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Semester 3 Exam Part 2

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A motorist receiving a traffic citation in his home jurisdiction is permitted in the Nonresident Violator Compact of 1977 _____________.

a)

To accept the citation from the officer and to immediately continue after promising to comply with the terms of the citation

b)

Should be taken immediately before a magistrate to answer the allegations of a traffic violation

c)

Must surrender his or her driver's license to the police officer

d)

Cannot be given a citation for a violation of the Texas Transportation Code in the State of Texas

e)

None of the answers are correct

2.

A person commits an offense if he/she uses a wireless communication device while operating which of the following vehicles, with a minor passenger when there is no emergency.

a)

Passenger bus

b)

Passenger car

c)

Bicycle

d)

Train

3.

A person may comply with a written promise to appear in court by an appearance by counsel.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

A person riding an animal on a roadway or operating a vehicle drawn by an animal on a roadway has the rights and duties applicable to the operator of a vehicle under this subtitle, except

a)

a right or duty that by its nature cannot apply to a person riding an animal or operating a vehicle drawn by an animal.

b)

Laws pertaining to speed

c)

Right of ways at intersections

d)

None of the other answers

5.

A person who owns a vehicle or employs or otherwise directs the operator of a vehicle ____ an offense if the person requires or knowingly permits the operator to operate the vehicle in a manner that violates law.

a)

Does not commit

b)

Cannot be punished for

c)

Commits

d)

Is not liable for

6.

A sign, signal or device erected by a railroad, public body or public official to notify traffic of railroad tracks or an approaching railroad train.

a)

Railroad sign or signal

b)

Traffic control signal

c)

Sign

d)

Official traffic control device

7.

According to Section 545. 412 secured in connection with use of a safety belt means using the lap belt and any shoulder straps according to the instructions of______________

a)

Child safety seat manufacturer

b)

Manufacturer of the vehicle

c)

Manufacturer of the safety belt

d)

B and or C

8.

An offense under Chapter 503.094 Dealer’s and Manufacturer’s Vehicle License Plates is a...

a)

Misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not less than $50 or more than $5,000

b)

Misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not less than $20 or more than $1,000.

c)

Class C Misdemeanor

d)

State Jail Felony

9.

An operator may drive on the improved shoulder to the right of the main traveled portion of the roadway if that operation is necessary and may be done safely under certain circumstances. Which of the following is not justification for an operator to drive on the improved shoulder?

a)

Stop, stand or park

b)

To allow another vehicle traveling faster to pass

c)

To avoid a collision

d)

To pass another vehicle traveling slower

10.

An operator may not, except momentarily to pick up or discharge a passenger, stand or park an occupied or unoccupied vehicle within _____ feet on the approach to a flashing signal, stop sign, yield sign, or traffic-control signal located at the side of a roadway.

a)

30

b)

20

c)

15

d)

75

11.

An operator on a roadway divided into two or more clearly marked lanes for traffic _____ and may not move from the lane unless that movement can be made safely.

a)

May move from lane to lane around other traffic.

b)

Shall drive as nearly as practical entirely within a single lane.

c)

Shall drive in the center lane.

d)

May drive in any lane for any amount of time.

12.

Elaine stops at a local 7-11 store to purchase a cup of coffee. She exits her vehicle and leaves her engine running with the key in the ignition. While she is in the store, a youth steals her car. What offense if any has Elaine committed and the fine?

a)

No offense, she is the victim

b)

Unattended vehicle $1 to $200 fine

c)

Unattended vehicle $50 to $200 fine

d)

Unattended vehicle up to $500 fine

13.

If a person operates a motor vehicle and their driver’s license has been cancelled, suspended or revoked, which of the following would be the appropriate misdemeanor charge?

a)

Driving While License Invalid; with a fine of not less than $100 nor more than $500, and confinement in a county jail for a term of not less than 72 hours or more than six months.

b)

Driving While License Invalid; Class C Misdemeanor

c)

Driving While License Suspended; with a fine of not more than $10,000, and confinement in a state jail for any term of not more than two years or less than 180 days.

d)

Driving While License Suspended; with a fine of not less than $100 nor more than $500, and confinement in a county jail for a term of not less than 72 hours or more than six months.

14.

