforming with market standards of evolving changes

d)

Conforming to the changing behavior and beliefs of customers

32.

Which one of the following form of asset the brand has _________

a)

Tangible assets

b)

Intangible assets

c)

Current assets

d)

Fixed assets

33.

. Creating and securing a brand name in the physical world requires extensive marketing. _________.

a)

Research

b)

strategy

c)

effort

d)

media

34.

Customers'_________ have become the order of the day.

a)

endorsement

b)

information

c)

awareness

d)

knowledge

35.

. Cyber consumers are not _________.

a)

active

b)

passive

c)

homogeneous

d)

heterogeneous

36.

Which of the following is one of the marketer's major positioning tools, which has a direct impact on product or service performance; thus, it is closely linked to customer value and satisfaction.

a)

Social marketing

b)

Product quality

c)

Specialty marketing

d)

Position marketing

37.

. Demographics in media planning deal with

a)

The study of populations

b)

The psychology of the consumer

c)

The study of media channel

d)

The study of product


38.

Digital branding, in general need to have the consumer- specific orientation addressed to consumers in a _________context.

a)

natural

b)

geographic

c)

confined

d)

cultural

39.

e-Tailing will have to co-exist with _________ retailing.

a)

e-Commerce

b)

traditional

c)

mobile

d)

integrated

40.

Factors affecting the choice of distribution channel include

a)

Customer value

b)

Sales revenues

c)

Both of the given options

d)

None of the given options

41.

Whichever positioning you may like to choose, it has to stem from which one of the following point of view so that they can own it?

a)

Customers

b)

Competitors

c)

General Managers

d)

Brand owners

42.

Features and attributes of brands translate into benefits and _________ are also fulfilled along with these benefits.

a)

Customer values

b)

Brand values

c)

Organizational goals

d)

Brand associations

43.

Which one of the following is the best example of implicit promise?

a)

Personal computer

b)

Furniture

c)

Green tea

d)

Crockery

44.

For communication to be effective it should be:

a)

Repetitive

b)

Reinforcing

c)

Both of the given options

d)

None of the given options

45.

Gross impressions means

a)

The percentage of the target audience exposed to a message (B)

b)

All possible exposures to a given medium at a given time (A)

c)

Both a and b above

d)

The standard for a communication message to have an impact on the consumer

46.

he controllable variables a company puts together to satisfy a target group is called the _________.

a)

Marketing strategy

b)

Marketing mix

c)

Strategic planning

d)

Marketingconcept

47.

Holistic marketers achieve profitable growth by expanding customer share, _________, and capturing customer lifetime value.

a)

undermining competitive

b)

competencies

c)

building customer loyalty

d)

milking the market for product desires
renewing a customer base

48.

If the brand positioning is conceptualized and executed well, it can be used by the company in various _________ activities.

a)

Marketing

b)

Commercial

c)

Social

d)

Promotion

49.

If two different brands are distributed by one company, it is considered under:

a)

Wholesale

b)

Co-branding

c)

Joint venture

d)

Merger

50.

In a _________ orientation, the role of marketing research is to determine customer needs and how well the company is satisfying them.

a)

Marketing

b)

Production

c)

Both of the above

d)

None of the above

51.

. In a specific strategic market plan, a profit centre that is self-supporting in terms of sales, markets, production, and other resources is known as:

a)

Profit unit.

b)

Small business unit

c)

Marketing unit

d)


Strategic business unit

52.

In channel of distribution, particularly _________ are able to create an image of their store in the minds of the customer.

a)

Whoesaler

b)

Retailer

c)

Distributor

d)

Dealer

53.

In marketing theory, every contribution from the supply chain adds _________ to the product

a)

value

b)

cost

c)

convience

d)

ingredients

54.

With the effort of team of professionals in a company, produce end product which is related to the _________.

a)

Brand creation

b)

Idea creation

c)

Brand management

d)

Marketing management

55.

In relationship marketing firms focus on _________ relationships with _________.

a)

short-term; customers and suppliers

b)

long-term; customers and suppliers

c)

short-term; customers

d)

long-term; customers

56.

In SWOT analysis, situations where organizations are able to convert weaknesses into strengths and threats into opportunities, these are called:

a)

Strategic windows

b)

Strategic leverage

c)

Conversion strategies

d)

Vulnerability

57.

Inside sales is known as

a)

Direct marketing

b)

social marketing

c)

tele-marketing

d)

viral marketing

58.

. Interactive media can be best described as

a)

Customized Marketing Messages

b)

Marketing Communications Mix

c)

Marketing Mix

d)

Media that allow two-way messages between company and consumer

59.

