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Ceutics - Exam 1 - New Drug Dev & Drug Disc Mirza

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of "A New Drug" by the FDA's perspective

a)

Any drug that is NOT recognized as being safe and effective in the conditions recommended for its use in the labeling among qualified experts

b)

A new chemical entity

c)

A new formulation or method of manufacture of ‘old drug’

d)

A new combination (including proportions) of two or more old drugs

e)

A new use/route of administration/dosage form for an established drug

2.

When was the Wiley Act passed (first food and drug law)

a)

1900

b)

1906

c)

1938

d)

1945-1965

e)

2000-2003

3.

What was the main source of drugs until the beginning of the 20th century

a)

plants

b)

minerals

c)

animals

d)

microorganisms

e)

genetic engineering

4.

What are some key problems that prevents plants from being the widespread source of new drugs

a)

their purity

b)

their consistency

c)

limited quantities

d)

limited types

5.

What are some examples of minerals as sources of new drugs

a)

salt

b)

iodine

c)

iron

d)

hydrogen

6.

What are some examples of animals as sources of new drugs

a)

insulin

b)

thyroid hormone

c)

fish oil

d)

serotonin in crayfish

7.

What is a significant natural source of drugs that produces many antibacterial drugs

a)

plants

b)

minerals

c)

animals

d)

microorganisms

e)

genetic engineering

8.

What was the first antibiotic discovered?

a)

penicillin

b)

amoxicillin

c)

gentamicin

d)

tobramycin

9.

How are organic synthesis drugs produced

a)

via plants

b)

artificially

c)

via animals

d)

via genetic engineering

10.

What are the different types of organic synthesis

a)

semisynthetic drugs

b)

synthetic drugs

c)

plant-based drugs

d)

mineral-derived drugs

11.

What are some advantages of drugs synthesized in the chemistry laboratory

a)

high purity

b)

less expensive

c)

large scale production within a short amount of time

d)

large scale production within a long amount of time

e)

create more complex drugs

12.

What are some characteristics of genetic engineering as a drug source

a)

its the process of direct manipulation of an organism's genome

b)

alters the cell's ability to produce proteins to add one or more new traits

c)

alters the spiral DNA chain

d)

its the process of indirect manipulation of an organism's genome

13.

What are the key techniques of genetic engineering as a drug source

a)

recombinant DNA (rDNA)

b)

monoclonal antibodies

c)

semisynthetic techniques

d)

synthetic techniques

14.

How are recombinant DNA engineered

a)

selectively hydrolyze a population of DNA molecules

b)

join two different DNA molecules

c)

utilizing nonhuman cells

d)

large scale production within a short time

15.

How does recombinant DNA genetic engineering work

a)

manufactures proteins identical to those produced in humans

b)

manufactures proteins similar to those produced in humans

c)

manufactures proteins identical to those produced in the lab

d)

manufactures proteins similar to those produced in the lab

16.

What are monoclonal antibodies, where are they produced, and what is the major advantage

a)

laboratory-produced copies of a specific protein (antibody)

b)

mAb are produced entirely within the cells of higher animals, including the patient

c)

they can be designed specifically to only target a certain antigen

d)

mAb are produced entirely within the cells of any animal, including the patient

e)

they can be designed specifically to only target all antigens

17.

What are the purposes of drug discovery

a)

to find active ingredients

b)

modify the chemical structures of existing active ingredients of drugs to form the basis of a new agent

c)

to target disease or indication

d)

modify the chemical structures of existing inactive ingredients of drugs to form the basis of a new agent

e)

to find inactive ingredients

18.

What is an ideal goal drug

a)

Can produce the desired effect

b)

Can be administered by the most desirable route (orally) at a minimal dosage and frequency

c)

Shows optimal onset and duration of activity

d)

No side effects

e)

After exerting a necessary effect, it should be eliminated from the body efficiently and without residual effects

19.

What's the first step of creating a goal drug

a)

identify target disease

b)

identify indication

c)

formation of a discovery team

d)

finding a rational design

20.