It is a violation to stand or park an occupied or unoccupied vehicle 10 Ft from a fire hydrant.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Passengers in passenger vehicles must wear a safety belt or be secured by a child passenger safety seat system, regardless of their location in the vehicle, if they are under the age of...

a)

17

b)

18

c)

16

d)

Everyone must wear a seatbelt in a motor vehicle no matter where they are seated.

16.

The MUTCD states “All workers, including emergency responders, within the right-of-way of a roadway…SHALL wear high-visibility safety apparel…” Which of the following is not an example of an authorized exemption?

a)

Responders directly exposed to flame, fire, or heat

b)

Law enforcement personnel conducting a traffic stop

c)

Law enforcement personnel directing traffic

d)

Fire personnel directly exposed to hazardous materials

17.

The department may not issue any license to a person who is under _____ years of age.

a)

15

b)

16

c)

17

d)

18

18.

The operator of a _____ before crossing a track at a railroad grade crossing must stop not closer than 15 feet or farther than 50 from the nearest track, while stopped, shall listen and look both directions along the track for an approaching train and signals indicating the approach of a train, and may not proceed until it is safe to do so.

a)

Placarded commercial vehicle

b)

School bus

c)

Motor bus

d)

Motor vehicle

19.

The time specified in the notice to appear must be at least ____ days after the date of arrest unless the person arrested demands an earlier hearing. 543.006

a)

10

b)

5

c)

7

d)

15

20.

To secure release on a promise to appear, the person arrested must do which of the following?

a)

Assure the arresting officer they will appear in court by raising their right hand swearing or affirming such promise.

b)

Secure a bond from a licensed bail bondsman, and deliver such within 24 hours of the time of arrest.

c)

Make a written promise to appear in court by signing the written notice prepared by the arresting officer.

d)

Post bail of a minimum of $25.00 with the arresting officer

21.

There are ____ classes of electric bicycle

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

22.

The owner of a private road cannot require a person operating a motor vehicle on the private road different conditions than required by statute.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The definition of a "streetcar” ______

a)

means a carrier that operates cars, other than streetcars, on stationary rails to transport persons or property

b)

means a steam engine or electric or other motor with or without an attached car operated on rails, other than a streetcar.

c)

means a car, other than a railroad train, used to transport persons or property and operated on rails located primarily within a municipality.

d)

none of the other answer are correct

24.

Preferential right-of-way at an intersection may be indicated by...

a)

Stop or yield signs.

b)

Warning signals.

c)

Lane markings.

d)

Warning signs

25.

It is not illegal to stand on the roadway and solicit a ride, contributions, employment, or business.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

If the Texas Department of Transportation, or a local authority, designates a railroad crossing as particularly dangerous and erects a stop sign or other official traffic-control device at the grade crossing _____.

a)

All commercial vehicles must stop

b)

All vehicles must stop

c)

Only school buses and placarded hazardous vehicles must stop

d)

Only placard vehicles must slow to 15 miles per hour as they approach, and may not cross in a gear requiring a shift.

27.

"_____” means a vessel, one or more water skis, an aquaplane, or another device used for transporting or carrying a person on water, other than a device propelled only by the current of the water.

a)

Sailing vessel

b)

Ship

c)

Boat

d)

Watercraft

28.

A Police Officer must give a violator _____ days to appear in court when the violator has been permitted to sign the traffic citation.

a)

12

b)

10

c)

8

d)

5

29.

A buyer's temporary cardboard tag is valid for the operation of the vehicle until...

a)

The date on which the vehicle is registered or the 60th day after the date of the purchase

b)

The 31st day after the date of the issue of a second or third tag if the dealer has been unable to register the vehicle

c)

The date on which the vehicle is registered

d)

A and B are correct

30.

A motor vehicle may be equipped with not more than ___ fog lamps mounted on the front of the vehicle at a height from ____ to ____ inches.

a)

2...12...30

b)

4...12...18

c)

4...24...30

d)

2...9...18

31.

A motorist receiving a traffic citation in his home jurisdiction is permitted in the Nonresident Violator Compact of 1977 _____________.

a)

Must surrender his or her driver's license to the police officer

b)

Cannot be given a citation for a violation of the Texas Transportation Code in the State of Texas

c)

To accept the citation from the officer and to immediately continue after promising to comply with the terms of the citation

d)

Should be taken immediately before a magistrate to answer the allegations of a traffic violation

e)

None of the answers are correct

32.