. Introduction of another strength of a medicine by a pharmaceutical company is an example of:

a)

Brand extension

b)

Line extension

c)

Brand diversification

d)

All of the given options

60.

. Introduction of more brands and extensions leads to _________ with no new benefits to consumers

a)

Higher cost

b)

Greater revenue

c)

Brand proliferation

d)

Increased competition

61.

Which one of the following is NOT considered as competitive differentiation?

a)

Product

b)

Sales

c)

Service

d)

Image

62.

Licensing creates contractual arrangements whereby firms can use the names, logos, characters, etc. to market their own brands for some _________ fee.

a)

Variable

b)

Monthly

c)

Quarterly

d)

Fixed

63.

Key performance indicators, which companies set and measure their progress towards in order to determine whether or not they have improved or maintained their performance over a given period of time, are referred to as:

a)

Marketing implementation

b)

Marketing program

c)

Budgeting

d)

Marketing Metrics

64.

Luxury products, such as Rolex watches, are also known as:

a)

Shopping product

b)

Convenience product

c)

Emergency product

d)

Specialty product

65.

Mainly, chief resource of authority throughout allocation channel is

a)

company

b)

brand

c)

distributor

d)

customer

66.

Market is divided into groups on the basis of age, family size, gender, income, occupation, education, religion, race, generation, nationality, or social class is the best description of which of the following?

a)

Demographics

b)

Psychographics

c)

Behavioral

d)

Geographic

67.

. marketers often use the term _________ to cover various groupings of customers

a)

buying power

b)

demographic segment

c)

people

d)

market

68.

While developing the brand picture, first of all, you envision:

a)

Attributes

b)

Obsessions

c)

Benefits

d)

All of the given options

69.

marketing buzz means means _________

a)

De marketing

b)

Pricing

c)

Product Development

d)

Promotion

70.

Marketing communication is done to achieve the objective of:

a)

Building awareness

b)

Stimulate action

c)

Both of the given options

d)

None of the given options

71.

. marketing is a process which aims at _________

a)

production

b)

profit making

c)

satisfaction of customer needs

d)

selling products

72.

Marketing managers should adapt the marketing mix to _________ and constantly monitor value changes and differences in both domestic and global markets.

a)

Sales strategies

b)

Marketing concepts

c)

Cultural values

d)

Brand images

73.

marketing myopia related first paper published in 1960 in the _________

a)

international business review

b)

forbes magazine

c)

harvard business review

d)

oxford university press

74.

Marketing strategies are often designed to influence __________ and lead to profitable exchanges.

a)

Consumer decision making

b)

Sales strategies

c)

Advertising strategies

d)

Export strategies

75.

Measuring your brand's performance means you are:

a)

Managing your brand right

b)

Measuring your strategies

c)

Maintaining your brand position

d)

Maintaining your brand picture

76.

Media are the bridges that carry messages back and forth between companies and _________.

a)

consumers

b)

customers

c)

prospects

d)

influencers.

77.

Media planners begin their work by doing media _________.

a)

research

b)

message

c)

buying

d)

selling

78.

Media strategy is making media decisions based on

a)

Understanding customers wants and needs

b)

The clients wishes

c)

Whims of the market

d)

Brand awareness

79.

Mostly, the major source of power throughout the distribution channel is

a)

The company

b)

The brand

c)

The distributor

d)

The customer

80.

New media is very cost-effective when compared to the traditional media and is highly _________.

a)

reliable

b)

requted

c)

resourceful

d)

result-oriented

81.

NPD Stands for

a)

national production division

b)

new product department

c)

new product design

d)

new product development

82.

Often, the direct consumers of a nonprofit organization are its:

a)

Consumer public

b)

Member public

c)

Client public

d)

Nonbusiness public

83.

One of the key tasks of marketers is _________ and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.

a)

To make products easily visible and available

b)

To promote sales of products

c)

To differentiate their products from those of competitors

d)

To do marketing surveys

84.

Online marketing of all types offers superior measurability and trackability in comparison to traditional _________.

a)

media

b)

tactics

c)

research

d)

information

85.

Opportunities for growth and expansion are identified by finding:

a)

Customers' beliefs about the segment

b)

Customers believe about our competitors

c)

Customer's perceptions about the brand

d)

Customer's response about the products

86.

. Packaging is called as the _________ P of marketing mix.

a)

First

b)

Fourth

c)

Third

d)

Fifth

87.

Parent brand if it is associated with multiple products in brand extension is called

a)

family brand

b)

product extension

c)

sub-product

d)

parent company

88.

