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CN-I MCQ test

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)

Wireless

b)

Fiber optic

c)

Copper

d)

Co-axial

2.

Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?

a)

Port

b)

Interface

c)

NIC

d)

IP

3.

What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping

a)

Local Area Network

b)

Internet

c)

Intranet

d)

Extranet

4.

Physical management port that provides out-of-band access to a Cisco device is

a)

Console

b)

Telnet

c)

SSH

d)

Aux

5.

Which command is used to move from user EXEC mode to privileged EXEC mode?

a)

configure terminal

b)

Interface fa0/1

c)

Enable

d)

ctrl+z

6.

What is the command to assign the name “Sw-CP08” to a switch?

a)

host name Sw-CP08

b)

name Sw-CP08

c)

devicename Sw-CP08

d)

hostname Sw-CP08

7.

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch

a)

enable secret class

b)

secret class

c)

service password-encryption

d)

enable class

8.

8. Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch

a)

enable secret

b)

Login

c)

Secret

d)

service password-encryption

9.

9. To access the switch remotely, an IP address and a subnet mask must be configured on?

a)

SVI

b)

• Physical Interface

c)

Console

d)

• Interface G0/1

10.

10. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

a)

Frame

b)

Protocol Data Unit

c)

Segment

d)

Packet

11.

11. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

a)

Flow Control

b)

Access Control

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Decoding

12.

12. What is the name of PDU in Network Layer

a)

Frame

b)

Segment

c)

Packet

d)

Bit

13.

13. Which media uses patterns of microwaves to represent bits?

a)

Copper

b)

Wireless

c)

Fiber-Optic

d)

Coaxial

14.

14.Which is the most common networking media?

a)

UTP

b)

STP

c)

Fiber Optic

d)

Coaxial

15.

15.Which connector is usually terminated with UTP cable?

a)

BNC

b)

Straight-Tip Connector

c)

Subscriber Connector

d)

RJ-45

16.

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use lasers in a single stream as a data light source transmitter?

a)

Multimode

b)

Fibermode

c)

single-mode

d)

copper

17.

Which of the following wireless standards is best suited for industrial and IoT environments?

a)

Zigbee

b)

WiMAX

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

Bluetooth

18.

Which of the following wireless standards is used for Personal Area Networks (PANs)

a)

Zigbee

b)

WiMAX

c)

Wi-Fi

d)

Bluetooth

19.

IPv4 address is divided into four sections called?

a)

Octet

b)

Bits

c)

Hextet

d)

Binary

20.

The number of bits in each IPv4 octet is?

a)

128 bits

b)

48 bits

c)

8 bits

d)

32 bits

21.

Which is the binary equivalent to the 192?

a)

10100000

b)

11000000

c)

10000011

d)

11100000

22.

Which is the binary equivalent to the 168?

a)

10100000

b)

10101010

c)

10010011

d)

10101000

23.

Which is the decimal equivalent to the 11100000?

a)

192

b)

168

c)

240

d)

224

24.

MAC Address and IPv6 are represented in which number system?

a)

Hexadecimal

b)

Decimal

c)

Binary

d)

Octel

25.

What is another name for the OSI data link layer?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

26.

Device addresses in Data link layer are referred to as?

a)

Physical Address

b)

Logical Address

c)

IP Address

d)

IPv6 Address

27.

What is the size of a MAC Adress?

a)

128 bit

b)

48 bit

c)

64 bit

d)

32 bit

28.

What is examined an Ethernet Switch to make a forwarding decision

a)

MAC Address Table

b)

Routing Table

c)

IP Address Table

d)

VLAN Table

29.

The MAC address table is sometimes referred to as?

a)

Routing Table

b)

IP Address Table

c)

VLAN Table

d)

Content addressable memory(CAM) table

30.

. What feature automatically negotiates the best speed and duplex setting between interconnecting devices?

a)

Auto-MDIX

b)

Autobots

c)

Auto negotiation

d)

autotune

31.

Which OSI layer sends segments to be encapsulated in an IPv4 or IPv6 packet

a)

Data link layer

b)

Network layer

c)

Transport layer

d)

Session layer

32.