A pedestrian shall proceed on the ______ half of a crosswalk, if possible.

a)

Middle

b)

Left

c)

Open

d)

Right

33.

A person commits an offense if the person operates _______ during a period that a suspension of the person's driver's license or non-resident's operating privilege is in effect under Chapter 601.

a)

An all-terrain vehicle

b)

Golf cart

c)

A vehicle without financial responsibility

d)

A watercraft

34.

A person operating a bicycle, coaster, sled, toy vehicle, or roller skates may not attach either the person or the bicycle, coaster, sled, toy, vehicle, or roller skates to _______.

a)

A motor vehicle on a roadway

b)

Any vehicle

c)

A vehicle on public property

d)

streetcar or vehicle on a roadway

35.

A person who is dead, unconscious, or otherwise incapable of refusal is considered _____ the consent given under Section 724.011.

a)

To have withdrawn

b)

To have automatically, specifically by their incapability, made a request for their attorney to withdraw

c)

Incapable of giving consent, so therefore cannot withdraw the consent

d)

Not to have withdrawn

36.

A school bus driver _____.

a)

May disregard a police officer or a traffic-control signal directing traffic if a train is not within 1000 feet.

b)

Must stop only at railroad grade crossings in business or residential districts.

c)

Must open the bus door after stopping at a railroad grade crossing.

d)

When proceeding across a railroad grade crossing after stopping, must do so without manually shifting gears while crossing the track.

37.

A written and road test is required for a moped license

a)

True

b)

False

38.

An individual means an individual, firm, partnership, association, or corporation.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

An operator intending to turn a vehicle right or left shall signal continuously for not less than the last ____feet of movement of the vehicle before the turn.

a)

100

b)

50

c)

200

d)

500

40.

An operator may not stop, stand, or park a vehicle at which of the following?

a)

On the roadway side of a vehicle stopped or parked at the edge or curb of a street

b)

An operator may not stop, stand, or park at any of the listed answers

c)

On a bridge or other elevated structure on a highway or in a highway tunnel.

d)

On a railroad track

41.

An operator of a vehicle facing a _____ signal may proceed straight or turn right or left unless a sign prohibits the turn. The operator shall yield the right-of-way to other vehicles and to pedestrians lawfully in the intersection or an adjacent crosswalk.

a)

Flashing red

b)

Steady yellow

c)

Steady red

d)

Circular green

42.

Before crossing a railroad grade crossing, an operator of a vehicle that has an explosive substance or flammable liquid as the vehicle’s principal cargo that is moving at a speed of more than _____ miles per hour shall reduce the speed of the vehicle to _____ miles per hour or less before coming within 200 feet of the nearest rail of the railroad.

a)

40

b)

30

c)

20

d)

15

43.

Headlamps must be mounted at a height from _____ to _____ inches.

a)

36...48

b)

24...54

c)

24...36

d)

18...24

44.

Detection Phase Two is called ____________________

a)

Personal Contact

b)

Pre-arrest screening

c)

Vehicle in motion

d)

Psychophysical tests

45.

How long should the subject stand with a foot raised for on the One Leg Stand test?

a)

30 seconds

b)

15 seconds

c)

45 seconds

d)

60 seconds

46.

The Walk and Turn test has two stages which are the ________________ stages

a)

Instruction and performance

b)

Walking and turning

c)

Instruction and divided attention

d)

Instruction and walking

47.

The recommended position of the stimulus for checking HGN is approximately __________ inches from the subject’s nose and slightly above eye level

a)

12-15

b)

10-12

c)

15-18

d)

18-20

48.

Which of the following is NOT one of the validated clues for the One Leg Stand test?

a)

Sways while balancing

b)

Hopping

c)

Uses arms for balance

d)

Failure to count out loud

49.

How many clues have been validated for the Walk and Turn test?

a)

8

b)

6

c)

10

d)

12

50.

In the San Diego SFST Field Validation Study, which test was determined to be the most accurate in identifying a person with a BAC level of 0.08 percent or higher?

a)

Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus

b)

One Leg Stand

c)

Walk and Turn

d)

Modified Romberg Balance

51.

