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Operations Management

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who is known as the father of TQM (Total Quality Management)?

a)

Joseph Juran

b)


Philip Crosby

c)

Edward Deming

d)

Kaoru Ishikawa

2.

Which quality management guru introduced the concept of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle?

a)

Joseph Juran

b)

Philip Crosby

c)

Edward Deming

d)

Kaoru Ishikawa

3.

Who is known for the concept of the 'Cost of Quality'?

a)

Joseph Juran

b)

Philip Crosby

c)

Edward Deming

d)

Kaoru Ishikawa

4.

Which of the following is a principle of TQM?

a)

Decisions made by top executives only

b)

Continuous improvement

c)

Product-centered system

d)

Customer-focus

5.

Company M has short-term goals like achieving the predicted quarterly profit. Company N has long-term goals like achieving sustained customer satisfaction. What can you infer about the management culture?

a)

Company M and Company N follows TQM

b)

Company M follows traditional management, Company N follows TQM

c)

Company N follows traditional management, Company M follows TQM

d)

Company M and Company N follows traditional management

6.

What is the primary focus of Total Quality Management (TQM)?

a)

Cost reduction

b)

Employee training

c)

Continuous improvement

d)

Market expansion

7.

Which one of the following is NOT true about projects?

a)

Projects can be influenced by factors external to the organization.

b)

Projects follow the same process for all the activities on a daily basis.

c)

Projects have a definite start and end time.

d)

Projects target to create a unique product, service, or process for the organization and stakeholders.

8.

Which process involves developing an approximation of the costs of resources needed to complete a project?

a)

finalizing the cost baseline

b)

determining the budget

c)

estimating costs

d)

controlling costs

9.

Who is known for the concept of the 'Six Sigma' methodology?

a)

Joseph Juran

b)

Philip Crosby

c)

Edward Deming

d)

Jack Welch

10.

What is the key principle of Lean Management?

a)

Elimination of waste

b)

Maximizing profits

c)

Centralized decision-making

d)

Employee turnover

11.

Which quality management tool is used to identify the most important causes contributing to a problem?

a)

Pareto Chart

b)

Scatter Diagram

c)

Control Chart

d)

Flowchart

12.

PROJECT IS ALWAYS...

a)

Unique

b)

Interesting

c)

Dynamic

d)

Extraordinary

13.

SUCCESSFUL PROJECTS ARE

a)

Lasting forever

b)

Completed on-time

c)

Flexible

d)

Independent of all variables

14.

The sooner you identify the _____the sooner you can eliminate negative developments

a)

Advantages

b)

Risk

c)

Goals

d)

Topics

15.

What are the Five Project Management Process Groups in order?

a)

Initiating, Planning, Monitoring & Controlling, Executing, and Closing.

b)

Initiating, Monitoring & controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing

c)

Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring & controlling, and Closing

d)

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & controlling and Closing

16.

As a Project Manager you finalize the list of Stakeholders, Which Process Group you are working in?

a)

Executing

b)

Monitoring & controlling

c)

Initiating

d)

Planning

17.

You are working on a large project which has several smaller projects and programs within it. This is:

a)

List of Projects

b)

Portfolio

c)

Project Life Cycle

d)

Programming

18.

Project risk is caused by an uncertain event that

a)

has always negative consequences

b)

has both positive and negative consequences

c)

will occur

d)

has occurred

19.

The two main axes of a risk are:

a)

Consequences * dependencies

b)

Probability * good luck

c)

Probability * cost

d)

Probability * impact

20.

_______is the ratio of earned value to planned value; can be used to estimate the projected time to complete a project.

a)

Schedule Variance (SV)

b)

Life Cycle Costing

c)

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

d)

Indirect Costs

21.

the ratio of outputs to inputs during production

a)

production

b)

level of production

c)

productivity

22.

producing output at the highest ratio of output to input

a)

effectiveness

b)

efficiency

c)

labor intensive

d)

capital intensive

23.

involving a high quantity of capital equipment compared with about input

a)

effectiveness

b)

efficiency

c)

labor intensive

d)

capital intensive

24.

Operations planning decisions are influenced by

a)

technology

b)

market demand

c)

skills of the labor

d)

availability of resources

25.

the use of computer programs to control machine tools and related machinery in manufacturing of products.

a)

CAD

b)

CAM

c)

advanced technology

d)

automation

26.

producing a one-off item specially designed for the customer

a)

mass customization

b)

flow production

c)

batch production

d)

job production

27.