Products that are usually purchased due to adversity and high promotional back up rather than desire are called:

a)

Sought goods

b)

Unique goods

c)

Unsought goods

d)

Preferred goods

89.

Right branding increases _________ of the product, which should be more than that of the generic product.

a)

Consumer revolt

b)

Market share

c)

Profit

d)

Value

90.

Shan Foods is involved in selecting and analyzing a target market and developing a marketing mix to gain long-run competitive advantages. Based on this example, Shan Foods is creating a:

a)

Corporate strategy

b)

Target design

c)

Mix strategy

d)

Marketing strategy

91.

Which of the following is NOT included as a basic idea in the definition of marketing concepts?

a)

Total company effort

b)

Profit

c)

Productivity

d)

Customer satisfaction

92.

tele marketing is a part of _________

a)

direct marketing

b)

relationship marketing

c)

viral marketing

d)

social marketing

93.

Testing before launching a product launching a product is known as ._________

a)

Acid test

b)

Concept testing

c)

market test

d)

test marketing


94.

The _________ concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features.

a)

product

b)

marketing

c)

production

d)

selling

95.

The _________ from which brand originates can also be linked to the brand to generate secondary associations.

a)

Product

b)

Industry

c)

Country

d)

Region

96.

The _________ is practiced most aggressively with unsought goods, goods that buyers normally do not think of buying, such as insurance, encyclopedias, and funeral plots.

a)

marketing concept

b)

selling concept

c)

production concept

d)

product concept

97.

The _________ is the biggest possible medium and has the quickest and the deepest reach throughout the globe.

a)

web

b)

TV

c)

radio

d)

outdoor

98.

The _________ refers to the various companies that are involved in moving a product from its manufacturer into the hands of its buyer.

a)

distribution chain

b)

network chain

c)

supply chain

d)

promotion network

99.

The _________ relates to extra benefits that a brand offers to its customers.

a)

Entire positioning

b)

Point of difference

c)

Definition of business

d)

Innovation

100.

The advertising industry is passing through a transition phase with the emergence of the _________media.

a)

television

b)

online

c)

interactive

d)

information

101.

The cost of an advertisement or a schedule of ads is often based on _________.

a)

CPP

b)

CPR

c)

CPI

d)

CPM

102.

The most important factor in brand management is to ensure that your _________ must be matching with consumers' perceptions.

a)

Brand pinnacle

b)

Brand's persona

c)

Brand associations

d)

Brand value

103.

The solution to price competition is to develop a differentiated:

a)

product, price, and promotion.

b)

offer, delivery, and image.

c)

package and label.

d)

international Web site.

104.

The unique selling proposition (USP) was started in:

a)

Advertising era

b)

Image era

c)

Product era

d)

The positioning era

105.

There are a lot of customers have the knowledge of brand. They are inclined to be bound into a contract. A customer bound by a contract is known as _________.

a)

Loyal customer

b)

Difficult customer

c)

Potential customer

d)

Finicky customer

106.

This is something that at some time in the future may destabilize and/or reduce the potential performance of the organization:

a)

Threat

b)

Strength

c)

Weakness

d)

Opportunities

107.

Vehicles dealing with particular areas of interest, such as sports, hobbies or finance, are the ones most likely to have lifestyle and product - usage data in addition to_________ profiles.

a)

media

b)

demographic

c)

audience

d)

brand

108.

What is the last stage of the consumer decision process?

a)

problem recognition

b)

post purchase behavior

c)

alternative evaluation

d)

purchase

109.

When the same brand name holds several products in different markets, it is known as the

a)

Umbrella brand

b)

Source brand

c)

Multi-brand

d)

Range brand

110.

Which is not a method of costing media?

a)

CPA

b)

CTR

c)

CPM

d)

CPR

111.

Which of the following author states that benefits are weak unless they relate to the customers' central values and beliefs?

a)

Jean-Noel Kapferer

b)

Scot M. Davis

c)

Philip Kotler

d)

Geoffrey Randall

112.

Which of the following is a "concise statement that summarizes brand's commitment or promise to target consumers and actively communicates the advantage over competing brands"?

a)

Vision statement

b)

Mission statement

c)

Positioning statementalue statement

d)

Value statement

113.

Which of the following is not a valid statement?

a)

It is necessary to plan for out-of-home media

b)

The media environment has become fiercely competitive

c)

Media planning is less important than creative

d)

Independent media buying services specialize in media planning

114.

The drivers of change include all of the following except:

a)

Downfall in industry

b)

Consumer behavior

c)

Market analysis

d)

An investment by a foreign firm in local market

115.

