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Toronto exam (most questions)

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During flight in deteriorating VFR conditions there is a strong tendency to:

a)

Accept information consistent with plan and disregard information not consistent with flight plan

b)

Become complacent

c)

Continue on with original plan

d)

Evaluate new information and alter plans

2.

How many infants is an adult allowed to be in charge of?

a)

1

b)

Unlimited

c)

2

d)

As many child safety seats as you have

3.

When flying east or west, VFR, when must you start adding 500 ft to the correct thousand-foot altitude for your direction of travel?

a)

3000 ft. AGL

b)

3500 ft. AGL

c)

2200 ft. AGL

d)

3000 ft. ASL

4.

How much fuel reserve is required on board a commercial helicopter operating under NIGHT VFR conditions?

a)

30 minutes at normal cruise

b)

20 minutes at normal cruise and to an alternate

c)

20 minutes at normal cruise

d)

45 minutes past destination

5.

How many days prior to your expiry date may you complete a PPC check ride and maintain the original expiry date?

a)

30

b)

Your Choice > 60

c)

90

d)

120

6.

Controlled airspace about an airport that extends upward, vertically from the surface to a specified height AGL is?

a)

Control Area

b)

A control zone

c)

Always Class D Airspace

d)

Controlled airspace along airways above 2,200 feet ASL

7.

You are on a VFR cross country flight, while flying in uncontrolled airspace you encounter visibilities less than 3 miles. In order to comply with VFR weather minima you could:

a)

Terminate the flight immediately

b)

Descend below 1000 ft AGL and must maintain at least 1 mile visibility and clear of cloud

c)

Descend below 1000 ft AGL and maintain at least 2 miles visibility and 2000 ft horizontally from cloud

d)

Descend below 1000 ft AGL and maintain at least 1 mile visibility and 2000 ft horizontally from cloud

8.

What is the minimum horizontal distance from cloud that must be maintained in a Control Zone?

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

3000 feet

d)

4000 feet

9.

With a functioning 2 way radio and an ATC clearance, what is the minimum weather in a control zone that maybe flown when the weather is below VFR limits?

a)

One mile visibility, 500 feet from cloud

b)

Three miles visibility

c)

1/2 mile visibility, clear of cloud

d)

1/2 mile visibility, 500 feet from ground minimum

10.

When operating a single engine, float equipped helicopter in a commercial air service beyond gliding distance from shore, what equipment is required?

a)

Life jackets for each passenger

b)

Water type E.L.T.

c)

Life rafts large enough to hold all passengers

d)

All of the above

11.

When flying over snow covered ground, whiteout is most likely to occur.

a)

Over an unbroken snow layer with featureless terrain, under overcast sky

b)

Over uniform terrain in a snow blizzard and the horizon is barely discernible

c)

When the sky and horizon are discernible and it is snowing hard

d)

Clear sky, sunshine is reflected by the snow cover

12.

Can you carry passengers at night in a single engine aircraft in a commercial operation?

a)

Only if you have a valid instrument rating

b)

No

c)

Only if you have a night rating

d)

Only if you have a night rating and a valid instrument rating

13.

For flight over non-populous areas, over land and water, what is the minimum distance to be maintained from ground without creating a hazard to persons or property, ships and vessels?

a)

500 ft

b)

1000 ft

c)

2000 ft

d)

7000 ft

14.

What statement is correct in regards to carrying passengers commercially in VFR flight in a helicopter?

a)

The pilot must inform the passengers of the location and operation of the ELT

b)

The pilot must inform the passengers of the location and book entry must be made

c)

The ELT must be checked in the last 6 months and a journey log book entry must be made

d)

The ELT must be serviced in the previous 6 months

15.

What are the VFR weather minima for night VFR above 1000' in uncontrolled airspace?

a)

1 mile visibility, clear of cloud

b)

1 mile visibility, clear of cloud

c)

3 miles visibility, distance from cloud dependant on ambient light

d)

3 miles visibility, 2000 feet horizontally, 500 feet vertically from cloud

16.

