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Cardiology Quiz

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a consequence of atrioventricular (AV) dyssynchrony?

a)

Increased left ventricular ejection fraction

b)

Delay between atrial and ventricular contractions

c)

Normal mitral regurgitation

d)

Coordinated left ventricular contraction

2.

Interventricular dyssynchrony is associated with which condition?

a)

Right bundle branch block (RBBB)

b)

Left bundle branch block (LBBB)

c)

Atrial fibrillation (AF)

d)

Ventricular tachycardia (VT)

3.

What is typically observed in intraventricular dyssynchrony?

a)

Increased systolic function

b)

Normal sequence of activation and contraction of the left ventricular wall

c)

Decreased systolic function

d)

Coordinated contraction of the left ventricular wall

4.

What does CRT stand for in the context of the provided material?

a)

Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy

b)

Coronary Resonance Technology

c)

Cardiac Rhythm Treatment

d)

Coronary Restoration Technique

5.

Where are the leads of a CRT device placed?

a)

RA, RV, and LV

b)

RA, LA, and LV

c)

RA, RV, and LA

d)

RV, LV, and coronary sinus

6.

For which patients is CRT pacing (CRT-P) recommended?

a)

Patients with heart failure and no significant symptoms

b)

Patients with heart failure and significant symptoms including a wide QRS and a high LV ejection fraction

c)

Patients with heart failure and significant symptoms including a narrow QRS and a low LV ejection fraction

d)

Patients with heart failure and significant symptoms including a wide QRS and a low LV ejection fraction

7.

What is the purpose of CRT pacing (CRT-P) devices?

a)

To decrease cardiac function

b)

To monitor heart rate

c)

To improve cardiac function by resynchronizing atrial, RV and LV function

d)

To replace the natural pacemaker of the heart

8.

What can be evaluated using M-mode or spectral Doppler approaches according to the image?

a)

The function of the pacemaker

b)

The blood pressure levels

c)

Dyssynchrony in the timing of RV and LV contraction

d)

The electrical activity of the heart

9.

What is the result of changing the atrioventricular time interval from 100 ms to 180 ms?

a)

Decreases LV filling

b)

Improves LV filling

c)

Has no effect on LV filling

d)

Worsens heart rhythm

10.

What is shown in the parasternal short-axis views in the image?

a)

LV at end-systole

b)

RV at end-diastole

c)

LV at end-diastole

d)

RV at end-systole

11.

What is the outcome of reverse remodelling following CRT as depicted in the image?

a)

Deterioration of heart function

b)

No change in heart structure

c)

Improvement in blood flow

d)

Changes in LV size and function

12.

What type of flow do current devices provide according to the text?

a)

Pulsatile flow

b)

Continuous flow

c)

Oscillatory flow

d)

Intermittent flow

13.

Where is the blood taken into the device from?

a)

The descending aorta

b)

The right ventricle

c)

The LV apex

d)

The pulmonary artery

14.

Into which part of the heart is the blood pumped back?

a)

The right atrium

b)

The ascending aorta

c)

The pulmonary vein

d)

The left atrium

15.

During the cardiac cycle, what may happen to the aortic valve as a result of the device's operation?

a)

It may remain open throughout the cycle

b)

It may remain closed throughout the cycle

c)

It may become damaged and non-functional

d)

It may oscillate more rapidly than normal

16.

What is the primary use of LVADs in patients with acute heart failure?

a)

To reduce blood pressure

b)

To maintain a normal cardiac output until myocardial recovery or heart transplant

c)

To increase heart rate

d)

To cure heart failure

17.

LVADs may also be used for:

a)

Short-term support only

b)

Long-term support where recovery or transplantation is not likely to occur

c)

Immediate heart transplantation

d)

Reducing cholesterol levels

18.

What can result from excessively high flow rates in LVADs?

a)

Decreased blood pressure

b)

Cannula obstruction due to a small LV chamber impinging on the inflow cannula orifice

c)

Increased risk of infections

d)

Reduced need for medication

19.

Which of the following complications can be detected in patients with an LVAD?

a)

Kidney stones

b)

Pericardial tamponade

c)

Stroke

d)

Bone fractures

20.

Why is echocardiographic evaluation of patients with a total artificial heart limited?

a)

The pumping chambers of the artificial heart are made of metal.

b)

The artificial heart does not have pumping chambers.

c)

The pumping chambers of the artificial heart are plastic and do not allow acoustic access.

d)

The echocardiographic equipment is incompatible with artificial hearts.