Which field is used to detect corruption in the IPv4 header?

a)

Header Checksum

b)

Time to Live

c)

Protocol

d)

Differentiated Services

33.

What is the command used on a Cisco IOS router to view the routing table

a)

netstat –r

b)

route print

c)

show ip route

d)

show routing table

34.

This type of route is also known as a gateway of last resort?

a)

Static route

b)

Remote route

c)

Default route

d)

Directly connected route

35.

Where is the ARP table stored on a device

a)

ROM

b)

Flash

c)

NVRAM

d)

RAM

36.

Which command could be used on a Cisco router to view its ARP table?

a)

arp –a

b)

arp –d

c)

show arp table

d)

show ip arp

37.

Which protocol is used to determine the MAC address of a known destination device with IPv4 address

a)

DHCP

b)

ARP

c)

DNS

d)

ND

38.

Which protocol is used to determine the MAC address of a known destination device with IPv6 address?

a)

DHCP

b)

ARP

c)

DNS

d)

ND

39.

Which command is used to move from privileged EXEC mode to Global Configuration mode?

a)

configure terminal

b)

Interface fa0/1

c)

enable

d)

ctrl+z

40.

Which command is used to activate the interface?

a)

Shutdown

b)

on

c)

no Shutdown

d)

activate

41.

What is used when the host wants to send a packet to a device on another network?

a)

next hop address

b)

default route

c)

default gateway

d)

routing table

42.

Which command is used to configure an IPv4 default gateway on a switch

a)

default-gateway

b)

default-router

c)

ip gateway

d)

ip default-gateway

43.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 10.5.4.100 255.255.255.0. What is the network address of Host-A?

a)

10.0.0.0

b)

10.5.0.0

c)

10.5.4.0

d)

10.5.4.255

44.

Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask 172.16.4.100 255.255.0.0. What is the network address of Host-A?

a)

172.0.0.0

b)

172.16.0.0

c)

172.16.4.0

d)

172.16.4.100

45.

What is the size of the IPv4 Address?

a)

32 bit

b)

48 bit

c)

128 bit

d)

64 bit

46.

What is used to determine the network and host portions of a given IP Address

a)

Bits

b)

Octet

c)

Subnet Mask

d)

Hextet

47.

What is a less cumbersome method used to identify a Subnet Mask Address

a)

Bits

b)

Octet

c)

Hextet

d)

Prefix length

48.

What are the common blocks of addresses used by most organizations to assign IPv4 addresses to internal hosts.Private Addresses

a)

Private Addresses

b)

Public Addresses

c)

Link-Local Addresses

d)

Loopback Addresses

49.

Which address used by Windows DHCP clients to self-configure when no DHCP servers are available

a)

Private Addresses

b)

Public Addresses

c)

Link-Local Addresses

d)

Loopback Addresses

50.

127.0.0.0/8 Addresses are called?

a)

Private Addresses

b)

Public Addresses

c)

Link-Local Addresses

d)

Loopback Addresses

51.

What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?

a)

/25

b)

/28

c)

/26

d)

/27

52.

How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?

a)

62

b)

254

c)

190

d)

192

53.

Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?255.255.255.240

a)

255.255.255.240

b)

255.255.255.0

c)

255.255.255.224

d)

255.255.255.128

54.

A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

1

d)

4

55.

What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

a)

255.255.240.0

b)

255.255.255.248

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.192

56.

How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network

a)

256

b)

30

c)

32

d)

16

57.

Which subnet mask would be used if exactly 4 host bits are available?

a)

255.255.255.224

b)

255.255.255.240

c)

255.255.255.248

d)

255.255.255.128

58.

If a network device has a mask of /26, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network

a)

64

b)

32

c)

14

d)

62

59.

What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

a)

Host Address

b)

Network Address

c)

Multicast Address

d)

Broadcast Address

60.

If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?

a)

254

b)

16

c)

14

d)

62

61.

What is the recommended prefix length for most IPv6 subnets

a)

/32

b)

/48

c)

/64

d)

/128

62.

Which part of a GUA is assigned by the ISP?

a)

Gobal Routing Prefix

b)

Gobal Routing Prefix and Subnet ID

c)

Prefix

d)

RIR Prefix

63.