Equal pupil size, resting nystagmus and ___________________ are the three checks of the eyes done prior to the administration of HGN to assess possible medical impairment

a)

Equal tracking

b)

Reaction to light

c)

Lack of smooth pursuit

d)

Lateral pursuit

52.

In the Walk and Turn test, the subject is required to take nine heel-to-toe steps in a straight line, turn around in a prescribed manner, and return _______heel-to-toe steps back along the line.

a)

9

b)

8

c)

7

d)

5

53.

The second clue of the HGN test is ____________________________

a)

Distinct and Pronounced Nystagmus

b)

Resting Nystagmus at Maximum Deviation

c)

Onset of Nystagmus prior to 45 degrees

d)

Distinct and sustained Nystagmus at maximum Deviation

54.

Which of the following Walk and Turn clues can be scored in the Instruction Stage?

a)

Starts to soon

b)

Steps off line

c)

Does not touch heel to toe

d)

Uses arms for balance

55.

For Vertical Gaze Nystagmus to be recorded, it should be distinct and sustained for __________________

a)

A minimum of 4 seconds

b)

A minimum of 2 seconds

c)

Approximately 2-4 seconds

d)

Enough time to verify that it is present

56.

A good, structured field sobriety test is simple and

a)

Focuses the subject's attention

b)

Interrupts the subject's attention

c)

Captures the subject's attention

d)

Divides the subject's attention

57.

In the San Diego SFST Field Validation Study, the One Leg Stand test was found to be ________ percent accurate in identifying a subject with a BAC of 0.08 percent or higher.

a)

83

b)

65

c)

68

d)

77

58.

The SFST Validation Study that addressed the question, “Do SFSTs discriminate at BAC levels below 0.10%?” was the ___________________________

a)

San Diego SFST Validation Study

b)

Los Angeles Field Validation Study

c)

Colorado SFST Validation Study

d)

Stockton Validation Study

59.

When checking for the Onset of Nystagmus Prior to 45 degrees, the stimulus should be moved from center line to the side in approximately ___________________ seconds

a)

4

b)

2

c)

6

d)

8

60.

"A poor report can cost you your case in court."

Identify the adjective in the above sentence

a)

Poor

b)

Report

c)

Cost

d)

Case

61.

"A poor report can cost you your case in court."

Identify the preposition in the above sentence.

a)

A

b)

Can

c)

You

d)

In

62.

A ___________ is a word that is used as a substitute for a noun or noun equivalent. e.g. “Who is she?”

a)

Pronoun

b)

Adverb

c)

Adjective

d)

Noun

63.

He drank _____ much before driving home and was arrested for DWI.

a)

to

b)

two

c)

too

d)

none of the answers are correct

64.

No one saw nothing.

The above sentence is an example of what type of sentence construction?

a)

Sentence Fragment

b)

Run-on Sentence c

c)

Issues with the placement of a modifier

d)

Double Negative

65.

The _______ of the suspect in the courtroom frightened the victim.

a)

Cite

b)

Sight

c)

Site

d)

None of the answers are correct

66.

The lack of exercise ________ your ability to effectively perform your duties.

a)

effects

b)

affects

c)

effect

d)

affict

67.

Giving regular feedback is the ___ step in active listening

a)

7th

b)

8th

c)

9th

d)

10th

68.

If a waiter smiles sincerely, the tips can be more generous. Which principle of persuasion is this?

a)

Reciprocity

b)

Liking

c)

Consensus

d)

Consistency

69.

Most people are deeply scripted or programmed to see the world through the lenses of scarcity.

a)

Giving out

b)

Getting through

c)

Knowledge

d)

None of the other answers

70.

Most people are deeply scripted or programmed to see the world through the lenses of scarcity.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

The nonverbal can reveal someone's precise thoughts

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What is the only way to interrupt someone without generating further resistance is to _________.

a)

Not listening

b)

Let them know you are in charge

c)

Paraphrase

d)

Motion stop with your hand

73.

Which of the following indicate that you are not interested or not listening?

a)

Checking texts, time

b)

Crossing arms, tapping fingers, dropping the head, biting your lips

c)

Looking away, long breaks in eye contact, avoiding eye contact, rolling eyes

d)

All the other answers

74.

How do you say “You’re under arrest” in Spanish?

a)

Habla Smith n Wesson

b)

Apage el motor

c)

Salga del carro

d)

Esta arrestado

75.

