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Cardiovascular Agents

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 2hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Frusemide belongs to .....

a)

Loop diuretics

b)

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

c)

thiazide diuretics

2.

Which of the following is an aldosterone antagonist?

a)

Frusemide

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Mannitol

3.

Indapamide acts on the .............. of the nephron.

a)

collecting duct

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

d)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

4.

Which of the following is a side effect of Spironolactone?

a)

Hypokalemia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Ototoxicity

5.

Name the agent under the class of carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

a)

Frusemide

b)

Indapamide

c)

Acetazolamide

d)

Mannitol

6.

Diuretics can be used for the following conditions EXCEPT

a)

Heart Failure

b)

Edema

c)

Fluid in the lungs

d)

Diabetes

7.

This hormone is responsible to absorb water from the lumen.

a)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

b)

Parathyroid

c)

Aldosterone

8.

Spironolactone works on the ...... of the nephron.

a)

proximal convoluted tubule

b)

distal convoluted tubule

c)

loop of Henle

d)

collecting duct

9.

The following processes occur in the nephron EXCEPT

a)

secretion

b)

absorption

c)

filtration

d)

reabsorption

10.

Ototoxicity is a side effect related to this diuretic.

a)

acetazolamide

b)

mannitol

c)

frusemide

d)

thiazide

11.

Beta blockers

a)

~pril

b)

~olol

c)

~ipine

d)

~sartan

12.

Vasotec

a)

enalapril

b)

lisinopril

c)

propranolol

d)

nifedipine

13.

Lopressor

a)

atenolol

b)

metoprolol

c)

Inderal

d)

propranolol

14.

Crosses the BBB

a)

timolol

b)

propranolol

c)

metoprolol

d)

carvedilol

15.

CCB

a)

~olol

b)

~sartan

c)

~pril

d)

~ipine

16.

ACE inhibitor

a)

Vasotec

b)

Lopressor

c)

Cardizem

d)

Coreg

17.

Loop- furosemide-

a)

Diamox

b)

Lasix

c)

Osmitrol

18.

Osmotic- mannitol

a)

Neptazane

b)

Diamox

c)

Osmitrol

19.

Thiazide-hydrochlorothiazide

a)

HCTZ, Microzide

b)

Diamox

c)

Lasix

20.

What is "normal" blood pressure

a)

120/110 mmHg

b)

120/80 mmHg

c)

100/80 mmHg

d)

140/80 mmHg

21.
What helps prevent High Blood Pressure?
a)
Physical Excersise
b)
Stress Management
c)
All of the Above
d)
Low Sodium Diets
22.

Fatima has blood pressure 183/81, what is Fatima's systolic pressure?

a)

81

b)

183

c)

183/81

d)

81/183

23.

A diastolic pressure of 80 - 89

a)

normal blood pressure

b)

prehypertension

c)

hypertension stage 1

d)

hypertension stage 2

24.

A primary hypertension/ or essential hypertension is caused by:

a)

Medications such as pain relievers

b)

Diseases such as obesity and kidney disease

c)

Diabetes

d)

no known cause

25.

Increased blood pressure over time can cause problems with the heart, blood vessels, kidneys and even the brain

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Low blood pressure

a)

diastolic pressure

b)

systolic pressure

c)

hypotension

d)

hypertension

27.

Why is high blood pressure or hypertension a 'silent' killer?

a)

It has no sound

b)

It has no symptoms

c)

It kills people

d)

It is a leading cause of death in the world

28.

can hypertension be completely cured?

a)

yes

b)

no

29.

is hypertension inherited mainly?

a)

yes

b)

no

30.

which of these diseases is related to hypertension?

a)

peptic ulcer

b)

diabetes

c)

pneumonia

31.

What happens in the body when the blood pressure is high?

a)

Walls of arteries get stretched and damaging

b)

The body suffers a series of mild heart attacks

32.