When the tower asks you to 'squawk 1222' you?

a)

Set the transponder to 1222, switch to ALT mode

b)

Set the transponder to 1222 and switch to sby

c)

Set the transponder to 1222 and push ident

d)

Set radio and 122.2 and query why you should

17.

How often does a commercial helicopter pilot receive Emergency Procedures training (PPC)?

a)

Every 6 months

b)

Every year

c)

Every 2 years

d)

Every time you start with a new company

18.

Your maximum flight duty day is:

a)

12 hours in a 24 hour period

b)

14 hours in a 24 hour period

c)

15 hours, in 30 hours

d)

16 hours, if less than three consecutive days

19.

If you are flying within the standard pressure region, how should you set your altimeter?

a)

In the nearest airport elevation

b)

The nearest airport altimeter setting

c)

29.92

d)

The altimeter setting when you left the airport

20.

When a fatigue situation occurs, who has the responsibility to limit flying?

a)

Your Choice

b)

The pilot

c)

The crew concerned or operations manager

d)

ATC

21.

During slinging operations, when using a marshaller, how would you direct Him/Her to stand:

a)

Facing into wind, in plain view and slightly left or right of the helicopter

b)

Facing into wind and about 50 feet away from the helicopter

c)

Back to the wind and in plain view

d)

Back to the wind and directly in front of the helicopter

22.

Under what conditions will carburetor ice most likely occur?

a)

Low power setting -10 degrees Centigrade OAT

b)

High power setting +10 degrees Centigrade OAT

c)

Low power setting +10 degrees Centigrade OAT

d)

High power setting -10 degrees Centigrade OAT

23.

The standard VFR equipment needed to fly in controlled airspace, including a magnetic compass and:

a)

Sensitive Altimeter, airspeed indicator and time piece.

b)

Airspeed Indicator

c)

Time Piece

d)

Turn and Bank Indicator

e)

Vertical Speed Indicator

24.

Why do most piston helicopters have a shroud(cover) around the engine?

a)

To retain engine heat

b)

To augment cooling

c)

To prevent water damage to the cylinders

d)

Stop damage to the accessories

25.

What type of rotor system has dragging and flapping hinges?

a)

Rigid rotor system

b)

Fully articulated rotor system

c)

Semi rigid rotor system

d)

3) Semi articulated rotor system

26.

What causes low-frequency vertical vibrations?

a)

Tail rotor

b)

Engine

c)

Main rotor

d)

Cooling fan

27.

What should you do if your helicopter encounters ground resonance?

a)

continue to hover

b)

Increase throttle

c)

If the RPM is in the green raise to hover and if not, lower collective and shut off engine

d)

If the RPM is in the green raise to hover, if not raise the collective to take the weight off the landing gear temporarily before landing and shutting down.

28.

What forces act on a rotor blade hovering in still air?

a)

Lift and thrust

b)

Lift and torque

c)

Lift and drag

d)

Thrust and drag

29.

Your aircraft is at an indicated altitude of 2,200 ft. The altimeter setting is 29.62 and the outside temperature is -20 degrees Celsius. What is the density altitude?

a)

1,200 ft.

b)

2,500 ft.

c)

3,200 ft

d)

3,700 ft.

30.

Refer to loading chart graph. With a gross take off weight of 2800 lbs. and a 300 lb. Pilot and a 350 lb. Passenger, what is the maximum allowable weight for baggage?

a)

Not to exceed 250 lbs.

b)

Not to exceed 110 lbs.

c)

Not to exceed 200 lbs.

d)

Not to exceed 140 lbs.

31.

In an overpitching situation close to the ground if you pull more pitch, what happens?

a)

Increase lift, decrease in rotor RPM and decreased angle of attack

b)

Decreased lift, increased rotor RPM and increased angle of attack

c)

Decrease in lift and decrease in rotor RPM where flight may not be possible

32.