What are things that need to be taken into consideration when identifying a target disease or indication?

a)

is this drug a priority in the Pharmaceutical Industry; will there be a profit after developing and testing the drug

b)

is the disease widespread

c)

does the disease affect the developed world

d)

are there drugs already on the market; what are the advantages/disadvantages

e)

can others identify a market advantage for a new therapy

21.

What does the discovery project team do

a)

Biology experts share knowledge of target and develop tools for further studies

b)

Chemistry engages to identify lead chemical matter to interact with the desired target (receptor, enzyme, nucleic acid)

c)

ADME experts understand what body does to the drug

d)

Toxicology experts evaluate the safety

e)

Pharmaceutical scientists provide expertise in formulation and drug delivery

22.

What are some common drug targets

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

nucleic acids

d)

carbohydrates

23.

What are agonists

a)

receptor activators

b)

receptor blockers

24.

What are antagonists

a)

receptor activators

b)

receptor blockers

25.

What makes up a Clinical Proof of Concept (POC)

a)

right target

b)

right drug

c)

discovery target

d)

discovery drug

26.

What is the goal of target validation and what should be avoided

a)

evaluate target and confirm its role in the disease state

b)

avoid research paths that lead to dead ends

c)

evaluate target and confirm its role during inactivity

d)

avoid research paths that lead to endless possibilities

27.

When creating a new drug molecule, what is the first thing that is identified

a)

a lead compound

b)

the right drug

c)

indication

d)

goal drug

28.

What is a lead compound

a)

a prototype having desired activity but also undesirable characteristics

b)

a prototype having undesirable characteristics

c)

the right drug for the right target

29.

What are lead compound discovery methods

a)

Drug metabolism studies - metabolites produced are screened for the same or other activities

b)

Clinical observations - new activities found in clinical trials

c)

Rational design- identify biological causes for disease states, use natural ligand or enzyme substrate as the lead

d)

Rational design- a known drug to be used as the lead

e)

High-Throughput Screening (HTS)

30.

What happens during drug metabolism

a)

metabolites are isolated and screened to determine if the observed activity is derived from the drug or the metabolite

b)

metabolites are gathered and screened to determine if the observed activity is derived from the drug or the metabolite

31.

What was Viagra (sildenafil citrate) originally tested as

a)

antihypertensive

b)

antianginal

c)

vasodilator

d)

pulmonary arterial hypertension

32.

What is structure-activity relationship (SAR)

a)

the relationship between the chemical structure of a molecule and its biological activity

b)

the relationship between the chemical structure and the drug excipients

c)

the relationship between the API and excipients

d)

the relationship between excipients and biological activity

33.

What does lead optimization result in

a)

a drug candidate

b)

a lead compound

c)

target identification

d)

formation of a discovery project team

34.

What is a drug candidate

a)

compound worthy of extensive biological, pharmacological, and animal testing

b)

drug metabolites that are isolated and screened for the drug candidate

35.

What is observed during the lead optimization stage of new drug development

a)

activity

b)

potency

c)

side effects

d)

route of administration

36.

What is type of activity is observed during lead optimization

a)

the particular biological effect

b)

the strength of the biological effect

c)

the inhibitory concentration

d)

the effective concentration

37.

What is type of activity is observed during lead optimization

a)

the particular biological effect

b)

the strength of the biological effect

c)

the half maximal inhibitory concentration (IC50)

d)

the half maximal effective concentration (EC50)

38.

What are some things an oral drug must do in the body other than its intended purpose

a)

dissolve, cross membranes, partition into target organ

b)

survive a range of pHs (1.5-8.0)

c)

survive intestinal bacteria and liver metabolism

d)

avoid active transport to bile, excretion by kidneys, and partition into undesired places

e)

be excreted as fast as possible to avoid tissue toxicity

39.