Prescription drug abuse and prescription drug misuse mean the exact same thing.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

It is safer to abuse prescription drugs than street drugs.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

It is safe to take a prescription medicine that has expired as long as it is your own prescription.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

It is safe to take any over-the-counter medication along with your prescription medication since over-the-counter drugs do not require a prescription from a doctor.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Prescription drug abuse can lead to addiction.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Prescription drug abuse is against the law.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Misuse or abuse of prescription drugs can be deadly.

a)

True

b)

False

39.
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Which result is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
a)
Serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL
b)
Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
c)
Serum hemoglobin of 14.7 g/dL
d)
Blood glucose level of 96 mg/dL
40.
Which action should the nurse take when administering the initial dose of oral labetalol (Normodyne) to a patient with hypertension?
a)
Encourage the use of hard candy to prevent dry mouth.
b)
Instruct the patient to ask for help if heart palpitations occur.
c)
Ask the patient to request assistance when getting out of bed.
d)
Teach the patient that headaches may occur with this medication.
41.
After the nurse teaches the patient with stage 1 hypertension about diet modifications that should be implemented, which diet choice indicates that the teaching has been effective?
a)
The patient avoids eating nuts or nut butters.
b)
The patient restricts intake of chicken and fish.
c)
The patient has two cups of coffee in the morning.
d)
The patient has a glass of low-fat milk with each meal.
42.
A patient has just been diagnosed with hypertension and has been started on captopril (Capoten). Which information is important to include when teaching the patient about this medication?
a)
Check blood pressure (BP) in both arms before taking the medication.
b)
Increase fluid intake if dryness of the mouth is a problem.
c)
Include high-potassium foods such as bananas in the diet.
d)
Change position slowly to help prevent dizziness and falls.
43.
Propranolol (Inderal) is prescribed for a patient diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving this medication when the patient reveals a history of
a)
asthma.
b)
daily alcohol use
c)
peptic ulcer disease.
d)
myocardial infarction (MI).
44.
A 56-year-old patient who has no previous history of hypertension or other health problems suddenly develops a blood pressure (BP) of 198/110 mm Hg. After reconfirming the BP, it is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient that
a)
a BP recheck should be scheduled in a few weeks.
b)
dietary sodium and fat content should be decreased.
c)
there is an immediate danger of a stroke and hospitalization will be required.
d)
diagnosis of a possible cause, treatment, and ongoing monitoring will be needed.
45.
During change-of-shift report, the nurse obtains the following information about a hypertensive patient who received the first dose of nadolol (Corgard) during the previous shift. Which information indicates that the patient needsimmediate intervention?
a)
The patient’s most recent blood pressure (BP) reading is 158/91 mm Hg.
b)
The patient’s pulse has dropped from 68 to 57 beats/minute.
c)
The patient has developed wheezes throughout the lung fields.
d)
The patient complains that the fingers and toes feel quite cold.
46.
The nurse on the intermediate care unit received change-of-shift report on four patients with hypertension. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
a)
43-year-old with a (blood pressure (BP) of 160/92 who is complaining of chest pain
b)
52-year-old with a BP of 212/90 who has intermittent claudication
c)
50-year-old with a BP of 190/104 who has a creatinine of 1.7 mg/dL
d)
48-year-old with a BP of 172/98 whose urine shows microalbuminuria
47.
A patient with a history of hypertension treated with a diuretic and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor arrives in the emergency department complaining of a severe headache and nausea and has a blood pressure (BP) of 238/118 mm Hg. Which question should the nurse ask first?
a)
“Did you take any acetaminophen (Tylenol) today?”
b)
“Have you been consistently taking your medications?”
c)
“Have there been any recent stressful events in your life?”
d)
“Have you recently taken any antihistamine medications?”
48.
The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a hypertensive emergency. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider?
a)
Urine output over 8 hours is 250 mL less than the fluid intake.
b)
The patient cannot move the left arm and leg when asked to do so.
c)
Tremors are noted in the fingers when the patient extends the arms.
d)
The patient complains of a headache with pain at level 8/10 (0 to 10 scale).
49.
While caring for a 23-year-old patient with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) without valvular regurgitation, the nurse determines that discharge teaching has been effective when the patient states that it will be necessary to
a)
take antibiotics before any dental appointments.
b)
limit physical activity to avoid stressing the heart.
c)
take an aspirin a day to prevent clots from forming on the valve.
d)
avoid use of over-the-counter (OTC) medications that contain stimulant drugs.
50.
While assessing a 68-year-old with ascites, the nurse also notes jugular venous distention (JVD) with the head of the patient’s bed elevated 45 degrees. The nurse knows this finding indicates
a)
decreased fluid volume.
b)
jugular vein atherosclerosis.
c)
increased right atrial pressure.
d)
incompetent jugular vein valves.
51.
Which topic will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for a patient with systolic heart failure and an ejection fraction of 33%?
a)
Need to begin an aerobic exercise program several times weekly