When the pitot tube and pitot tube drain port become blocked;

a)

The airspeed will remain unchanged in level flight with large power changes

b)

The airspeed will increase in a desent

c)

The airspeed will read zero

d)

The airspeed will overread in a descent

33.

Immediately after lifting off a pilot should?

a)

Perform a hover check, check wind direction and velocity

b)

Perform a hover check and check the take off area is clear

c)

Check C of G and hover check

d)

Go through translation immediately

34.

What effect would a decreased all up weight have on a helicopter’s autorotation characteristics?

a)

Decreased RPM, increases descent

b)

Increased RPM, decreases descent

c)

Increased RPM, increases descent

d)

Decreased RPM, decreases descent

35.

When starting and shutting down a helicopter in high winds, to minimize chances of a tailboom strike due to blade sailing, how should you park?

a)

Slightly out of the wind, cyclic into wind

b)

On the lee side of obstructions, friction on

c)

Your Choice

d)

Directly into wind, cyclic into wind

36.

Which of the following statements are true concerning aviation fuel?

a)

If fuel has been stored for long periods, the octane rating will not be affected

b)

Temperature variations can cause moisture/water to

accumulate in fuel

c)
  1. Fuel stored in sealed drums need not be filtered prior to use

d)
  1. When fuel has been agitated the water will always quickly seperate

37.

You are landing on sloping ground, after you make contact you should:

a)

Use the cyclic to maintain the attitude of the rotor disc as you lower the collective.

b)

Hold the cyclic central as you lower the collective

c)

Use the cyclic to adjust the fuselage to conform to the slope

38.

How should the pilot brief the passengers on embarking and exiting a helicopter?

a)

Always keep your head down and enter from the front or sides

b)

Always walk uphill when entering and downhill when exiting

c)

Wait for the pilot to signal and give instructions for entering and exiting

d)

All of the above

39.

If the center of gravity were past the forward limit, what effect would be most likely?

a)

Unable to hover into wind due to lack of rearward control

b)

Unable to hover into wind due to lack of forward control

c)

Unable to hover downwind due to lack of rearward control

d)

Unable to hover downwind due to lack of forward control

40.

Helicopter performance is affected by air density and will best perform under conditions of:

a)

Low altitude, high temperature and a low relative humidity

b)

High altitude, low temperature and low relative humidity

c)

Low altitude, low temperature and high relative humidity

d)

Low altitude low temperature and low relative humidity

41.

Flying in poor visibility and low ceiling, you encounter power lines on your track. You should:

a)

Reduce power and go under, keeping maximum ground separation

b)

Cross over a pylon at a 45 degree angle if possible

c)

Climb between pylons at a 45 degree angle if possible

d)

Cross up regardless of cloud and descend when you calculate that you are across.

42.

When tilting the rotor into forward flight without making an adjustment to your power setting, what would occur?

a)

Total amount of lift decreases

b)

Total amount of lift increases

c)

No change

d)

The total lift reaction would remain the same

43.

In what flight configuration is the tail rotor required most?

a)

In a climbing left turn with climb power

b)

Left turn

c)

Hovering cross wind with the weathercock effect added to torque effect.

d)

Hovering cross wind with the weathercock effect opposite to torque effect.

44.

You are experiencing retreating blade tip stall, what happens to aircraft?

a)

Vibration in the cyclic, airframe shakes, the nose pitches down and roll right or left.

b)

You feel a vibration in the cyclic, the airframe shakes and the nose pitches up and rolls right or left.

45.

Tail rotor power requirement is reduced as forward airspeed increases due to:

a)

Keel effect

b)

Ground effect

c)

Translational lift

d)

Translating tendency

46.