What is a prodrug

a)

A compound that requires metabolic biotransformation after administration to produce the desired pharmacologically active compound

b)

A compound that does not require metabolic biotransformation after administration to produce the desired pharmacologically active compound

c)

A compound that requires metabolic biotransformation after administration to produce the desired pharmacologically inactive compound

d)

A compound that does not require metabolic biotransformation after administration to produce the desired pharmacologically inactive compound

40.

What is a prodrug typically designed to modify

a)

solubility

b)

absorption

c)

biostability

d)

release profile

e)

change the reaction at intended target

41.

What are some issues that can arise when modifying existing drugs

a)

shorter duration

b)

multiple side effects

c)

patent issues

d)

incompatibility with other drugs

e)

unpredictability of excipients

42.

What type of approach is modifying existing drugs known as

a)

"Me-Too"

b)

"Me-Better"

c)

"Me-First"

d)

"Me-Longer"

43.

What is High Throughput Screening (HTS)

a)

An industrialised process which brings together validated, tractable targets and chemical diversity to rapidly identify novel lead compounds for early phase drug discovery

b)

An industrialised process which brings together unvalidated, tractable targets and chemical diversity to slowly identify novel lead compounds for late phase drug discovery

c)

A database of clinicians who have combined together to create a high functioning work environment spanning across many specialties for the highest level of patient care

d)

A consolidation of clinician notes to allow patients to quickly send information to other organizations for rapid health screenings

44.

How many new drug projects originate from a HTS

a)

50-70%

b)

50-90%

c)

40-60%

d)

40-70%

45.

What is needed for HTS to occur

a)

have validated, tractable targets

b)

HTS assay technologies and automation

c)

chemical diversity

d)

a screening to ensure bioavailability

46.

An HTS can

a)

carry out robotically in well-plates on sub-microgram amounts of compound

b)

can assay 100,000 compounds a day

c)

carry out robotically in well-plates on but needs relatively large amounts of compound

d)

can assay 10,000 compounds a day

47.

What are the different drug sources

a)

natural sources

b)

organic synthesis

c)

genetic engineering

d)

High-Throughput Screening

48.

What are some parts of the drug discovery process

a)

drug metabolism studies

b)

clinical observations

c)

rational design

d)

high-throughput screening

e)

genetic engineering

49.

What are the steps in drug development

a)

genomics and proteomics

b)

drug discovery

c)

drug development

d)

clinical use

50.

During genomics and proteomics, what is target identification seeking

a)

the target is expressed

b)

the target is functional

c)

the target is safe

d)

the target is effective

51.

During drug discovery, during compound screening and preclincial testing of the lead compound, what is being researched

a)

relative efficacy of different agents

b)

species variation

c)

biodistribution/pharmacokinetics

d)

toxicity, safety

e)

validate imaging for subsequent clinical use

52.

During drug development, during Phase 1, 2, & 3 clinical trials, what is being observed

a)

efficacy

b)

safety

c)

human pharmacokinetics

d)

dose adjustment

e)

availability

53.

During clinical use and selling of the drug, what is continued to be monitored

a)

efficacy

b)

dose adjustment

c)

presence of target

d)

use of excipients

54.

Each year, about 10,000 compounds are produced and tested for 12-15 years. After this process, how many compounds are approved to become drugs by the FDA

a)

1

b)

10

c)

1,000

d)

5,000

55.

What is the purpose of pre-clinical testing

a)

to assess the potential of lead compounds as safe and effective therapeutic agents

b)

to assess the potential of lead compounds as ineffective therapeutic agents

c)

to ensure the chances of creating the compound into a drug

d)

to ensure there are no other compounds being made for the same purpose

56.

What are the key components of pre-clinical studies

a)

toxicology studies

b)

pharmacokinetic (ADME) studies

c)

material properties studies (pre-formulation)

d)

clinical trial success

57.

What does toxicology deal with

a)

the adverse or undesired effects of drugs

b)

the poisoning of a person from a drug

c)

the study of bad relationships

58.

