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Basic MCQs on Ship Knowledge

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The forward-most part of a ship is called:

a)

Stern

b)

Bow

c)

Beam

d)

Keel

2.

The main backbone of a ship running along its bottom is called:

a)

Deck

b)

Frame

c)

Keel

d)

Bulkhead

3.

Freeboard is the distance between:

a)

Keel and deck

b)

Waterline and deck

c)

Waterline and keel

d)

Mast and keel

4.

Draft of a ship is measured from:

a)

Deck to keel

b)

Waterline to deck

c)

Waterline to keel

d)

Mast to deck

5.

Deadweight of a ship refers to:

a)

Weight of ship only

b)

Cargo carrying capacity

c)

Weight of engine

d)

Displacement at light condition

6.

Which is a watertight vertical partition inside a ship?

a)

Bulkhead

b)

Beam

c)

Frame

d)

Deck

7.

IMO stands for:

a)

International Maritime Organization

b)

International Marine Office

c)

Indian Maritime Office

d)

International Marine Organization

8.

A life buoy must be capable of floating for at least:

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

48 hours

9.

The Plimsoll mark indicates:

a)

Load line

b)

Draft mark

c)

Displacement

d)

Deadweight

10.

The stern of a ship is located:

a)

Forward

b)

Aft

c)

Port

d)

Starboard

11.

The port side of a ship is:

a)

Right side facing forward

b)

Left side facing forward

c)

Rear side

d)

Front side

12.

The main deck of a ship is also called:

a)

Tank top

b)

Weather deck

c)

Poop deck

d)

Bridge deck

13.

A watertight horizontal structure dividing spaces is called:

a)

Bulkhead

b)

Deck

c)

Frame

d)

Keel

14.

The certificate issued under MARPOL is:

a)

Load Line Certificate

b)

IOPP Certificate

c)

Grain Certificate

d)

Safety Construction Certificate

15.

The certificate showing maximum load draft is:

a)

Safety Equipment Certificate

b)

Load Line Certificate

c)

ISM Certificate

d)

DOC Certificate

16.

The poop deck is located:

a)

At the bow

b)

At the stern

c)

Amidships

d)

On the bridge

17.

The mast carries:

a)

Rudder

b)

Radar and navigation lights

c)

Anchor

d)

Propeller

18.

A watertight opening in the deck is called:

a)

Hatch

b)

Scupper

c)

Frame

d)

Deck beam

19.

The propeller is fitted at:

a)

Fore peak

b)

After peak

c)

Amidships

d)

Bridge

20.

A ship's "displacement" means:

a)

Cargo weight only

b)

Total weight of ship and contents

c)

Net tonnage

d)

Engine power

21.

Tonnage of a ship is a measure of:

a)

Weight

b)

Volume

c)

Draft

d)

Speed

22.

Which equipment is used to control a ship's direction?

a)

Anchor

b)

Rudder

c)

Mast

d)

Keel

23.

The emergency steering gear is operated from:

a)

Navigation bridge

b)

Steering gear room

c)

Engine control room

d)

Radio room

24.

The anchor is stowed in:

a)

Poop deck

b)

Forecastle

c)

Tank top

d)

Engine room

25.

Mooring ropes are used for:

a)

Anchoring at sea

b)

Securing ship at berth

c)

Towing other vessels

d)

Emergency steering

26.

A bulk carrier is designed to carry:

a)

Containers

b)

Grain, ore, coal

c)

Oil

d)

Passengers

27.

The ISM Code deals with:

a)

Cargo loading

b)

Safety management

c)

Marine pollution

d)

Ship stability

28.

A vessel not under command shows:

a)

Two red lights in vertical line

b)

Two green lights in vertical line

c)

One white light

d)

Three red lights in vertical line

29.

The device used to measure ship speed through water is:

a)

Radar

b)

Echo sounder

c)

Log

d)

GPS

30.

The device used to measure depth of water is:

a)

Echo sounder

b)

Gyro compass

c)

Radar

d)

Sextant

31.

The load line ensures:

a)

Ship stability

b)

Ship is not overloaded

c)

Safe speed

d)

Emergency steering

32.