While flying in rain, raindrops are present on the windscreen of the aircraft. As you approach the top of a mountain range, how will the rain affect the appearance of ridge or summit?

a)

It will appear to be higher than actual height

b)

There will be no change

c)

The mountain will look distorted

d)

It will appear to be lower than actual height

47.

What does the turn and bank indicator shown in the appendix indicate?

a)

Too much right pedal

b)

Too much left pedal

c)

Co-ordinated right turn

d)

Slipping right turn

48.

Which of the following will most likely cause the onset of VORTEX RING STATE?

a)

Zero airspeed and power on, descent rate of 200 FPM

b)

Zero airspeed and power on, descent rate of greater than 400 FPM

c)

Low airspeed and power on descent rate lower than 300 FPM

d)

Low airspeed and power on descent rate of 300 FPM

49.

What is required for any type of fog to form?

a)

High relative humidity

b)

Wind higher than 8 knots and less than 13 knots

c)

Calm to moderate wind

d)

A cold clear night with cold air descending

50.

Flying from cold air into an active warm front you expect snow mixed with light ice pellets. What do you next expect?

a)

Snow showers

b)

Freezing rain ahead

c)

Rain showers

d)

You have passed through the front and will have better weather

51.

What is the primary cause of wind?

a)

Rotation of the earth's surface

b)

Relative humidity

c)

Horizontal Pressure difference

d)

Distance between Isobars

52.

What is the definition of an ISOBAR?

a)

A line of magnetic variation

b)

A line of no magnetic variation

c)

A line joining places of equal Temperature

d)

A line joining places of equal Pressure

53.

When warm air is moving over cold ground, what will this most likely result in?

a)

Turbulence

b)

Smooth flying conditions

c)

Stratocumulus

d)

Good visibility

54.

How would you expect the winds to change with a passage of a cold front?

a)

Veer in direction and increase

b)

Back in direction and decrease

c)

Increases speed with no change of direction

d)

Change in direction without a change in speed

55.

What conditions would you expect during the passage of a warm front?

a)

Turbulence at lower levels

b)

Overcast layer of strato cumulus

c)

Poor visibility

d)

Cumulous cloud

56.

What is the most important factor in determining the height of cumulonimbus cloud bases?

a)

Relative humidity

b)

Adiabatic lapse rate

c)

The temperature and dewpoint spread

d)

Unstable air

57.

The term "inversion" is used to describe the conditions where:

a)

Pressure decreases with height

b)

Pressure increases with height

c)

Temperature decreases with height

d)

Temperature increases with height

58.

Of the factors influencing weather in an air mass, the most significant is:

a)

Stability

b)

Cooling by radiation

c)

Horizontal movement

d)

Expansion due to lifting

59.

When decoding a METAR what does the term "virga" imply?

a)

Mechanical turbulence

b)

High probability of Micro-bursts

c)

Rain

d)

Smooth conditions

60.

What is a standard lapse rate?

a)

Decrease in temperature with altitude

b)

Increase in temperature with altitude

c)

Inversion

d)

Adiabatic change

61.

On the GFA, how long is the "IFR OTLK" portion valid for?

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

36 hours

62.

When "VFR" appears in the IFR OTLK section of the GFA, what weather would you expect?

a)

Ceilings greater than 3000 feet and visibility greater than 5 SM

b)

Ceilings greater than 5000 feet and visibility greater than 5 SM

c)

Ceilings between 3 - 5 SM

d)

Ceilings greater than 1000 feet and visibility greater than 3 SM

63.

Regarding a METAR when cloud bases are forecast to be 6 oktas this would mean;

a)

Scattered clouds

b)

Broken

c)

Partially covered

d)

Overcast

64.

Looking at the appendix for the Graphic Area Forecast. What is the freezing level for the area around CYTL (Big Trout Lake)?

a)

From 1,800 ASL

b)

From the surface

c)

From 2,500 ASL

d)

From 3,000 ASL

65.

After 30 NM you find yourself 2 NM off track. How many degrees are you off track?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

66.