What are animal toxicity studies performed to establish

a)

substance's potential toxicity (short term/long term use causing acute/chronic effects)

b)

substance's potential for specific organ toxicity

c)

mode/site/degree of toxicity, dose-response over specified time

d)

gender, reproductive, teratogenic toxicities

e)

carcinogenic and genotoxic potential

59.

Which equation about therapeutic index is correct

a)

therapeutic index = safe drug concentration / effective drug concentration

b)

therapeutic index = effective drug concentration / safe drug concentration

60.

What are preformulation studies performed to understand

a)

the physical and chemical properties of a lead compound to enable the most optimal formulation design

b)

the physical and mechanical properties of a lead compound to enable the most optimal formulation design

c)

the physical and chemical properties of a goal drug to enable the most optimal formulation design

d)

the physical and mechanical properties of a goal drug to enable the most optimal formulation design

61.

What are the properties of interest when it comes to preformulation studies

a)

solubility (less than 10 mg/mL is considered poorly soluble)

b)

partition coefficient (preference for lipid vs aqueous environment)

c)

solid-state form, particle size and morphology

d)

stability (retention of API within dosage form)

e)

dissolution rate (rate a drug dissolves)

62.

What is the next step if the pre-clinical studies is successful

a)

FDA approval is needed to initiate testing in humans

b)

FDA approval is needed to being producing drugs for retail

c)

Testing in humans begins (no approval necessary)

d)

Producing drugs begins (no approval necessary)

63.

What drug formulations are typically used for Phase 1 and Phase 2 clinical trials

a)

initial formulation

b)

final formulation

c)

adjusted formulation

d)

different formulation

64.

Who typically formulates the clinical trial drugs

a)

drug manufacturer

b)

compounding pharmacy

c)

retail pharmacy

d)

specialty pharmacy

65.

How must a clinical trial formulation be prepared

a)

under the conditions and procedures set out by the FDA

b)

loosely following FDA guidelines to find differences in drug compounds

c)

under the conditions and procedures set out by the APhA

d)

under the conditions and procedures set out by the manufacturer

66.

What are capsules filled with during Phase 1 clinical trials

a)

API

b)

Excipients

c)

API + Test Excipients

d)

API + Final Excipients

67.

What phase contains the final dosage form that had been selected during the new drug development process and is submitted to the FDA for approval

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Production

68.

What processes are occurring during the New Chemical Entity process of new drug development

a)

organic synthesis

b)

molecular modification

c)

isolation from plants

d)

biological characterization

e)

Preformulation and Formulation

69.

What processes occur during the Preclincial Studies stage of new drug development

a)

biological characterization

b)

preformulation and formulation

c)

manufacturing & control

d)

package and label design

e)

molecular modification

70.

What application do you apply for after finding a new chemical entity and performing preclinical studies

a)

IND

b)

NDA

c)

ANDA

d)

BLA

71.

Why does a Investigational New Drug (IND) application need to be filed

a)

for the FDA to allow for a clinical investigation of a new drug

b)

for the FDA to approve the production of a final drug product

c)

for the FDA to begin producing the investigational drug

d)

to document the new drug for a patent

72.

What is the goal of an investigational new drug application

a)

to protect the right and safety of the human subjects

b)

to ensure that the investigational plan is coherent and sound

c)

to gain marketing permission for a new drug product in the US

d)

to create a process to collect data after drugs are on the market

73.

After submitting an IND, what types of review does the active ingredient go through

a)

Pharmacology/toxicology review

b)

Chemistry review

c)

Clinical review

d)

Selling potential review

74.

What are the key elements of the IND application process

a)

sufficient data on safety & efficacy

b)

implication on human pharmacology, results from pre-clinical testing

c)

protocols describing clinical studies in detail

d)

manufacture & analysis of chemical composition

e)

describe the qualification of personnel

75.

What are the possible IND review outcomes

a)

No advice

b)

Partial Clinical Hold

c)

Full Clinical Hold

d)

Continue

e)

Pass

76.