b)
Use of salt substitutes to replace table salt when cooking and at the table
c)
Benefits and side effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
d)
Importance of making an annual appointment with the primary care provider
52.
A patient who has chronic heart failure tells the nurse, “I was fine when I went to bed, but I woke up in the middle of the night feeling like I was suffocating!” The nurse will document this assessment finding as
a)
orthopnea.
b)
pulsus alternans.
c)
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
d)
acute bilateral pleural effusion.
53.
The nurse working on the heart failure unit knows that teaching an older female patient with newly diagnosed heart failure is effective when the patient states that
a)
she will take furosemide (Lasix) every day at bedtime.
b)
the nitroglycerin patch is applied when any chest pain develops.
c)
she will call the clinic if her weight goes from 124 to 128 pounds in a week.
d)
an additional pillow can help her sleep if she is feeling short of breath at night.
54.
Following an acute myocardial infarction, a previously healthy 63-year-old develops clinical manifestations of heart failure. The nurse anticipates discharge teaching will include information about
a)
digitalis preparations
b)
b-adrenergic blockers.
c)
calcium channel blockers.
d)
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
55.
Which diagnostic test will be most useful to the nurse in determining whether a patient admitted with acute shortness of breath has heart failure?
a)
Serum troponin
b)
Arterial blood gases
c)
B-type natriuretic peptide
d)
12-lead electrocardiogram
56.
A patient with chronic heart failure who is taking a diuretic and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and who is on a low-sodium diet tells the home health nurse about a 5-pound weight gain in the last 3 days. The nurse’s priority action will be to
a)
have the patient recall the dietary intake for the last 3 days.
b)
ask the patient about the use of the prescribed medications.
c)
assess the patient for clinical manifestations of acute heart failure.
d)
teach the patient about the importance of restricting dietary sodium.
57.
After receiving change-of-shift report on a heart failure unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
a)
A patient who is cool and clammy, with new-onset confusion and restlessness
b)
A patient who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases and is receiving oxygen.
c)
A patient who had dizziness after receiving the first dose of captopril (Capoten)
d)
A patient who is receiving IV nesiritide (Natrecor) and has a blood pressure of 100/62
58.
Which assessment finding in a patient admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
a)
Oxygen saturation of 88%
b)
Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb)
c)
Heart rate of 106 beats/minute
d)
Urine output of 50 mL over 2 hours
59.
A patient has recently started on digoxin (Lanoxin) in addition to furosemide (Lasix) and captopril (Capoten) for the management of heart failure. Which assessment finding by the home health nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider?
a)
Presence of 1 to 2+ edema in the feet and ankles
b)
Palpable liver edge 2 cm below the ribs on the right side
c)
Serum potassium level 3.0 mEq/L after 1 week of therapy
d)
Weight increase from 120 pounds to 122 pounds over 3 days
60.
After receiving change-of-shift report on a heart failure unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
a)
Patient who is taking carvedilol (Coreg) and has a heart rate of 58
b)
Patient who is taking digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L
c)
Patient who is taking isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine (BiDil) and has a headache
d)
Patient who is taking captopril (Capoten) and has a frequent nonproductive cough
61.
A patient at the clinic says, “I have always taken a walk after dinner, but lately my leg cramps and hurts after just a few minutes of starting. The pain goes away after I stop walking, though.” The nurse should
a)
check for the presence of tortuous veins bilaterally on the legs.
b)
ask about any skin color changes that occur in response to cold.
c)
assess for unilateral swelling, redness, and tenderness of either leg.
d)
assess for the presence of the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.
62.
The nurse performing an assessment with a patient who has chronic peripheral artery disease (PAD) of the legs and an ulcer on the right second toe would expect to find
a)
dilated superficial veins.
b)
swollen, dry, scaly ankles.
c)
prolonged capillary refill in all the toes.
d)
a serosanguineous drainage from the ulcer.
63.
Which topic should the nurse include in patient teaching for a patient with a venous stasis ulcer on the left lower leg?
a)
Need to increase carbohydrate intake
b)
Methods of keeping the wound area dry
c)
Purpose of prophylactic antibiotic therapy
d)
Application of elastic compression stockings
64.
A 67-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of venous insufficiency. Which patient statement is most supportive of the diagnosis?
a)
“I can’t get my shoes on at the end of the day.”
b)
“I can’t seem to ever get my feet warm enough.”
c)
“I have burning leg pains after I walk two blocks.”
d)
“I wake up during the night because my legs hurt.”
65.
While working in the outpatient clinic, the nurse notes that a patient has a history of intermittent claudication. Which statement by the patient would support this information?
a)
When I stand too long, my feet start to swell.”
b)
“I get short of breath when I climb a lot of stairs.”
c)
My fingers hurt when I go outside in cold weather.”
d)
“My legs cramp whenever I walk more than a block.”
66.
When developing a teaching plan for a 76-year-old patient newly diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD), which instructions should the nurse include?
a)
Exercise only if you do not experience any pain.”
b)
“It is very important that you stop smoking cigarettes.”
c)
Try to keep your legs elevated whenever you are sitting.”
d)
“Put elastic compression stockings on early in the morning.”
67.