21.

Which imaging technique is mentioned as having limited views for visualizing the RA and LA in patients with a total artificial heart?

a)

MRI

b)

CT scan

c)

TEE imaging

d)

X-ray

22.

What is one of the goals of echocardiographic evaluation after cardiac transplantation?

a)

Assessment of cardiac anatomy and physiology prompted by a specific clinical problem

b)

Determining the blood type compatibility between donor and recipient

c)

Predicting the long-term survival rate of the patient

d)

Measuring the cholesterol levels of the patient

23.

What is a noninvasive diagnosis related to echocardiographic evaluation after cardiac transplantation?

4 lines
24.

What is a characteristic feature of the bi-atrial technique in cardiac transplant as seen on echocardiographic appearance?

a)

Smaller atria with no visible suture lines

b)

Larger atria with no visible suture lines

c)

Smaller atria with prominent suture lines

d)

Larger atria with prominent suture lines

25.

What is an indicator of severe acute transplant rejection?

a)

Decreased LV mass

b)

Increased systolic function

c)

Decrease in the echogenicity of the myocardium

d)

Increased LV mass, decreased systolic function, and an increase in the echogenicity of the myocardium

26.

Which of the following is a Doppler change associated with acute rejection?

a)

Increased pressure half-time

b)

Increased isovolumetric relaxation time

c)

Decreased E velocity

d)

Decreased isovolumetric relaxation time

27.

What constitutes a significant change in Doppler measurements indicative of acute rejection when compared to the patient's own baseline study?

4 lines
28.

How does transplant coronary disease differ from typical atherosclerosis?

a)

It is less severe.

b)

It is accompanied by a reduced form of intimal hyperplasia.

c)

It is accompanied by an accelerated form of intimal hyperplasia.

d)

It does not involve the coronary arteries.

29.

What is considered more accurate for the patient population with post-transplant coronary artery disease?

a)

Routine physical examination

b)

Coronary angiography

c)

Dobutamine stress echocardiography

d)

Magnetic resonance imaging

30.

What may be needed for a definitive diagnosis of post-transplant coronary artery disease?

a)

Echocardiography alone

b)

Coronary angiography with concurrent intravascular ultrasound examination

c)

Blood tests

d)

Electrocardiogram

31.

What is a chronic cause of Pulmonary Heart Disease?

a)

Pulmonary emboli

b)

High-velocity tricuspid regurgitant jet velocity

c)

Intrinsic lung disease

d)

Mid-systolic notching in the pulmonary artery velocity curve

32.

What is an acute cause of Pulmonary Heart Disease?

a)

Primary pulmonary hypertension

b)

Pulmonary emboli

c)

RV enlargement

d)

Secondary TR

33.

Which of the following is a result of chronic pressure overload in Pulmonary Heart Disease?

a)

High-velocity tricuspid regurgitant jet velocity

b)

RVH (RV hypertrophy)

c)

Mid-systolic notching in the pulmonary artery velocity curve

d)

Pulmonary emboli

34.

What does RA enlargement stand for in the context of Pulmonary Heart Disease?

a)

Renal Artery enlargement

b)

Right Atrium enlargement

c)

Respiratory Alveoli enlargement

d)

Radial Artery enlargement

35.

What is a compensatory mechanism of the right ventricle (RV) in response to chronic pressure overload?

a)

RV contractility improves

b)

RV compensatory hypertrophy

c)

RV systolic function deteriorates

d)

RA compensatory hypertrophy

36.

Which condition is indicated by the presence of a mid-systolic notch in the PR flow pattern?

a)

RV compensatory hypertrophy

b)

Moderate to Severe TR

c)

RA enlargement

d)

Chronic Pressure Overload

37.

What is the consequence of chronic pressure overload on the right ventricle's systolic function?

a)

It improves over time

b)

It remains stable

c)

It deteriorates

d)

It becomes hyperactive

38.

What does "Moderate to Severe TR" refer to in the context of chronic pressure overload?

a)

Tricuspid regurgitation

b)

Thyroid response

c)

Tissue repair

d)

Transient relaxation

39.

What is the result of chronic pressure overload on the size of the right atrium (RA)?

a)

RA contraction

b)

RA reduction

c)

RA enlargement

d)

RA stabilization

40.