If an IND application comes back with no advice, what does that indicate

a)

the IND sponsor can start the clinical trial

b)

the IND sponsor can have a limited study performed

c)

the IND sponsor cannot begin clinical studies until all issues are resolved

d)

the IND sponsor may not continue at all, the danger is too great

77.

Why would there be a clinical hold on an IND application

a)

unreasonable risk

b)

unqualified risk

c)

misleading/incomplete investigator brochure

d)

insufficient information

e)

no potential profit

78.

If an IND application comes back with a partial clinical hold, what does that indicate

a)

the IND sponsor can start the clinical trial

b)

the IND sponsor can have a limited study performed

c)

the IND sponsor cannot begin clinical studies until all issues are resolved

d)

the IND sponsor may not continue at all, the danger is too great

79.

If an IND application comes back with a full clinical hold, what does that indicate

a)

the IND sponsor can start the clinical trial

b)

the IND sponsor can have a limited study performed

c)

the IND sponsor cannot begin clinical studies until all issues are resolved

d)

the IND sponsor may not continue at all, the danger is too great

80.

Right after an IND application receives a "no advice" response, what happens

a)

preclinical trials can begin

b)

a new chemical entity is created

c)

clinical trials can begin

d)

a new drug application is placed

e)

marketing

81.

Which clinical trial phase focuses on human safety

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

82.

Which clinical trial phase focuses on drug effectiveness

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

83.

Which clinical trial phase focuses on the safety, effectiveness, and dosage of a drug

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

84.

Which clinical trial phase is tested on "tens" of participants

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

85.

Which clinical trial phase is tested on "hundreds" of participants

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

86.

Which clinical trial phase is tested on "thousands" of participants

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

87.

Which clinical trial phase takes up to 2 years to complete

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

88.

Which clinical trial phase takes between 1-4 years to complete

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

89.

Which clinical trial phase takes several months to complete

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

90.

Which clinical trial phase has a 70% success rate

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

91.

Which clinical trial phase has a 45% success rate

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

92.

Which clinical trial phase has a 5-10% success rate

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Marketing

93.

What are some characteristics of phase 1 clinical trials

a)

"first time in human" studies

b)

determine pharmacological and metabolic activity and side effects as a function of dose

c)

assess risk/benefits

d)

provide support and information for design of phase 2 studies

e)

begin adding excipients to doses and test its reaction in the body

94.

What are some characteristics of the phase 2 clinical trials

a)

Further evaluate pharmacological effect and test the efficacy of a drug

b)

Further evaluate pharmacological effect and test the potency of a drug

c)

Dose identification & dose response characteristics

d)

Often blinded randomized trials

e)

Often open but randomized trials

95.

What are some characteristics of phase 3 clinical trials?

a)

confirmatory studies

b)

provide additional efficacy and safety information to evaluate the overall benefit-risk relationship of the drug

c)

address special issues (renally/hepatically impaired patients & drug-drug interactions)

d)

blinded randomized trials

e)

continuation of dose identification & dose response

96.

What is the average time it takes the preclinical research and development phase

a)

6.5 years

b)

7 years

c)

1.5 years

d)

15 years

97.

What is the average time it takes the clinical research and development phase

a)

6.5 years

b)

7 years

c)

1.5 years

d)

15 years

98.

What is the average time it takes for the NDA to be approved

a)

6.5 years

b)

7 years

c)

1.5 years

d)

15 years

99.

What is the average time it takes for the drug to go from initial synthesis to approval of NDA

a)

6.5 years

b)

7 years

c)

1.5 years

d)

15 years

100.

After all 3 phases of clinical trials are completed, what application needs to be submitted to move forward in the new drug development

a)

NDA

b)

IND

c)

ANDA

d)

BLA

101.

When can a new drug application (NDA) be filed and what is the goal of an NDA

a)

after 3 phases of clinical investigations show sufficient drug safety and therapeutic effectiveness

b)

after 3 phases of pre-clinical investigations show sufficient drug safety and therapeutic effectiveness

c)

to gain marketing permission for the new drug product in the US

d)

to gain the patent for the new drug product in the US

102.