With an indicated altitude of 6,200ft, a pressure altitude of 6,500, an outside air temperature of -15C, what is your true altitude?

a)

16,000ft

b)

6,500ft

c)

6,000ft

d)

5,800ft

67.

Your ADF gives you a relative bearing of 235 degrees. Your GPS says your magnetic bearing to the station is 140 degrees. What is your magnetic heading?

a)

140

b)

015

c)

095

d)

265

68.

What can you do to minimize the shoreline effect when using an NDB?

a)

Select an NDB that has an angle greater than 30 degrees

b)

Fly at higher altitude

c)

Use a station further inland

d)

Use an NDB which is either directly in front of you or directly behind you

69.

What is the magnetic heading enroute from Elliott Lake to Sudbury?

a)

070

b)

064

c)

096

d)

088

70.

When flying from Elliott Lake to Sudbury, using the hypsometric tinting on the map, what is the average elevation enroute?

a)

Sea level to 2000

b)

Above 3000

c)

Below 1000

d)

Your Choice -> X1000 – 3000

71.

The trip is 1 hr. 50 min. from Elliott Lake to Perry Sound Muni with a stop at Sudbury. The fuel consumption is 6.5 gallons per hour with 2.0 gallons used on each departure. What is the total fuel required for the trip?

a)

12 gallons

b)

Your Choice -> X16 gallons

c)

18 gallons

d)

22 gallons

72.

The VOR and VHF Radios are subject to line of sight, and reception varies according to aircraft altitude of:

a)

1,200ft AGL is about 200 miles

b)

2,000ft AGL is about 100 miles

c)

1,500ft AGL is about 150 miles

d)

1,500ft AGL is about 50 miles

73.

A good tailwind is forecasted at 6,500 feet. When leaving Sudbury you should plan as an appropriate altitude:

a)

Odd thousands + 500

b)

Even thousands + 500

c)

Odd thousands

d)

Even thousands

74.

What is the highest elevation on the chart?

a)

4621

b)

3521

c)

Your Choice -> X3800

d)

4000

75.

Regarding landing along the shore of White Lake (Long 76 30 00 Lat 45 21 00), what statement is true?

a)

The pilot may land if he/she has determined the area suitable

b)

A landing may only be made in an emergency

c)

A landing may only be made with prior permission

d)

The pilot must be dropping off passengers or servicing a nearby fishing camp

76.

What class of airspace is the water aerodrome at Smokey Lake (Long 80 14 00 Lat 45 51 50)?

a)

Class G

b)

Class E

c)

Class F

d)

Class D

77.

Select the corresponding examples that form a triangle of velocities.

a)

Wind & windspeed, heading & true airspeed & track & groundspeed

b)

Magnetic heading & ground speed

c)

Heading & true airspeed

d)

Magnetic track & ground speed

e)

Track made good & ground speed

78.

What information will a VOR/DME receiver give you?

a)

Radial and distance from VORTAC or TACAN

b)

Distance from TACAN

c)

Radial from TACAN

d)

Track and distance from VORTAC or VOR/DME

79.

Which of the following charts is Lambert Conformal Conic Projection?

a)

VTA

b)

VFR Navigational Chart

c)

Canadian pilotage chart

d)

Your Choice -> XWorld aeronautical chart

80.

A straight line on a VNC most closely represents?

a)

An Agonic line

b)

A rhumb line

c)

A Great Circle

d)

An Isobar

81.

When using a VOR Test Station (VOT), what should the CDI and OBS be set to?

a)

360 degrees FROM

b)

180 degrees FROM

c)

360 degrees TO

d)

To the desired radial

82.

You are on the 265 degree radial. You wish to intercept the 330 degree radial at a 90 degree angle intercept and track inbound to the station. How would you set the OBS, and to what magnetic heading would you steer?

a)

330 obs , 060 magnetic heading

b)

270 obs , 180 magnetic heading

c)

090 obs , 260 magnetic heading

d)

150 obs , 060 magnetic heading

83.