An unusually rapid heart rate: over 100 bpm

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Metabolism

d)

A problem

68.

An unusually slow heartbeat

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Bradycardia

69.
Chronic high BP is called...
a)
Hypertrophy
b)
Atrophy
c)
Hypertension
d)
Hyperatrophy
70.

A nurse is caring for four clients. Which one should the nurse see first?

a)

Client who needs a beta blocker, and has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg

b)

Client who had a first dose of captopril (Capoten) and needs to use the bathroom

c)

Hypertensive client with a blood pressure of 188/92 mm Hg

d)

Client who needs pain medication prior to a dressing change of a surgical wound

71.
Antibiotics kill viruses
a)
True
b)
False
72.

what layer of the heart is damaged in a heart attack?

a)

endocardium

b)

epicardium

c)

pericardium

d)

myocardium

73.

what valve does blood pass through when it's going from the right atrium and ventricle?

a)

The tricuspid valve

b)

the aortic valve

c)

the pulmonary valve

d)

the mitral valve

74.

which vessel takes blood from the lower portion of the body and returns it to the heart?

a)

the aorta

b)

the right atrium

c)

the inferior vena cava

d)

the superior vena cava

75.

what is the natural pacemaker of the heart?

a)

The SA node in the right atrium

b)

the AED

c)

The SA node in the left atrium

d)

the AV node and Bundle of His

76.

A patient with a hx of HTN presents to the outpatient clinic with a BP of 185/110. ROS and PE normal other than elevated BP. What is your recommendation?

a)

Send patient to the ER

b)

Initiate clonidine and optimize BP medications

c)

Initiate nifedipine and optimize BP medications

d)

Initiate esmolol IV

77.

Patient presents to the ED with chest pain and a BP of 200/120. She has a history of HTN and she's pregnant. What would be the best agent to initiate?

a)

Labetalol

b)

Nitroprusside

c)

Nicardipine

d)

Captopril

78.