What are the possible outcomes for an NDA review

a)

Approval Letter

b)

Approvable Letter

c)

Not Approvable Letter

d)

Denial

103.

What does an NDA review approval letter indicate

a)

product ships and becomes public

b)

this could be approved if the specific deficiencies are corrected

c)

FDA can't see how the deficiencies could possibly be corrected

104.

What does an NDA review approvable letter indicate

a)

product ships and becomes public

b)

this could be approved if the specific deficiencies are corrected

c)

FDA can't see how the deficiencies could possibly be corrected

105.

What does an NDA review not approvable letter indicate

a)

product ships and becomes public

b)

this could be approved if the specific deficiencies are corrected

c)

FDA can't see how the deficiencies could possibly be corrected

106.

What is the steps of new drug development

a)

new chemical entity, preclinicial studies, IND, clinical trials, NDA, NDA review, postmarketing

b)

preclinicial studies, new chemical entity, IND, clinical trials, NDA, NDA review, postmarketing

c)

new chemical entity, IND, preclinicial studies, clinical trials, NDA, NDA review, postmarketing

d)

new chemical entity, preclinicial studies, IND, NDA, clinical trials, NDA review, postmarketing

107.

What occurs during phase 4 (postmarketing surveillance)

a)

continued data collection for drugs

b)

adverse drug experiences are reported to the FDA w/in 15 working days of receipt of information

c)

long-term effectiveness, serious & unexpected adverse effects, & drug interactions are monitored

d)

pharmacists must report adverse experiences to FDA's MedWatch program

e)

passively collect data without any true action

108.

What are the different types of new drug applications

a)

IND

b)

NDA

c)

ANDA

d)

BLA

e)

NCE

109.

Which new drug application grants marketing approval of a generic drug product

a)

IND

b)

NDA

c)

ANDA

d)

BLA

e)

NCE

110.

A generic (duplicate) drug product must be comparable to an innovator drug in which aspects

a)

dosage form, strength

b)

intended use

c)

ROA

d)

quality, performance characteristics

e)

color

111.

What must a generic drug going through the ANDA application demonstrate

a)

bioequivalence

b)

higher potency

c)

greater efficacy

d)

decreased toxicity

112.

What phases of clinical trials must a generic drug go through

a)

pre-clinical (animal)

b)

clinical (human)

c)

no clinical trial is required

113.

What are you trying to manufacture/market if you submit a biological license application

a)

blood products

b)

vaccines

c)

toxins

d)

cellular and genetic therapies

e)

intravenous dosage form drugs

114.

Who handles BLAs and why

a)

Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)

b)

The approval process is regulated by specific FDA requirements

c)

Center for Biologics Effectiveness and Research (CBER)

d)

The FDA needs to document the biologic without an extra approval process

115.

What is Orphan Drug Development

a)

a drug development process for a rare disease

b)

a drug development process for those in the foster care system

c)

a single drug produced where no generic will be allowed

116.

During orphan drug development, the same law applies to which process

a)

IND

b)

NDA

c)

BLA

d)

NCE

117.

How many clinical trials are needed during orphan drug development (with exceptions for serious conditions where no other therapy is available)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

118.

During orphan drug development, one trial must have

a)

a clinical end point

b)

a minimal amount of excipients

c)

a stronger API than others on the market

d)

a marketing campaign to increase potential earnings

119.

What are some benefits in developing an orphan drug

a)

7 yr marketing exclusivity

b)

tax credit

c)

research grant

d)

waiver of application fees

e)

gaining profits from the majority of the population switching to this drug

120.

Which of the following applications needs to be filed and approved with the FDA prior to the clinical trial of a new small molecule drug

a)

NDA

b)

IND

c)

ANDA

d)

BLA

121.

Which of the following is the most common source of the modern small molecule drugs

a)

genetic engineering

b)

plants

c)

animals

d)

organic synthesis