Which document certifies crew training and drills?

a)

Muster list

b)

DOC

c)

Safety Management Certificate

d)

Logbook

33.

The keel is laid at:

a)

Shipyard during construction

b)

Drydock repairs

c)

Voyage start

d)

Cargo loading

34.

Double bottom tanks are used for:

a)

Fresh water and ballast

b)

Cargo only

c)

Air storage

d)

Life-saving appliances

35.

The forecastle deck is located:

a)

Amidships

b)

Forward

c)

Aft

d)

On bridge deck

36.

A watertight transverse division is:

a)

Frame

b)

Bulkhead

c)

Deck beam

d)

Mast

37.

Which one is NOT part of the hull?

a)

Keel

b)

Frame

c)

Deck

d)

Radar

38.

GMDSS deals with:

a)

Cargo securing

b)

Radio communications and distress safety

c)

Stability of ship

d)

Marine pollution

39.

The term "amidships" means:

a)

Near the bow

b)

Near the stern

c)

Middle portion of the ship

d)

Below the keel

40.

SOLAS Convention mainly deals with:

a)

Safety of Life at Sea

b)

Pollution prevention

c)

Ship construction

d)

Insurance rules

41.

Towage factor is expressed in:

a)

Cubic feet per ton

b)

Tons per cubic feet

c)

Tons per cubic meter

d)

Gallons per ton

42.

The process of separating cargo by port of discharge is called:

a)

Stowage

b)

Segregation

c)

Ballasting

d)

Mooring

43.

Dunnage is used for:

a)

Preventing cargo shifting and damage

b)

Measuring cargo weight

c)

Reducing freeboard

d)

Mooring

44.

Cargo plan is prepared by:

a)

Chief Engineer

b)

Chief Officer

c)

Bosun

d)

Second Officer

45.

A ship's stability during cargo operations is ensured by:

a)

Mooring lines

b)

Ballast management

c)

Anchor handling

d)

Rudder control

46.

Grain stability is reduced because:

a)

Grain is liquid

b)

Grain shifts and settles

c)

Grain evaporates

d)

Grain absorbs water

47.

Grain shifting is controlled by:

a)

Refrigeration

b)

Shifting boards and trimming

c)

Double bottom tanks

d)

Containerization

48.

The International Grain Code ensures:

a)

Fire safety

b)

Ship stability when carrying grain

c)

Dangerous cargo handling

d)

Fresh water supply

49.

Which cargo can liquefy at sea?

a)

Steel

b)

Iron ore fines / bauxite

c)

Timber

d)

Containers

50.

The angle of repose refers to:

a)

Cargo trimming angle

b)

Maximum slope of bulk cargo without sliding

c)

Draft angle of the ship

d)

Mooring line tension angle

51.

IMDG Code refers to:

a)

International Maritime Dangerous Goods

b)

International Marine Draft Guide

c)

International Material Data Group

d)

International Maritime Discharge Guide

52.

Cargo with explosive hazard belongs to:

a)

Class 2

b)

Class 1

c)

Class 3

d)

Class 9

53.

Petroleum products fall under:

a)

IMDG Class 1

b)

IMDG Class 2

c)

IMDG Class 3

d)

IMDG Class 4

54.

The MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) is carried for:

a)

Engine stores

b)

Cargo chemicals

c)

Paint

d)

Fresh water

55.

The code for liquefied gas carriers is:

a)

IBC Code

b)

IGC Code

c)

ISM Code

d)

ISPS Code

56.

The inert gas system is used to:

a)

Cool the tanks

b)

Prevent explosion in tankers

c)

Pump oil faster

d)

Reduce ship draft

57.

Closed loading system on tankers helps:

a)

Faster loading

b)

Prevent escape of vapors

c)

Increase tank temperature

d)

Reduce ballast

58.

Crude oil washing (COW) is used for:

a)

Cleaning cargo tanks with crude oil

b)

Ballasting

c)

Separating cargo

d)

Pumping out residues

59.

TEU means:

a)

Twenty-foot Equivalent Unit

b)

Total Equipment Unit

c)

Tonne Equivalent Unit

d)

Twenty-ton Equivalent Unit

60.