The ability of the marketing programme to affect the customer mind-set will depend on its_________.

a)

Salesperson

b)

Quality

c)

Technology

d)

Customer service

116.

Selectivity is related to _________.

a)

portrayal

b)

relevance

c)

support

d)

coverage

117.

One traditional depiction of marketing activities is in terms of the marketing mix or four Ps. The four Ps are characterized as being _________

a)

product, positioning, place, and price

b)

product, production, price, and place

c)

promotion, place, positioning, and price

d)

product, price, promotion, and place

118.

Good _________ offers various benefits to the brand and the company.

a)

Communication

b)

Variety

c)

Positioning

d)

Placement

119.

Diversification is best described as which of the following?

a)

Existing products in new markets

b)

Existing products in existing markets

c)

New products for new markets

d)

New products for existing markets

120.

. Digital technology is changing the way _________ relate to products and markets.

a)

manufactures

b)

consumer

c)

delears

d)

industry

121.

Critical success factors for a firm include:

a)

Changing lifestyles and attitudes

b)

Both of the given options

c)

Low-cost production efficiency

d)

None of the given options

122.

Brands are diversified because:

a)

It is essential for brand survival

b)

Some brands have such a high awareness that those are perceived by customers to be in categories where they are not present.

c)

Cost-cutting is possible by advertising products with the same brand name

d)

All of the given options

123.

Brand personality is a set of _________ characteristics associated with the brand.

a)

Human

b)

Computer

c)

Product

d)

Artificial Intelligence

124.

Brand management came into being for which of the following reasons:

a)

Companies wanted to achieve scale economies.

b)

It supplemented financial management practices

c)

It suited production and operations personnel

d)

Companies wanted to differentiate their products and highlight distinctions in a competitive environment.

125.

. Brand knowledge refers to brand _________.

a)

Awareness

b)

Recall

c)

Personality

d)

Persona

126.

With the effort of team of professionals in a company, produce end product which isrelated to the _________

a)

Brand creation

b)

Idea creation

c)

Brand management

d)

Marketing management

127.

Brand identity is followed by _________, which is a reflection of what marketers planed to send to the public.

a)

Brand value

b)

Brand image

c)

Advertising

d)

Brand personality

128.

Brand feelings are customers' emotional responses and _________ with respect to the brand.

a)

Actions

b)

Interaction

c)

Reactions

d)

All of the above

129.

Brand element is also known as _________.

a)

Awareness

b)

Recall

c)

Identity

d)

Image

130.

Brand awareness consists of brand recognition and brand _________.

a)

Growth

b)

Recall

c)

Presence

d)

Identity

131.

Brand awareness consists of brand recognition and brand _________.

a)

Growth

b)

Recall

c)

Presence

d)

Identity

132.

Brand awareness consists of brand recognition and brand _________.

a)

Growth

b)

Recall

c)

Presence

d)

Identity

133.

Brand awareness consists of brand recognition and brand _________.

a)

Growth

b)

Recall

c)

Presence

d)

Identity

134.

Brand assets include:

a)

The name of the brand

b)

Reputation, relevance, and loyalty

c)

Less quality complaints

d)

All of the given options

135.

Brand assets include:

a)

The name of the brand

b)

Reputation, relevance, and loyalty

c)

Less quality complaints

d)

All of the given options

136.

Brand assets include:

a)

The name of the brand

b)

Reputation, relevance, and loyalty

c)

Less quality complaints

d)

All of the given options

137.

Brand _________ is a customer's personal opinion about a brand.

a)

Judgment

b)

Image

c)

Identity

d)

Personality

138.

Brand _________ is a customer's personal opinion about a brand.

a)

Judgment

b)

Image

c)

Identity

d)

Personality

139.

Benefits of having different brands include all of the following except:

a)

Quickly respond to retailers' need

b)

Effectively compete in market

c)

Save the actual brand image

d)

Fill all the gaps in market

140.

Benefits of having different brands include all of the following except:

a)

Quickly respond to retailers' need

b)

Effectively compete in market

c)

Save the actual brand image

d)

Fill all the gaps in market

141.

Attack the market and defend the position are the prime strategies pursued by a firm with _________ positioning.

a)

Market challenger

b)

Market Leader

c)

Market Follower

d)

Market Nicher

142.

At the center of a brand's characteristics is the following:

a)

Identity

b)

Image

c)

Value

d)

None of the given options

143.

Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):

a)

idea

b)

demand

c)

product

d)

service

144.

An effective advertising campaign:

a)

Revolves around a strong single idea

b)

Should appeal to self interest of customer

c)

Must not wander off

d)

All of the given options

145.