A suspect just yelled “Brincale”, he is telling somebody to

a)

Take his gun

b)

Jump Him

c)

Run

d)

Hit him

76.

As you are approaching a residence, in which there are several Spanish speaking subjects standing in front of, you hear somebody yell, “Tirele”. What was said?

a)

Jump him!

b)

Shoot him!

c)

Run!

d)

Disarm him!

77.

If you hear somebody yell “Golpealo”, he/she just said

a)

Run

b)

Take his gun

c)

Beat him up

d)

Shoot him

78.

You are ordering somebody to drop the weapon. You would do so by yelling

a)

Desarmalo

b)

Volteese despacio

c)

Suelta el arma

d)

Alto

79.

You are dispatched to a residence to serve a warrant on a Hispanic male. While talking to a female resident, she yells over her shoulder and yells, “Corre”. What did she say?

a)

Run!

b)

Disarm him!

c)

I’m hungry!

d)

Let’s go!

80.

Our goal as police is to solve the underlying crisis.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

What is the 80-20 principle?

a)

80% on capabilities/ 20% intentions

b)

80%speaking/ 20% on listening

c)

80% listening/ 20% on speaking

d)

None of the other answers are correct

82.

What percentage of people who live in homeless shelters live with a mental illness?

a)

16%

b)

26%

c)

36%

d)

46%

e)

50%

83.

When faced with a subject in crisis, officers can experience some of the same physiological changes the subject is going through.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which of the following is not one of the three phase response process when faced with a person in crisis.

a)

Safety

b)

Assess

c)

Problem solving

d)

Stability

85.

In which of the following is the use of force justified?

a)

To resist a lawful arrest or search

b)

The exact force used or attempted was consented to

c)

If the actor provoked the other’s use or attempted use of unlawful force

d)

None of these justify the use of force

86.

The deciding factor (s) in determining the use of force when effecting an arrest is/are:

a)

Suspect is submitting peacefully or is he resisting?

b)

Is the suspect armed?

c)

What is the nature of the crime?

d)

Number of suspects involved?

e)

All of the answers are factors

87.

The number one thing that gets officers in to trouble is their _____

a)

Partner

b)

Supervisor

c)

Emotions

d)

Appearance

88.

There are many factors on whether the officer’s actions created a situation of danger where a fatal error was likely, which of the following would fall into that category?

a)

The nature of the offense in which control was lost

b)

Actions of third parties who were present

c)

An emergency situation which existed

d)

The physical size, strength, and weaponry of the arrestee

e)

All of the answers are correct

89.

Which are the two types of communication?

a)

Inflection & tone

b)

Speech & writing

c)

Language & writing

d)

Verbal & written

e)

Nonverbal & verbal

90.

Which of the following percentages is correct?

a)

10% of the time a message is received due to content; 30% of the time a message is received due to voice; 70% of the time a message is received due to body language

b)

7% of the time a message is received due to content; 33% of the time a message is received due to voice; 60% of the time a message is received due to body language

c)

15% of the time a message is received due to content; 45% of the time a message is received due to voice; 75% of the time a message is received due to body language

d)

None of these are correct

91.

_____ means force which is not excessive and is appropriate in protecting oneself or one’s property. When such force is used, a person is justified and is not criminally liable, nor is he liable in tort.

a)

Force

b)

Deadly force

c)

Reasonable force

d)

Unreasonable force

e)

Use of force

92.

_____ be used to protect one’s own property and that of a third person.

a)

Force, but not deadly force, may

b)

Deadly force may not

c)

Force and deadly force may

d)

Force may

93.

Which of the following accurately depicts the Use of Force Continuum?

a)

Deadly force, weapons, weaponless, verbal, command presence

b)

Command presence, verbal, weaponless, weapons, deadly force

c)

Command presence, verbal, weaponless, weapons, deadly weapons

d)

Verbal, soft hands, hard hands, weapons, deadly force

e)

Deadly weapons, non-deadly weapons, chemical means, hands-on means, non-verbal

94.

What are the three key elements in the use of deadly force?

a)

intended, culpable mental state, manner of its use

b)

known, capable of causing, manner of how it’s not used

c)

intentional, knowing, reckless

d)

intended or known, capable of causing, manner of its use

95.