An advantage of batch production

a)

high level of worker motivation

b)

some flexibility in design of product in each batch

c)

low unit costs due to constant working machine and high labour productivity

d)

ability to undertake specialist projects or jobs

28.

A disadvantage of flow production

a)

high unit production costs

b)

high levels of stocks at each production stage

c)

expensive to set up flow-line machinery

d)

wide range of tools needed

29.

What is the capital of France?

a)

Continuous interaction

b)

Continuous improvement

c)

Continuous communication

30.
Lean production essentially means the elimination of
a)
Labour
b)
Time
c)
Waste
d)
Problems
31.
Added value is when
a)
Inputs are transformed to create outputs that meet customer demand
b)
Inputs are made
c)
Inputs are transformed to create different outputs
d)
Inputs of a high quality have more value
32.
Operational Objectives do not include
a)
Profitability
b)
Flexibility
c)
Lower unit cost
d)
Quality
33.
If the Output is 10,000 units and the number of employees is 25 what is the Labour productivity per employee.
a)
40
b)
4000
c)
400
d)
40000
34.
Capacity Utilisation is 40% and present output is 600 units. What is the capacity?
a)
1200
b)
2400
c)
240
d)
1500
35.
Which of the following is true
a)
Increasing Capacity utilisation will leave total costs unchanged
b)
Increasing Capacity utilisation will reduce average cost per unit
c)
Increasing Capacity utilisation will increase total costs
d)
Increasing Capacity utilisation will increase unit costs
36.

Which of these is a common measure of labor productivity?

a)

Output scrap rate

b)

Profit margin

c)

Quality assurance level

d)

Output per worker per day

37.
Which of these pairs are ways to improve quality?
a)
Researching and Trialling
b)
Researching and Marketing
c)
Copying and Marketing
d)
Copying and Researching
38.

Operations management _________________.

a)

involve in obtaining funds and tracking the finance performing

b)

is the set of activities that transform inputs into outputs

c)

creates demand and gets customers

d)

involve the management of employees from recruitment to retirement

39.

In FSN Analysis, S Stands For

a)

Speed Moving

b)

Slow Moving

c)

Store Moving

d)

Several Moving

40.

Macro factors of Material Management is

a)

Lead Time

b)

Inventory Levels

c)

Government Policy

d)

Communication

41.

Which of the Following is the Forecasting technique?

a)

ABC Analysis

b)

Simple Moving Average

c)

PERT

d)

Inventory Control Technique

42.

In ABC Analysis, Items are classified based on

a)

Consumption/ usage value

b)

Availability of the resource

c)

Value of the item in store

d)

Cost of the item

43.

Procurement is one of the several supply functions involved in

a)

Supply Chain

b)

Logistics

c)

Purchasing

d)

Inventory

44.

In ABC Analysis, C Class items have Consumption Value of what percentage?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

70%

d)

30%

45.

Which of the following situations can be described as automation?

a)

A vacuum cleaner that can clean an airport terminal by itself

b)

A machine that automatically flips burger patties at a fast food restaurant

c)

A robotic arm that can paint a bike fuel tank

d)

All of the above

46.

Which of these is an example of mechanisation?

a)

Digging a ditch using a JCB earth mover

b)

An ATM

c)

Autopilot on an airplane

d)

Counting paper ballots in an election by hand

47.

Which of these is not a type of Automation?

a)

Numerically Controlled Machines (NCs)

b)

Industrial Robots

c)

Just In Time Systems (JIT)

d)

Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)

48.

Operations Management is a _________ process:

a)

Translation

b)

Transformation

c)

Transaction

d)

Transition

49.

Which of these would an operations manager not be responsible for?:

a)

Safety and maintenance

b)

Sales and marketing

c)

Selecting suppliers

d)

Recruiting employees

50.

Which of these statements accurately captures a current trend in operations?

a)

Cost competition is more important than any other basis for competition

b)

There is increased focus on local markets and local competition.

c)

Products and services are designed more quickly and by teams.

d)

Jobs are increasingly specialized as workers focus on basic assembly tasks

51.

Productivity increases when :

a)

Outputs decrease while inputs remain the same.

b)

Inputs and outputs increase proportionately.

c)

Inputs decrease while outputs remain the same.

d)

Inputs increase while outputs remain the same.