Container securing devices include:

a)

Lashings and twist-locks

b)

Dunnage and tarpaulins

c)

Hatch covers

d)

Ballast tanks

61.

Reefer containers are used for:

a)

Bulk liquids

b)

Refrigerated cargo

c)

Dangerous goods

d)

Timber

62.

Overloaded containers can cause:

a)

Trim correction

b)

Stack collapse

c)

Increased ballast

d)

Faster operations

63.

Container Code is published by:

a)

IMO

b)

ILO

c)

ICS

d)

MARPOL

64.

Timber deck cargo must be:

a)

Secured and lashed properly

b)

Carried in holds only

c)

Not carried at sea

d)

Trimmed like grain

65.

The danger with coal cargo is:

a)

Freezing

b)

Spontaneous combustion

c)

Rusting

d)

Evaporation

66.

Reefer cargoes include:

a)

Steel

b)

Meat, fish, fruits

c)

Grain

d)

Containers

67.

Heavy-lift cargo is generally carried:

a)

On deck

b)

In lower holds with strong beams

c)

Only in containers

d)

In ballast tanks

68.

Hazard of carrying cement in bulk:

a)

Liquefaction

b)

Setting if wet

c)

Combustion

d)

Rust

69.

SWL of cargo gear means:

a)

Safety Working Load

b)

Standard Weight Load

c)

Secure Weight Limit

d)

Safe Water Line

70.

Before cargo operations, the main document checked is:

a)

ISM certificate

b)

Cargo manifest

c)

Grain certificate

d)

Load line certificate

71.

Ship's derricks and cranes are tested:

a)

Annually

b)

Once every 5 years

c)

Before delivery only

d)

Monthly

72.

Hatch covers must be checked for:

a)

Water tightness

b)

Compass error

c)

Radar operation

d)

Propeller clearance

73.

Cargo gear register is called:

a)

Oil record book

b)

Chain register

c)

Logbook

d)

Ballast record book

74.

Cargo ventilation is needed to:

a)

Prevent sweat damage

b)

Cool engines

c)

Reduce freeboard

d)

Increase draft

75.

Cargo sweat occurs when:

a)

Cold cargo meets warm moist air

b)

Hot cargo cools rapidly

c)

Ballast is changed

d)

Hatch covers leak

76.

Ship sweat occurs when:

a)

Warm cargo meets cold ship's structure

b)

Cargo liquefies

c)

Hull cracks

d)

Tank is ballasted

77.

Cargo securing manual is approved by:

a)

Flag state

b)

Charterer

c)

Shipyard

d)

Cargo owner

78.

The BL (Bill of Lading) is a document of:

a)

Cargo ownership, receipt, and contract of carriage

b)

Ship registry

c)

Port clearance

d)

ISM certification

79.

The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is:

a)

Thermometer

b)

Barometer

c)

Hygrometer

d)

Anemometer

80.

The instrument used to measure wind speed is:

a)

Barometer

b)

Anemometer

c)

Hygrometer

d)

Thermometer

81.

The instrument used to measure humidity is:

a)

Anemometer

b)

Thermometer

c)

Hygrometer

d)

Barograph

82.

The thermometer used to measure sea surface temperature is:

a)

Clinical thermometer

b)

Sling thermometer

c)

Bucket thermometer

d)

Digital thermometer

83.

The unit of atmospheric pressure commonly used in marine meteorology is:

a)

Bar or hPa

b)

mm of mercury only

c)

Pascal only

d)

Knot

84.

Isobars are lines joining points of equal:

a)

Temperature

b)

Wind speed

c)

Pressure

d)

Humidity

85.

A sudden fall in barometer usually indicates:

a)

Fine weather

b)

Approaching storm

c)

Decreasing wind

d)

Clear sky

86.

Coriolis force is caused by:

a)

Gravity

b)

Earth's rotation

c)

Solar heating

d)

Friction

87.

In the Northern Hemisphere, winds around a low-pressure area blow:

a)

Clockwise, inward

b)

Anticlockwise, inward

c)

Clockwise, outward

d)

Anticlockwise, outward

88.