The threat of force is...

a)

Not justified when faced with force

b)

The use of force

c)

Justified only when faced with the threat of deadly force.

d)

The only reasonable force

e)

None of these is the threat of force

96.

The good faith defense for an officer is greatly enhanced when he/she follows the written directives of the department.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

Milstead V. Kibler allows officers immunity from:

a)

Liability of criminal conduct

b)

Liability from civil damages

c)

Liability from violation of wrongs

d)

Liability of injuries

98.

Federal Civil Rights complaints are investigated by _____.

a)

Internal affairs

b)

Texas Rangers

c)

Attorney General’s Office

d)

Federal Bureau of Investigation

e)

American Civil Liberties Union

99.

A condition that an individual may have had since birth or childhood which has prevented them from full social or vocational independence in adulthood, and which continues throughout their lifespan (DSM – V)

a)

Developmental disorder

b)

Autism

c)

Age regression

d)

Asperger syndrome

100.

According to “Mental Hela America of Texas, 2017” what percentage of people with a diagnosable mental illness will not seek treatment?

a)

Nearly 25%

b)

Nearly 30%

c)

Nearly 50%

d)

Nearly 66%

101.

Cognitive disorders consist of significant cognitive decline in one or more of the following areas except?

a)

Attention

b)

Executive function

c)

Perceptual motor

d)

All the other answers

e)

None of the other answers

102.

Excited Delirium can be created by the synergy between drugs and mental health problems.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

How many people are hospitalized each year to head injuries?

a)

1 million

b)

1.7 million

c)

2 million

d)

2.4 million

104.

It is believed that most personality disorders are caused by ___

a)

Environmental factors

b)

Genetic factors

c)

Environmental and genetic factors

d)

None of the other answers

105.

Mental illness is diagnosed based on _______ and thinking as evaluated by a psychiatrist, psychologist, licensed professional counselor, licensed social worker, or other qualified professionals using a tool known as the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, most commonly called the DSM-5. (American Psychiatric Association, 2013)

a)

Actions

b)

Behaviors

c)

Chemical imbalances

d)

Anger levels

106.

Out of the 275,000 people that are admitted to the hospital, how many die?

a)

25,000

b)

49,000

c)

52,000

d)

60,000

107.

Someone with Alzheimer’s disease may drive similarly to someone under the influence of alcohol or other substances.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Someone with a profound intellectual functioning will have an IQ range of

a)

70-79

b)

50-69

c)

35-50

d)

20-50

e)

Below 20

109.

The Hippocampus is responsible for ___?

a)

Language and information processing

b)

Formation of new memories

c)

Pain

d)

Balance and coordination

110.

The behavioral or physical manifestations of intoxication, and signs of overdose are provided from the Drug Recognition Expert Matrix (MN DPS, 2017), and is the legally accepted standard for categorizing drugs and their effects.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

The definition for insanity is standardized in the United States

a)

True

b)

False

112.

There is a known overdose level for Cannabis.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

What is the difference between normal suspect encounter training and approaching the mentally ill?

a)

The potential for violence

b)

The possibility of being sued

c)

The potential of damage to your agency

d)

There is a need to be non-confrontational when approaching the mental ill.

114.

What percentage of fatalities involving law enforcement are accounted for by persons who are mentally ill?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

20%

d)

25%

115.

What percentage of persons with a learning disability have been victims of bullying in public.

a)

25%

b)

52%

c)

73%

d)

84%

116.

What type of hallucinations are most common?

a)

Auditory

b)

Tactile

c)

Seeing

d)

Smelling

117.

Which of the following is not a biological influence?

a)

Evolution

b)

Individual genes

c)

Mood related perceptions and memories

d)

Brain structure and chemistry

118.

Which of the following is not a social-cultural influence?

a)

Roles

b)

Expectations

c)

Learned helplessness

d)

Definitions of normality and disorder

119.

Which of the following substances is not a Hallucinogen?

a)

Peyote

b)

Khat

c)

Psilocybin

d)

Ecstacy

120.

22.12 What is the penalty for the operator of a school bus that fails to stop at a railroad crossing?

a)

$1 to $200 fine

b)

$50-$200 fine

c)

up to $500 fine

d)

$500 to $1200 fine