All of the following statements would be considered to be TRUE regarding company vision statements EXCEPT:

a)

Vision statements are never presented with an organization's mission statement

b)

Vision statements are often combined with the mission statement

c)

Vision statements are often designed to be memorable, one-line statements

d)

Vision statements reflect an organization's strategic intent

146.

Advertising to todays consumers, we need to look beyond the _________ media of print, radio, and television.

a)

traditional

b)

non - traditional

c)

social

d)

new

147.

Advertising _________ is capable to attract consumers only if it is based on their needs.

a)

Reach

b)

Copy

c)

Frequency

d)

Media

148.

Achieving the right brand identity means creating brand _________ with customers.

a)

Salience

b)

Resonance

c)

Awareness

d)

Loyalty

149.

According to Scot Davis, how many years are required to change the brand positioning?

a)

Two to five years

b)

Three to six years

c)

Two to six years

d)

Three to five years

150.

A sound mission and value statement must have all the attributes EXCEPT:

a)

Memorable

b)

Pragmatic

c)

Lengthy

d)

Inspiring

151.

A social and managerial process by which individuals and organizations obtain what they need and want through value creation refers to which one of the following concepts?

a)

Selling

b)

Advertising

c)

Barter

d)

Marketing

152.

A personal computer with features relating processor's specifications, the size of the hard disk and capacity of RAM is an example of:

a)

Explicit promise

b)

Implicit promise

c)

Positive promise

d)

Negative promise

153.

Word "brand" is frequently used as a

a)

customers

b)

marketing

c)

advertising

d)

metonym

154.

A mix of different communication tools has a better chance of achieving

a)

Objectives

b)

Synergy

c)

Efficiency

d)

Effectiveness

155.

A marketer need to understand that some general traits of a brand name are

a)

Easy to recognize

b)

Easy to pronounce

c)

Easy to memorize

d)

None of the above

156.

A large amount of _________ advertising is for retailers, local businesses and for promotions.

a)

news paper

b)

magazines

c)

radio

d)

television

157.

A great effort in terms of time and money is required for _________; and despite the effort, results are not guaranteed.

a)

Growth

b)

Profitability

c)

Branding

d)

Promotion

158.

A great effort in terms of time and money is required for _________; and despite the effort, results are not guaranteed.

a)

Growth

b)

Profitability

c)

Branding

d)

Promotion

159.

A good positioning is something that must be _________ to the customer.

a)

Visible

b)

Believable

c)

Reasonable

d)

Invisible

160.

A good brand contract:

a)

Keeps customer perspective in view

b)

Delivers promises made with customers

c)

Unearths negative promises

d)

All of the given options

161.

A futuristic innovations (media planning) involves creating satellite imagery of the monogram or message to reach the desired geographic location and _________.

a)

programme

b)

action

c)

audience

d)

media

162.

A futuristic innovations (media planning) involves creating satellite imagery of the monogram or message to reach the desired geographic location and _________.

a)

programme

b)

action

c)

audience

d)

media

163.

A differentiated product may be unique in the marketplace, but it will only be successful under which of the following circumstances?

a)

If it satisfies customers' needs

b)

If the price differential is minimal

c)

If the brand can be classed as aspirational

d)

Differentiated products will always be successful

164.

A customer will choose a brand based on how compelling the _________ was as compared to other brands.

a)

Difference

b)

Similarity

c)

Sameness

d)

Uniqueness

165.

A company's own retail outlets are meant:

a)

To own and batter control the distribution channel

b)

Distribution, itself, is a good business

c)

All of the given options

d)

All of the given options

166.

A cluster of complementary goods and services across diverse set of industries is called as

a)

market place

b)

meta market

c)

market space

d)

resource market

167.

Other geographic associations besides country of origin are possible such as :

a)

States

b)

Regions

c)

Cities

d)

All of above

168.

Which of following is an example of a co - branding strategy?

a)

Nike parterning with Apple for the development of fitness-tracking devices

b)

Coca-Cola introducing a new flavor variant of its soft drink

c)

Amazon launching a new line of electronic devices under its own brand

d)

Toyota expanding its product line to include luxury vehicles

169.

...can influence brand equity through the actions and support of intermediaries such as retailers, as well as the transfer of any associations these intermediaries might have with the brand.

a)

Omnichannels

b)

Online channels

c)

Indirect channels

d)

Direct channels

170.

What is co-branding in secondary brand association?

a)

The combination of two or more existing brands into a joint product or joint marketing effort.

b)

The practice of extending a brand into several new products.

c)

The licensing of a brand to various vendors.

d)

The alliance of multiple brands in the credit card market.