52.

The dominant operation for a bank is:

a)

Processing complaints

b)

Processing materials

c)

Processing information

d)

Processing customers

53.

What was the significant contribution of Elton Mayo in 1927?

a)

Economic lot sizes for inventory control

b)

Motion study of jobs

c)

Human relations; the Hawthorne studies

d)

Statistical inference applied to product quality

54.

Who are some contributors to the quality and productivity applications from Japan in the 1980s?

a)

Adam Smith and Eli Whitney

b)

W.E. Deming and J. Juran

c)

John Mauchlly and J.P. Eckert

d)

A. Charnes and W.W. Cooper

55.

What marked the shift to operations management in the 1970s?

a)

Emphasis on analysis in management practices

b)

Broader scope, including service organizations

c)

Introduction of computer applications

d)

Economic efficiency focus

56.

What marked the change from 'production' to 'operations' management?

a)

Emphasis on synthesis in management

b)

Inclusion of marketing strategies

c)

Broader scope, including service organizations

d)

Introduction of computer applications

57.

What characterizes manufacturing operations?

a)

Intangible outputs, immediate consumption, and high customer participation

b)

Tangible outputs, immediate consumption, and low customer participation

c)

Tangible outputs, consumption over time, and low customer contact

d)

Intangible outputs, consumption over time, and high customer participation

58.

What is the primary distinction between manufacturing operations and service operations?

a)

Tangible/Intangible nature of output

b)

Consumption of output

c)

Nature of work (job)

d)

Measurement of performance

59.

Who is credited with the idea of dividing work into smaller tasks to boost efficiency in the 18th century?

a)

Eli Whitney

b)

Charles Babbage

c)

Adam Smith

d)

Frederick W. Taylor

60.

In Batch Production, when is a change of setup required for processing the next batch?

a)

After every batch

b)

Never

c)

At regular intervals

d)

When sales are high

61.

What characterizes Mass Production?

a)

Irregular flow of materials

b)

Low volume of products

c)

Continuous and standardized production

d)

Higher set-up costs

62.
The most widely used tool for diagnosing the principle competitive pressures in a market is the:
a)
SWOT.
b)
Competitor Profiling.
c)
Five Forces Model.
d)
Market analysis.
63.
Which of the following is generally NOT considered a barrier to entry?
a)
The reaction of incumbent firms to rapid market growth.
b)
Strong brand preferences and a high degree of customer loyalty.
c)
High capital requirements and restrictive government policies.
d)
Strong “network effects” in customer demand.
64.

Strategic planning is....

a)

Long term planning

b)

Short term planning

c)

General planning

d)

Seasonal planning

65.

Which is NOT a part of Porters 5 forces?

a)

Bargaining power of Suppliers

b)

Threat of New entrants

c)

Bargaining power of customers

d)

Financial threat

66.

Which is the FIRST step in the strategic Management process?

a)

Monitoring and evaluating strategies

b)

Developing the vision and mission

c)

Strategy formulation

d)

Goals and Objectives

67.

In the BCG matrix , which of the following the strategy is sell off (divest)?

a)

Star

b)

Cow

c)

Question mark

d)

Dog

68.

What does the "S" stand for in PESTLE?

a)

Support

b)

Short term

c)

Social

d)

Subsidiary

69.
Well-stated objectives are:
a)
quantifiable or measurable, and contain deadlines for achievement.
b)
clear, succinct, and concise so as to identify the company’s risk and return options.
c)
directly related to the dividend payout ratio for stockholder returns.
d)
all of these.
70.
What is the last step of the Strategic Management Process?
a)
Formulating Strategies
b)
Implementing Strategies
c)
Evaluating Results
d)
Evaluating Weakness
71.

The internal business environment consists of...

a)

factors that directly impact the organisation

b)

factors that influence the operations of the business

c)

factors that influence the wider environment in which the business operates

72.

Which of the following SWOT elements are external factors for a business?

a)

Strengths and Weaknesses

b)

Strengths and Opportunities

c)

Opportunities and Threats

d)

Weaknesses and Threats

73.

An organisation carrying out its value chain activities at a cost lower than its competitors will enable the organisation to achieve:

a)

Differentiation Strategy

b)

Focus Strategy

c)

Hybrid Strategy

d)

Cost Leadership Strategy

74.

The fundamental purpose for the existence of any organization is described by its

a)

policies

b)

mission

c)

procedures

d)

strategy

75.