Which agent is effective across multiple comorbidities (ACS, ARF, eclampsia, etc.)

a)

Nicardipine

b)

Phentolamine

c)

Hydralazine

d)

Fenoldopam

79.

Which formulation should not be used for hypertensive crisis because of erratic PK?

a)

IM

b)

IV

c)

PO

d)

SL

80.

Nitroglycerin typically isn't recommended except...

a)

As an adjunct agent in acute MI

b)

For pregnant patients

c)

For cocaine overdose

d)

For cyanide overdose

81.

Which of the following is NOT a limitation to use of nitroprusside?

a)

Risk of cyanide accumulation

b)

Development of tachyphylaxis

c)

Must be protected from light

d)

Difficult to titrate

82.

Which beta-blocker is preferred for critically ill patients because of it's ultra-short acting properties?

a)

Labetalol

b)

Propranolol

c)

Esmolol

d)

Carvedilol

83.

ACEI and ARBs are not used in

a)

Hypertension

b)

Diabetic nephropathy

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

B/L Renal Artery stenosis

84.

Which step in RAAS pathway is mediated by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

a)

Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin 1

b)

Step catalyzed by Renin

c)

Angiotensin 1 to Angiotensin 2

d)

Action of Angiotensin 2 on AT-2 receptors

85.

Find out the lysine derivative of enalaprilat using the following emoji

a)

Enalapri

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Captopril

d)

Verapamil

86.

Plasma half ife of Losartan

a)

24-48 hours

b)

1-2 hours

c)

12-16 hours

d)

9-10 hours

87.

ACEI mainly causes

a)

Hyperakalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Sepsis

88.

Which of the following is false about angina pectoris?

a)

principal symptom of patients with ischemic heart disease

b)

sudden, severe, substernal pain

c)

radiates along the right shoulder most of the time and to the flexor group of muscles

d)

usually caused by exercise or heavy meal

89.

How many chambers does your heart have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

NOTA

90.

2 ANSWERS. CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLIES.


Mr. P.D was diagnosed with Prinzmetal Angina. Upon checking for his medical history, which of the following combination of drugs could have been prescribed to him by the doctor?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Calcium Channel Blockers

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

Alpha Blockers

91.

A relative of an in-patient for stable angina asked you that he is not familiar with the term "stable" angina. You tried to explain it using other known names for stable angina. Which of the following is not another term for stable angina?

a)

Exertional

b)

Crescendo

c)

Fixed

d)

Classic

92.

2 ANSWERS. ANSWER ALL THAT APPLIES.


Stable angina is usually caused by obstruction of the coronary arteries. Which of the following classification of drugs is not correctly paired with its generic drug?

a)

Nitrates - Nitroglycerin

b)

Beta Blockers - Spironolactone

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers - Nifedipine

d)

Calcium Channel Blockers - Propanolol

93.

Which of the following is a Levine Sign?

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.

In the hospital, a folk of the patient was having severe chest pains. He said to you that this has been going on for 15 minutes already. You called the attention of a doctor and knowing the patient's history for angina he would most likely administer:

a)
b)
c)
d)
95.

Relaxation of the heart

a)

Systole

b)

Asystole

c)

Diastole

d)

Cardiac Arrest

96.

A method of drug administration used for gradual absorption of the anti-anginal drug for prolonged prophylactic purpose.

a)
b)
c)
d)
97.

All of the following are effects of Nitrates except?

a)

Peripheral Artery Vasodilation

b)

Reduction of peripheral arterial resistance

c)

decrease after load

d)

reduced venous load

98.

Adverse effects of Nitrates are all of the following except?

a)

throbbing headache

b)

flushing of the face

c)

dizziness at the end of the treatment

d)

postural hypotension

99.

Decreases heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac contractility without appreciable decrease in cardiac output

a)

Alpha Blockers

b)

Nitrates

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers

d)

Beta Blockers

100.