What does PASP stand for in the context of pulmonary pressures?

a)

Pulmonary artery systolic pressure

b)

Pulmonary artery standard pressure

c)

Pulmonary artery segmental pressure

d)

Pulmonary artery saturation pressure

41.

What is the formula for estimating PASP?

a)

PASP = RVSP + RAP

b)

PASP = 4Vmax + RAP

c)

PASP = RVSP = 4Vmax + RAP

d)

PASP = RVSP / RAP

42.

According to the ASE Guidelines, what is the estimated RA pressure if the IVC diameter is normal (≤2.1 cm) and decreases more than 50% with a sniff?

a)

3 mm Hg

b)

8 mm Hg

c)

15 mm Hg

d)

5-10 mm Hg

43.

If the IVC diameter is dilated (>2.1 cm) and decreases less than 50% with a sniff, what is the RA pressure estimate according to the table?

a)

0-5 mm Hg

b)

5-10 mm Hg

c)

10-15 mm Hg

d)

15-20 mm Hg

44.

What does the abbreviation RAP stand for, as used in the context of the image?

a)

Right atrial pressure

b)

Right arterial pulse

c)

Right atrium pace

d)

Right artery pressure

45.

What does the abbreviation RVSP stand for, as used in the context of the image?

a)

Right ventricle systolic pressure

b)

Right ventricle standard pressure

c)

Right ventricular segmental pressure

d)

Right ventricular saturation pressure

46.

What does M-mode recording through the pulmonic valve show as an indirect sign of pulmonary hypertension?

a)

Increased a-wave and mid-systolic opening of the valve

b)

Reduced a-wave and mid-systolic closure of the valve

c)

Constant a-wave and early diastolic closure of the valve

d)

Enhanced a-wave and late diastolic opening of the valve

47.

What does the Doppler velocity curve indicate about the flow in the context of pulmonary hypertension?

a)

Gradual mid-systolic acceleration of flow

b)

Steady mid-systolic flow without deceleration

c)

Abrupt mid-systolic deceleration of flow

d)

Late systolic acceleration of flow

48.

Which of the following is consistent with severe pulmonary hypertension as indicated by the Doppler velocity curve?

a)

Slow acceleration and late systolic notching

b)

Rapid acceleration and mid-systolic notching

c)

Gradual acceleration and early diastolic notching

d)

Steady velocity and late diastolic notching

49.

What is the response of the right ventricle (RV) to chronic pressure overload?

a)

Atrophy

b)

Hypertrophy and dilation

c)

Stenosis

d)

Ischemia

50.

In which view is the right ventricular overload best seen?

a)

Apical four-chamber view

b)

Subcostal view

c)

Parasternal long-axis view

d)

Parasternal short-axis view

51.

What is observed in the septum during M-mode and 2D imaging in the case of right ventricular hypertrophy?

a)

Paradoxical Septal Motion

b)

Normal Septal Motion

c)

Septal Hypertrophy

d)

Septal Atrophy

52.

How is RV volume overload characterized in diastole?

a)

Diastolic flattening of the septum with a normal curvature in systole

b)

Systolic flattening of the septum with a normal curvature in diastole

c)

Diastolic bulging of the septum with a reduced curvature in systole

d)

Systolic bulging of the septum with a reduced curvature in diastole

53.

What cardiac phase is represented in the left image of the ultrasound?

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

c)

Atrial contraction

d)

Ventricular ejection

54.

What cardiac phase is represented in the right image of the ultrasound?

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

c)

Atrial contraction

d)

Ventricular ejection

55.

What can occur with long-standing or acute pulmonary hypertension?

a)

RV systolic improvement

b)

LV systolic dysfunction

c)

RV systolic dysfunction

d)

LA systolic dysfunction

56.

What is a compensatory mechanism to maintain forward stroke volume in the context of RV systolic dysfunction?

a)

RV dilation

b)

LV dilation

c)

RA dilation

d)

LA dilation

57.

What leads to tricuspid regurgitation in the context of RV dilation?

a)

Annular dilation and malalignment of the papillary muscles

b)

Annular constriction and realignment of the papillary muscles

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Aortic valve stenosis

58.

Secondary tricuspid regurgitation is a result of which type of overload?

a)

Pressure overload

b)

Volume overload

c)

Thermal overload

d)

Electrical overload

59.

RA dilation is due to both pressure and what other factor?

(a)