171.

.....are short phrases that communicate descriptive or persuasive information about the brand. They often,
appear in advertising but can play an important role in packaging and in other aspects of the marketing
program.

a)

Brand names

b)

Slogans

c)

Characters

d)

Ad taglines

172.

What is the concept of brand architecture?

a)

The visual representation of a brand's identity

b)

The legal framework protecting a brand's trademarks

c)

The organization and structure of a brand's product portfolio.

d)

The financial value of a brand

173.

What is the primary goal of brand migration?

a)

To target new customer segments

b)

To reduce the price of a brand's products

c)

To increase the advertising budget for a brand

d)

To extend an existing brand into new product categories markets, or customer segments

174.

From the view of creating brand equity, marketers need to be

a)

Media sensitive

b)

Media neutral

c)

Media biased

d)

None of the above

175.

Vietnam Airlines, Bamboo Airlines and Vietjet Air vary their prices for distinct market groups and value perceptions. Which value-pricing strategy is applied in this sector?

a)

Product Costs

b)

Communication Value

c)

Product Prices

d)

Price Segmentation

176.

What is the role of brand alliances in managing brands across market segments?

a)

To target specific market segments with customized offerings

b)

To establish legal protection for the brand's intellectual property globally

c)

To leverage the brand equity of partner brands for mutual benefit

d)

To measure changes in brand awareness over time

177.

In a branded house brand architecture, what is the relationship between the corporate and product brands?

a)

They are completely independent of each other

b)

The corporate brand is more prominent than the product brands

c)

The product brands are more prominent than the corporate brand

d)

The corporate and product brands have equal prominence

178.

Daring, spirited, imaginative, and up-to-date are the facets of...

a)

Sincerity

b)

Excitement

c)

Competence

d)

Ruggedness

179.

..........represent a special type of brand symbol-one that takes on human or real-life characteristics.

a)

Characters

b)

Ambassador

c)

Mascot

d)

All of the above

180.

Once a sufficient level of brand awareness is created, marketers can put more emphasis on

a)

Brand image

b)

Brand recognition

c)

Brand recall

d)

Brand benefits

181.

indirectly or directly abe he brands and prouis saty offt inform, convince and remind customers

a)

Marketing communications

b)

Marketing plans

c)

Marketing strategies

d)

None of the above

182.

Brand attitudes are consumers overall evaluations of a brand and often form the basis for brand choice.
Brand attitudes generally depend on specific attributes of the brand.

a)

True

b)

False

183.

URLs (uniform resource locators) specify locations of pages on the Web and are also commonly referred to
as:

a)

web server

b)

top level domain

c)

domain name

d)

none of them

184.

Ikea (a furniture Brand) is strongly linked to:

a)

A City

b)

A Company

c)

A Country

d)

Not any of the above

185.

What is the role of cultural symbols in brand management across geographic boundaries?

a)

To establish legal protection for the brand's trademarks

b)

To measure the financial performance of a brand

c)

To communicate brand meaning and create resonance with consumers

d)

To customize the brand offering for each local market

186.

A brand audit consists of .... steps:

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

187.

Which of the following statements about the creation of new brand associations is true?

a)

Secondary brand associations have the most impact on evaluations of a new product when consumers
are highly motivated and knowledgeable about product-related concerns.

b)

Consumers are more likely to rely on secondary considerations when they have strong preferences for a
particular brand

c)

Linking a brand to another entity has no effect on existing brand associations.

d)

Cognitive consistency suggests that consumers may infer that associations, judgments, or feelings about the linked entity also apply to the brand

188.

Brand is a means to provide in-depth information and insights essential for setting long-term strategic
direction for the brand

a)

Recalling

b)

Edit

c)

Audit

d)

Designing

189.

A famous person can:
(check all that's not true)

a)

Draw attention to a brand

b)

Shape brand perceptions, by virtue of consumers' perceptions of the famous person

c)

Increase the product performance

190.

The sixth outcome of Market performance is:

a)

Brand expansion

b)

Cost structure

c)

Brand profitability

d)

Market share

191.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding leveraging a corporate brand?

a)

A corporate brand can evoke associations of common product attributes, benefits, or attitudes.

b)

Leveraging a corporate brand is always useful for large companies.

c)

Large companies sometimes introduce new brands to convey a "smaller" image.

d)

Leveraging a corporate brand can provide insights into emerging corporate priorities.

192.