Based on the map, the Sudbury airport is:

a)

Class e airspace capped at 4000

b)

G

84.

What statement is most correct when using VDF services:

a)

To be used only in a emergency

b)

Use on pre-selected tower or FSS frequencies

c)

Not to be used in an emergency

d)

Available only with aircraft equipped with an ADF receiver

85.

What does a Class "C" or "D" Control Zone become after the tower closes?

a)

Class E uncontrolled airspace

b)

Class G uncontrolled airspace

c)

Class E controlled airspace

d)

Class G controlled airspace

86.

What is the frequency for the VOR/DME at Sudbury (YSB)?

a)

112.3

b)

126.7

c)

125.5

d)

126.7

87.

What frequency would you tune to while approaching Sudbury, before descent, to acquire wind, landing direction and NOTAMS:

a)

121.8

b)

127.4

c)

125.5

d)

126.7

88.

En-route to Parry Sound Muni, due to poor weather, you must divert to Muskoka. What is the elevation of the Muskoka airport N44 5829 W7918 12?

a)

922 ft.

b)

600 ft.

c)

1050 ft.

d)

430 ft.

89.

Enroute you note the time over Novellie at 16:02 and then you overfly the Smokey Lake aerodrome at 16:12. What is the new estimated time of arrival to Parry Sound Muni?

a)

16:30

b)

16:40

c)

16:45

d)

16:50

90.

Enroute you note the time over Novellville at 16:02 and then you overfly the Smokey Lake aerodrome at 16:12. What is the new estimated time of arrival to Parry Sound Muni?

a)

16:30

b)

16:45

c)

16:50

91.

Looking at the line on the map that runs between N 45 00 00 , W 80 00 00 and N 45 30 00 , W 75 00 00 what would this most closely represent?

a)

Great Circle

b)

Shortest distance between two points

c)

Meridian

d)

Parallel of latitude

92.

What chart symbol would appear at N45 20 00 / W76 57 00?

a)

Contour line

b)

Spot elevation

c)

Radio Tower

d)

Tower

93.

Looking at the map at Carp airport (N45 19 00 W76 01 30), what information is true regarding the Carp airport?

a)

Elevation 382 (the answer was left off the map)

b)

Gravel runway surface

c)

Length of runway is 3,820 ft.

d)

Has a FSS

94.

You have an aircraft with a fuel consumption of 8.0 gallons per hour. You fly for 2:30. How many litres will it take (You may refer to Appendix 4)?

a)

20 liters

b)

76 liters

c)

80 liters

d)

87 liters

95.

Referring Appendix for weight and balance data. What would be the center of gravity for the following load conditions? Helicopter 2200, Pilot 180, Front/Passenger 170, Cabin seat 100, Rear 100, Fuel 850, Rear stowage 150, Side holds 200. Pilot and Front Passenger: Area A, Cabin and Rear Seat: Area B, Fuel: Area F

(a)  

96.

You are departing Ottawa, you are cleared for take off on runway 07 with a left turn out for 3 minutes and to fly direct to the Ottawa VOR. What do you set on your OBS?

a)

290 degrees and then steer with CDI

b)

314 degrees and then steer with CDI

c)

330 degrees and then steer with CDI

d)

Set the OBS so the CDI is centered and there is a TO indication. Fly the set heading.

97.

You depart Sudbury airport for a 75 NM leg to Parry Sound Muni. Your ground speed for the trip is 115 Kts. Add 2 minutes for each 1000' of climb up to your cruise altitude of 5500'. How long will this leg take?

a)

11 minutes

b)

39 minutes

c)

33 minutes

d)

48 minutes

98.

The vertical distance between pressure levels is:

a)

Less in cold air than warm

b)

Greater in cold air than warm

c)

Greater in converging air

d)

Adiabatic