All of the following are common calcium channel blockers. Which of these are not correctly paired with its onset of action?

a)

Nifedipine - 20 minutes

b)

Verapamil - 1 to 2 hours

c)

Diltiazem - 1 hour

d)

Nicardifine - 20 minutes

101.

These are all unwanted effects of Calcium Channel Blockers except?

a)

Nausea

b)

Vomitting

c)

Flushing of the face

d)

Bradycardia

102.

2 ANSWERS. CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLIES.


Combination of drugs that are useful in severe vasospastic or exertional angina with congestive heart failure and sick sinus syndrome.

a)

Beta Blockers

b)

Nitrates

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers

d)

NOTA

103.

Usual dosage for Nitroglycerin tablets.

a)

0.5 to 1.5 mg

b)

0.5 to 1.2 grams

c)

0.7 to 1.5 mg

d)

0.5 to 1.2 mg

104.

The following route of administration will provide the highest concentration of drugs in the blood

a)

Intavascular

b)

Intradermal

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Oral

105.

An antibiotic is defined as:

a)

any substance that can kill bacteria

b)

any chemical that can kill microbes

c)

products produced by organisms to inhibit other organisms

d)

a drug used to treat colds and flu

106.

All of these are common ways in which antimicrobial drugs affect cells except for:

a)

inhibit cell wall synthesis

b)

inhibit 70S ribosomes

c)

inhibit DNA/RNA synthesis

d)

denature proteins

107.

Of the following antibiotics, which inhibit cell wall synthesis--check ALL that apply.

a)

Penicillins

b)

Aldehydes

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Cephalosporins

108.

Beta-lactamase is:

a)

an enzyme our cells use to attack the cell walls of bacteria

b)

an enyzyme bacteria use to break down certain antibiotics

c)

an antimicrobial drug that inhibits cell wall synthesis

d)

an antimicrobial drug that inhibits protein synthesis

109.

Bacteria would likely obtain the beta-lactamase enzyme via:

a)

mutation of existing genes

b)

horizontal gene transfer

c)

radiation treatment

110.

All of these antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis EXCEPT:

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Streptomycin

c)

Tetracyclin

d)

Vancomycin

111.
A compound synthesized by bacteria of fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an
a)
synthetic drug
b)
antibiotic
c)
antimicrobial drug
d)
competitive inhibitor
112.
Which statement is not an aim in the use of drugs in antimicrobial chemotherapy? The drug should
a)
have selective toxicity
b)
be active even in high dilutions
c)
be broken down and excreted rapidly
d)
be microbicidal
113.
Microbial resistance to drugs is acquired through 
a)
conjugation
b)
transformation
c)
transduction
d)
all of these
114.
R factors are _____ that contain a code for ______.
a)
genes, replication
b)
plasmids, drug resistance
c)
transposons, interferon
d)
plasmids, conjugation
115.
When a patient's immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of
a)
superinfection
b)
drug resistance
c)
allergy
d)
toxicity
116.
Most antihelminthic drugs function by
a)
weakening the worms so they can be flushed out by the intestine
b)
inhibiting worm metabolism
c)
blocking the absorption of nutrients
d)
inhibiting egg production
117.
Select a drug or drugs that can prevent a viral nucleic acid from being replicated.  
a)
azidothymidine
b)
acyclovir
c)
amantadine
d)
both a and b
118.
Which of the following effects do antiviral drugs not have?
a)
killing extracellular viruses
b)
stopping virus synthesis
c)
inhibiting virus maturation
d)
blocking virus receptors
119.
Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic?
a)
interrupting ribosomal function
b)
dissolving the cell membrane
c)
preventing cell wall synthesis
d)
inhibiting DNA replication
120.
The MIC is the ____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe.
a)
largest concentration
b)
standard dose
c)
smallest concentration
d)
lowest dilution
121.
An antimicrobial drug with a _____ therapeutic index is a better choice that one with a _____ therapeutic index. 
a)
low, high
b)
high, low

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