Which type of IPv6 unicast address is not routable between networks?

a)

Unique Local Address

b)

GUA

c)

Embedded IPv4 Address

d)

LLA

64.

What type of IPv6 address begins with fe80?

a)

GUA

b)

LLA

c)

Multicast Address

d)

Incorrect Address

65.

Which protocol is used by IPv4 and IPv6 to provide error messaging?

a)

ICMP

b)

DHCP

c)

ARP

d)

NDP

66.

Which utility uses the Internet Control Messaging Protocol (ICMP)?

a)

ping

b)

NTP

c)

RIP

d)

DNS

67.

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor sends you a virus that can reformat your hard drive?

a)

Data loss or Manipulation

b)

Disruption of Service

c)

Identify theft

d)

information theft

68.

Which device controls traffic between two or more networks to help prevent unauthorized access?

a)

AAA Server

b)

Firewall

c)

ESA/WSA

d)

IPS

69.

Which device is used by other network devices to authenticate and authorize management access?

a)

AAA Server

b)

Firewall

c)

ESA/WSA

d)

IPS

70.

Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet for remotely managing a router?

a)

Connection via multiple VTY lines

b)

Encryption

c)

Authorization

d)

TCP usage

71.

Which factor must be considered when selecting network devices?

a)

Color

b)

Console Connections

c)

Cost

d)

Elasticity

72.

What is required to maintain a high degree of reliability and eliminate single points of failure?

a)

Accessibility

b)

Expandability

c)

Integrity

d)

Redundancy

73.

What is required to classify traffic according to priority?

a)

IP Addressing Scheme

b)

Quality of Service(QoS)

c)

Routing

74.

Which command is used to check the speed, duplex, media type and other Layer1 and Layer2 details of a switch port?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show mac-address-table

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show running-config

75.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on

a)

load boot loader software

b)

load a power-on self-test program

c)

load the default CISCO IOS software

d)

Low-Level CPU initialization

76.

What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?

a)

Rollover

b)

Coaxial

c)

Straight-Through

d)

Crossover

77.

Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

a)

Source IP Address

b)

Source MAC Address

c)

Destination IP Address

d)

Destination MAC Address

78.

Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

a)

Hub

b)

Router

c)

Firewall

d)

Switch

79.

Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

a)

Hub

b)

Router

c)

Firewall

d)

Switch

80.

Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?

a)

Access point

b)

Router

c)

Ethernet bridge

d)

Ethernet Hub

81.

Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP at the transport layer?

a)
  • The client sets the window size for the session.

b)

The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake

c)
  • The client randomly selects a source port number.

d)
  • The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.

82.

Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?

a)
  • UDP ACK flag

b)
  • TCP 3-way handshake

c)

UDP sequence number

d)
  • TCP port number

83.

What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?

a)
  • 0 to 255

b)
  • 0 to 1023

c)
  • 256 – 1023

d)
  • 1024 – 49151

84.

What is a socket?

a)
  • the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address

b)
  • the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number

c)
  • the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers

d)
  • the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

85.

A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC

a)
  • 1 segment

b)
  • 10 segments

c)
  • 100 segments

d)
  • 1000 segments

86.

Which factor determines TCP window size?

a)
  • the amount of data to be transmitted

b)
  • the number of services included in the TCP segment

c)
  • the amount of data the destination can process at one time

d)
  • the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time

87.

What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?

a)
  • It just sends the datagrams.

b)
  • It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.

c)

It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server

d)

It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation

88.

Which three fields are used in a UDP segment header? (Choose three.)

a)
  • Window Size

b)
  • Length

c)
  • Source Port

d)
  • Acknowledgment Number

e)
  • Checksum

89.

What are two roles of the transport layer in data communication on a network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • identifying the proper application for each communication stream

b)
  • tracking the individual communication between applications on the source and destination hosts

c)
  • providing frame delimiting to identify bits making up a frame

d)
  • performing a cyclic redundancy check on the frame for errors

90.

What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments?

a)
  • port numbers

b)
  • sequence numbers

c)
  • acknowledgment numbers

d)
  • fragment numbers

91.

Which flag in the TCP header is used in response to a received FIN in order to terminate connectivity between two network devices?

a)
  • FIN

b)
  • ACK

c)
  • SYN

d)
  • RST

92.

Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-server communication and TCP for server-to-server communication?

a)
  • HTTP

b)
  • FTP

c)
  • DNS

d)
  • SMTP

93.

What kind of port must be requested from IANA in order to be used with a specific application?

a)
  • registered port

b)
  • private port

c)
  • dynamic port

d)
  • source port

94.

Which type of VLAN is assigned to 802.1Q trunk ports to carry untagged traffic?

a)

Default

b)

Native

c)

Data

d)

Management

95.

In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?

a)

Flash

b)

RAM

c)

ROM

d)

NVRAM

96.

On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN information stored

a)

Startup configuration file

b)

NVRAM

c)

flash

d)

running configuration file (A)

97.

What is the default native vlan set in trunk?

a)

VLAN 1

b)

VLAN 99

c)

VLAN 1002

d)

NOT set by default

98.

What is the default switchport mode for Cisco Catalyst switches?

a)

Access

b)

Trunk

c)

Dynamic auto

d)

Dynamic desirable

99.

When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?

a)

To the interface

b)

To the subinterface

c)

To the VLAN

d)

To the SVI

100.

What is the meaning of the number 10 in the encapsulation dot1Q 10 native router subinterface command??

a)

The subnet number

b)

The VLAN ID

c)

The interface number

d)

The subinterface number

101.

What operational mode should be used on a switch port to connect it to a router for router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

a)

Trunk

b)

Dynamic desirable

c)

Access

d)

Dynamic auto

102.

While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?

a)

To provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic

b)

To provide a static trunk link

c)

To create a switched virtual interface

d)

To create a routed port for a single network

103.

. What device is elected by the Spanning Tree Algorithm? All other switches determine a single leastcost path to this device

a)

Root bridge

b)

Dedicated bridge

c)

Default gateway

d)

Core Switch

104.

The root bridge will be the switch with the:

a)

Lowest bridge ID (A)

b)

Highest bridge ID

c)

Lowest port priority

d)

Highest port priority

105.

The sum of individual port costs along the path from the switch to the root bridge is known as the:

a)

Least cost path

b)

shortest path cost

c)

Best path cost

d)

Root path cost (A)

106.

How often does a switch send a BPDU?

a)

Every 2 seconds

b)

Every 15 seconds

c)

Every 20 seconds

d)

Only when there is a change in the topology

107.

Which PAgP interface mode will initiate negotiation with other interfaces

a)

On

b)

Desirable

c)

Auto

d)

Passive

108.

When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

a)

VLAN interface

b)

Port Channel

c)

Loopback

d)

Interface range

109.

As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?

a)

DHCPREQUEST

b)

DHCPACK

c)

DHCPDISCOVER

d)

DHCPOFFER

110.

What is the destination IP address when an IPv4 host sends a DHCPDISCOVER message?

a)

255.255.255.255

b)

192.168.1.1

c)

224.0.0.1

d)

0.0.0.0

111.

Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

a)

Manual allocation

b)

Dynamic allocation

c)

Automatic allocation

d)

Pre-allocation

112.

Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?

a)

Client hardware address

b)

Gateway IP address

c)

Client IP address

d)

Broadcast MAC address

113.

Which ICMPv6 message is sent by a host in an attempt to locate an online IPv6enabled router to obtain IPv6 addressing information?

a)

Neighbor Advertisement(NA

b)

Neighbor Solicitation(NS)

c)

Router Solicitation(RS)

d)

Router Advertisement(RA)

114.

What method is used by a host to verify an IPv6 address is unique on the local network before assigning that address to an interface?

a)

ARP

b)

DAD

c)

PING

d)

SLAAC

115.

What UDP port do DHCPv6 clients use to send DHCPv6 messages

a)

67

b)

68

c)

546

d)

547

116.

An IPv6-enabled router is to acquire its IPv6 GUA from a DHCPv6 server. Which interface configuration command should be configured on client router?

a)

IPv6 address autoconfig

b)

IPv6 address auto config

c)

IPv6 address dhcp

d)

IPv6 address dhcpv6

117.

In FHRP terminology, what represents a set of routers that present the illusion of a single router to hosts?

a)

Virtual router

b)

Forwarding router

c)

Standby router

d)

Default gateway