Which of the following list of brand element criteria is exemplified by the recent hype of restaurants receiving the Michelin star in Vietnam?

a)

Memorable - Meaningful - Likable - Transferable - Adaptable - Protectable

b)

Fame - Endorsement - Likeable - Protectable - Flexibility - Credibility

c)

Fame - Likeable - Protectable - Flexibility - Credibility

d)

Memorable - Likable - Transferable - Adaptable - Protectable - Endorsement

193.

Several programs planned to protect or promote a company's image, or its products is known as...

a)

Sales promotion

b)

Direct marketing

c)

Events and experiences

d)

Public relations and publicity

194.

Conjoint Analysis is ......... multivariate technique that enables marketers to profile the consumer decision
process with respect to products and brands.

a)

Survey-based

b)

Research-based

c)

Analysis-based

195.

What is the purpose of market research in managing brands across market segments?

a)

To measure the financial performance of a brand

b)

To identify potential brand extension opportunities

c)

To assess changes in brand awareness over time

d)

To gather insights about consumer behavior and preferences

196.

Applications of Marketing-Based Comparative Approaches:

a)

The dollar-metric measure of brand commitment.

b)

Assessing consumer response to different advertising strategies.

c)

Explore potential brand extensions by collecting consumer evaluations of a range of concept statements.

d)

All are true

197.

.....are the personal value and meaning that consumers attach to the product or service attributes.

a)

Brand attributes

b)

Brand benefits

c)

Brand images

d)

Brand mantras

198.

Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of a successful brand extension?

a)

Reduced marketing costs

b)

Enhanced brand image

c)

Increased customer loyalty

d)

Decreased brand equity

199.

Marketing-Based Comparative Approaches examine consumer response based on changes in the ...program

a)

Communications

b)

Marketing

c)

Sales

200.

What is brand loyalty?

a)

The financial value of a brand

b)

The market share of a brand

c)

The extent to which customers consistently choose a particular brand

d)

The visual representation of a brand's identity

201.

What does CBBE (in the "Strategic Brand Management" book) stand for ?

a)

Customer-Based Brand Element

b)

Consumer-Based Brand Element

c)

Consumer-Based Brand Equity

d)

Customer-Based Brand Equity

202.

Three criteria to judge qualitative research techniques (according to Levy)
(Check what is not true)

a)

Direction

b)

Depth

c)

Duration

d)

Diversity

203.

..describes how to create intense loyalty and strong customer relationships with customers

a)

The brand positioning model

b)

The brand resonance model

c)

The brand segmentation

d)

The brand value chain

204.

How does brand architecture impact consumer perception?

a)

It influences their perception of brand quality and value

b)

It determines their brand loyalty and purchase behavior

c)

It affects their emotional connection with the brand

d)

It shapes their awareness and recognition of the brand

205.

Which is the revenue-generating element of the traditional marketing mix?

a)

Product

b)

Place

c)

Promotion

d)

Pricing

206.

The purpose of the brand inventory is to provide a current, comprehensive .....of how all products and services are marketed and branded

a)

Profile

b)

Portfolio

c)

Story

d)

Landscape

207.

Projective techniques present consumers with ambiguous stimuli and ask them to ...

a)

Draw

b)

Make sense of

c)

Describe

208.

Brand characters can be so attention-getting and well-liked that they dominate other brand elements and
actually dampen brand awareness.

a)

True

b)

False

209.

"The differential effect that brand knowledge has on customer response to the marketing of that brand" is the definition of?

a)

Customer-Based Brand Equity

b)

Consumer-Based Brand Element

c)

Consumer-Based Brand Equity

d)

Customer-Based Brand Element

210.

Which concept describes how well the product or service meets customers' more functional needs?

a)

Brand salience

b)

Brand imagery

c)

Brand performance

d)

Brand judgments

211.

Laritive Consideraties peter, rane imag age yell for marketers to make a distinction between:
-Higher-level considerations (......)

a)

Judgments and feelings

b)

Customer relationships

c)

Brand resonance

212.

What is the term used to describe the introduction of a new product or service under an existing brand name?

a)

Co-branding

b)

Brand extension

c)

Brand revitalization

d)

Brand migration

213.

What is the risk associated with a branded house brand architecture?

a)

Lack of brand differentiation

b)

Confusion among customers

c)

Higher marketing costs

d)

Limited brand extension opportunities

214.

Estée Lauder cosmetics, Porsche automobiles, and Orville Redenbacher popcorn are examples of?

a)

The brand names based on places

b)

The brand names use words with inherent product meaning

c)

The brand names based on people's names

215.