In the Southern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate:

a)

Clockwise

b)

Anticlockwise

c)

Variable

d)

None

89.

High, wispy clouds are called:

a)

Stratus

b)

Cumulus

c)

Cirrus

d)

Nimbus

90.

Thunderstorms are associated with:

a)

Cumulonimbus clouds

b)

Cirrus clouds

c)

Stratus clouds

d)

Altostratus clouds

91.

Low, grey uniform cloud layers are:

a)

Stratus

b)

Cumulus

c)

Cirrus

d)

Nimbostratus

92.

Cloud type indicating fair weather is:

a)

Cumulus

b)

Cirrus

c)

Stratus

d)

Nimbostratus

93.

Precipitation from dark rain clouds comes from:

a)

Cumulus

b)

Nimbostratus

c)

Cirrus

d)

Altocumulus

94.

Beaufort scale is used to measure:

a)

Air temperature

b)

Wave height

c)

Wind speed

d)

Humidity

95.

Beaufort scale force 0 means:

a)

Calm

b)

Gentle breeze

c)

Strong wind

d)

Hurricane

96.

Beaufort force 12 indicates:

a)

Gale

b)

Storm

c)

Hurricane

d)

Breeze

97.

A tropical cyclone is also known as:

a)

Tornado or dust storm

b)

Typhoon or hurricane

c)

Monsoon

d)

Blizzard

98.

The eye of a tropical cyclone has:

a)

Light winds and calm weather

b)

Maximum wind speed

c)

Heavy rain only

d)

Lowest humidity

99.

Fog forms when:

a)

Air cools below dew point

b)

Air heats rapidly

c)

Pressure increases

d)

Wind speed increases

100.

Fog occurring over warm water in cold air is:

a)

Radiation fog

b)

Advection fog

c)

Steam fog

d)

Frontal fog

101.

Fog occurring over land during calm nights is:

a)

Radiation fog

b)

Advection fog

c)

Steam fog

d)

Haze

102.

Mist differs from fog by:

a)

Temperature

b)

Visibility (greater than 1,000 m)

c)

Pressure

d)

Wind speed

103.

Haze is caused by:

a)

Dust or smoke in the air

b)

Cold water

c)

Warm winds

d)

Snowfall

104.

Trade winds blow from:

a)

East to west

b)

West to east

c)

North to south

d)

South to north

105.

The doldrums are located:

a)

Near the poles

b)

Near the equator with calm weather

c)

Mid-latitudes

d)

Over deserts

106.

Monsoons are seasonal winds mainly affecting:

a)

Europe

b)

Indian Ocean region

c)

Arctic

d)

North America

107.

The Indian southwest monsoon begins in:

a)

March

b)

June

c)

September

d)

December

108.

Westerly winds are found mainly in:

a)

Equatorial regions

b)

Mid-latitudes

c)

Polar regions

d)

Tropics

109.

A front is a boundary between:

a)

Two pressure systems

b)

Two air masses of different properties

c)

Ocean currents

d)

Cloud layers

110.

Cold fronts usually bring:

a)

Long, steady rain

b)

Sudden heavy showers and thunderstorms

c)

No weather change

d)

Only fog

111.

Warm fronts bring:

a)

Clear skies

b)

Long continuous rainfall

c)

Hailstorms only

d)

Dust storms

112.

An occluded front occurs when:

a)

Cold front overtakes a warm front

b)

Warm front overtakes a cold front

c)

Winds reverse direction

d)

Two cold fronts meet

113.

Stationary fronts are:

a)

Fast-moving

b)

Boundaries that don't move significantly

c)

Always warm

d)

Always cold

114.

A cyclone is a region of:

a)

High pressure with outward winds

b)

Low pressure with inward winds

c)

Calm weather

d)

High temperature

115.

An anticyclone is a region of:

a)

Low pressure, bad weather

b)

High pressure, fair weather

c)

Low temperature

d)

Only fog

116.

The ITCZ (Intertropical Convergence Zone) is associated with:

a)

Strong storms and calms near equator

b)

Polar lows

c)

Westerlies

d)

Jet streams

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