The fundamental purpose of an organization’s mission statement is to

a)

create a good human relations climate in the organization

b)

define the operational structure of the organization

c)

define the organization’s purpose in society

d)

generate good public relations for the organization

76.

Competitive advantage can best be described as

a)

increased efficiency.

b)

what sets an organization apart.

c)

a strength of the organization

d)

intangible resources.

77.

The primary focus of strategic management is:

a)

strategic analysis

b)

the total organisation

c)

strategy formulation

d)

strategy implementation.

78.

Which of the following are the Competitive Priorities of OM?

a)

Cost, Quality, Delivery, Flexibility, Service

b)

Strategic Planning, Tactical Planning, Operational Planning and Control

c)

Input, Transfomation, Outputs, Control

d)

None of the Above

79.

What does capacity refer to in an organization?

a)

The state in which all equipment and processes are optimized

b)

The adoption of new technologies to automate processes

c)

The rate at which a machine can produce a product

d)

The restructuring of the organization to improve communication

80.

How can capacity be measured?

a)

The percentage of products that do not meet the required quality standards

b)

The introduction of new or improved processes to streamline operations

c)

The rate at which a machine can produce a product

d)

The time when a machine or process is not in operation

81.

What is involved in forecasting demand?

a)

The adoption of new technologies to automate processes

b)

The restructuring of the organization to improve communication

c)

Predicting the future demand for a product based on historical data

d)

The introduction of new or improved processes to streamline operations

82.

What does innovation in operations management refer to?

a)

The adoption of new technologies to automate processes

b)

The introduction of new ideas, processes, or technologies to improve efficiency

c)

The rate at which a machine can produce a product

d)

The restructuring of the organization to improve communication

83.

Layout designs are compared basis on

a)

Material cost

b)

Location cost

c)

Material handling cost

d)

Rent cost

84.

Automobile Manufacturing is having the

a)

Process Layout

b)

Fixed position Layout

c)

Product Layout

d)

Group Technology Layout

85.

The decision on location of plant and facilities involve

a)

Tangible cost

b)

Intangible cost

c)

Tangible and Intangible cost

d)

None of the above

86.

Inventory is critical and required because

a)

For normal consumption

b)

For lead time of procurement

c)

For balance fluctuations in demand

d)

All of the above

87.

Purchase order generation is part of

a)

Inventory Order Cost

b)

Inventory Carrying Cost

c)

Both carrying cost and order cost

d)

None

88.

If order quantity is less then cost of order is

a)

Low

b)

High

c)

Medium

d)

zero

89.

If order quantity is more then cost of inventory carrying is

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Minimum

d)

Zero

90.

Economic order quantity is the optimal value of order size and it's calculated when total cost of inventory

a)

Maximum

b)

Minimum

c)

Zero

d)

None of the above

91.

Seasonal inventory is maintained

a)

To meet fluctuations in demand

b)

To plan and control multi-stage production process

c)

due to lead-time in transport and receipt of material

d)

None

92.

´The ___________ is the predominant activity of a production system.

a)

Conversion process

b)

Input

c)

Output

d)

System

93.

Ability to quickly change production to other products/services

a)

Service

b)

Flexibility

c)

Responsiveness

d)

Speed

94.

´Hospitals use available beds per month is an example for _______method of measuring capacity.

a)

Capacity cushion

b)

Capacity utilization

c)

Input rate method

d)

Output rate method

95.
Which of these is a common measure of labour productivity?
a)
Output scrap rate
b)
Profit margin
c)
Quality assurance level
d)
Output per worker per day
96.
An advantage of using inspection in quality control is that
a)
Inspectors know what to look for
b)
Costs are increased because there is more waste
c)
It can prevent defective product from reaching customers
d)
It assures the reliability of the production process
97.

The 4Ms does not include___________.

a)

Men

b)

Machine

c)

Message

d)

Machinery

98.

Which performance objective does IKEA focus on most?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Speed

c)

Quality

d)

Cost

99.

What are the input resources to any transformation process?

a)

Staff, facilities, materials, information and customers.

b)

People and machines.

c)

Processes, people and parts

d)

Information, materials and customers.

100.

It is the ongoing process of building and sustaining relationships by assessing, anticipating, and fulfilling stated and implied need.

a)

Quality Management System

b)

Quality

c)

Total Quality Management

d)

Traditional Approach