Nike used "Prepare for Battle" and "Quick Can't Be Caught" (basketball); "Write the Future" (World Cup); "My
Better Is Better" (multisport); and "Here I Am" (women) as:

a)

Slogans

b)

Taglines

c)

Brand mantras

d)

Campaign name

216.

What are the two key concepts in defining brand architecture?

a)

Brand positioning and customer segmentation

b)

Brand management and brand performance

c)

Brand equity and brand management

d)

Brand portfolio and brand hierarchy

217.

Which advantage influences the formation and strength of the associations that make up the brand image?

a)

Choice Advantages

b)

Attention Advantages

c)

Learning Advantages

d)

Consideration Advantages

218.

What is the role of brand extensions in brand management?

a)

To protect the brand's intellectual property

b)

To generate additional revenue for the brand

c)

To diversify the brand's product portfolio

d)

To increase brand loyalty among existing customers

219.

Six steps for an effective form of marketing communications

a)

Exposure - Attention - Comprehension - Yielding - Intentions - Behavior

b)

Exporsure - Attention - Comprehension - Intentions - Yielding - Behavior

c)

Information - Attention - Comprehension - Intentions - Yielding - Behavior

d)

Attention - Comprehension - Intentions - Behavior - Exposure - Yielding

220.

According to the "sound symbolism" theory, which type of brand name is likely to evoke a sense of speed and agility?

a)

Descriptive brand name

b)

Arbitrary brand name

c)

Suggestive brand name

d)

Acronym brand name

221.

Generally, a brand is identified as an....

a)

Tangible asset

b)

Liquid

c)

Intangible asset

d)

Short-term asset

222.

Which of the following statements about the creation of new brand associations is true?

a)

Secondary brand associations have the most impact on evaluations of a new product when consumers
are highly motivated and knowledgeable about product-related concerns.

b)

Consumers are more likely to rely on secondary considerations when they have strong preferences for a
particular brand.

c)

Linking a brand to another entity has no effect on existing brand associations.

d)

Cognitive consistency suggests that consumers may infer that associations, judgments, or feelings about
the linked entity also apply to the brand.

223.

Customer Mind-set is the........ stage in "The brand value chain model"

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

224.

What is the primary challenge of implementing a sub-brand architecture?

a)

Maintaining consistency across different product brands

b)

Establishing a strong corporate brand identity

c)

Balancing the autonomy of individual brands with the corporate brand's influence

d)

Creating brand extensions for each product brand

225.

Many practicing managers refer to a brand as....?

a)

A. Something that has created a certain amount of reputation

b)

B. Something that has created a certain amount of awareness

c)

Both A and B

d)

Something that has created a certain amount of awareness, reputation, prominence

226.

The more the market, the more likely that the firm will be able to implement marketing programs
that meet the needs of consumers in any one segment.

a)

finely segmented

b)

diversity segmented

c)

widely segmented

d)

none of them

227.

How many lines are there in naming procedures?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

228.

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a means to leverage secondary brand associations?

a)

Companies (through branding strategies)

b)

Countries or other geographic areas (through identification of product origin)

c)

Channels of distribution (through channel strategy)Packaging design (through visual appeal)

d)

Packaging design (through visual appeal)

229.

..........are short phrases that communicate descriptive or persuasive information about the brand. They often
appear in advertising but can play an important role in packaging and in other aspects of the marketing
program.

a)

Brand names

b)

Slogans

c)

Characters

d)

Ad taglines

230.

Having compelling proof points and RTBs are often critical to the deliverability aspect of a_

a)

Points - of - Parity

b)

Points - of - Similarity

c)

Points - of - Unique

d)

Points - of - Difference

231.

Brand tracking studies, as well as brand audits, can provide a huge reservoir of information about how best to build and........ brand equity

a)

Check

b)

Measure

c)

Develop

d)

Grow

232.

What kind of product risk does the product result in embarrassing others?

a)

. Psychological risk

b)

Social risk

c)

Physical risk

d)

Functional risk

233.

Which of the following is an example of a co-branding strategy?

a)

Nike partnering with Apple for the development of fitness-tracking devices

b)

Coca-Cola introducing a new flavor variant of its soft drink

c)

Amazon launching a new line of electronic devices under its own brand

d)

Toyota expanding its product line to include luxury vehicles

234.

How many major categories have researchers classified products and their associated attributes or benefits
into?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

3

d)

4

235.

Ideal brand positioning aims to achieve the.............. between:
-What customers currently believe about the brand.
-What customers will value in the brand.
-What the firm is currently saying about the brand.
-Where the firm would like to take the brand.

a)

Congruence

b)

Relation

c)

Contrast

d)

Connection