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Earth and Space - Review(273pts.)

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 3hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mountain ranges located on both side of the Atlantic Ocean

a)

are the same height and width.

b)

have the same rock types, structures and ages.

c)

have ancient fossils and coal seams.

d)

are just separate mountain ranges.

2.

What was Wegener’s continental drift idea?

a)

The continents have moved slowly apart to their current locations.

b)

The continents have always been located at their current locations.

c)

The continents are moving slowly together from their current locations.

d)

None of these

3.

True or False-Similar fossil records across continents is evidence for continental drift.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Alfred Wegener named his single supercontinent ____________, which means "all Earth" in ancient Greek.

a)

Pandora

b)

Gandowandaland

c)

Pangea

d)

Percia

5.

The remains or traces of ancient life are called ____________.

a)

bones

b)

remanents

c)

fossils

d)

none of the above

6.

This is a picture of glacier scars found in Africa.  What are these evidence for?

a)

Africa has always been near the equator

b)

Africa was once in an area of the Earth that had a very cold climate

c)

The continents have not moved

d)

sea floor spreading

7.

According to the continental drift hypothesis, the presence of similar fossils in South America and Africa supports which scientific idea?

a)

Animals easily and frequently travel from Africa to South America.

b)

Species of animals probably traveled between continents on natural rafts (such as trees destroyed in tsunamis).

c)

Land bridges once existed that connected the continents.

d)

South America and Africa were once connected together.

8.

Which type of evidence was NOT used by Alfred Wegener to support his continental drift hypothesis?

a)

evidence from fossils

b)

evidence from human remains

c)

evidence from climates

d)

evidence from landforms

9.

Order the pictures of Pangaea from oldest to present day.

a)

b)

c)

d)

1)
2)
3)
4)
10.

When we observe the same reptile fossil in two places, we infer ___.

a)

The reptile flew to a new habitat.

b)

The habitats used to be near each other.

c)

Someone buried the fossils in a new place to trick us.

11.

Label the parts of the plate boundary

12.

Label the parts of this plate boundary.

13.

Label each plate boundary.

14.

Hypothesis that states that the continents once formed a single landmass then broke apart:

a)

continental drift

b)

seafloor spreading

c)

plate tectonics

d)

convection currents

15.

Continental crust is ​ (a)   and ​ (b)   dense than oceanic crust.

Choose from the below words

thicker

less

thinner

more

16.

Match the scientist with their contribution

a)

Alfred Wegener

1.

Proposed the continental drift theory

b)

Marie Tharp

2.

Created the first scientific map of the sea floor

c)

Harry Hess

3.

Used SONAR images to explain the mechanism behind continental drift

17.

Match the landform that is found at each boundary

a)

Continental-continental convergent

1.

Mountains

b)

Continental-oceanic convergent

2.

Continental volcano arc

c)

Oceanic-oceanic convergent

3.

Volcanic island arc

d)

Continental-continental divergent

4.

Rift valley

e)

Oceanic-oceanic divergent

5.

Mid-ocean ridge

18.

What plate boundary is most responsible for earthquakes?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

19.

The Himalayan mountains formed at which type of boundary?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

20.

The Great African Rift Valley formed at which type of boundary?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

21.

The San Andreas Fault formed at which type of boundary?

a)

Convergent boundary

b)

Divergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

22.

Convection currents in the mantle are caused by differences in temperature and ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words

density

mass

composition

pressure

23.

At subduction zones, plates ​ (a)   and ​ ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words

converge

one is pushed under and destroyed

diverge apart

new crust is created

slide past each other

form mountains

24.

Continents were once joined together in a single large landmass called what?

a)

Panthalassa

b)

Gondwana

c)

Pangaea

d)

Laurasia

25.

Which of the follow is not evidence of sea-floor spreading?

a)

Paleomagnetism

b)

Mountain Ranges

c)

Earthquake Patterns

d)

Ages of ocean floor rock

26.

Why do most earthquakes occur along plate boundaries?

a)

At many divergent boundaries, subduction occurs.

b)

The crust at plate boundaries is brittle and weak.

c)

Stress accumulates in rocks where plates collide, separate, or slide past one another.

d)

At many convergent boundaries, rifting occurs.

27.

The __ is the point of origin of an earthquake.

a)

aftershock

b)

viscosity

c)

epicenter

d)

focus

28.

Rocks release strain energy and move along a(n) __ during an earthquake.

a)

volcano

b)

focus

c)

epicenter

d)

fault

29.

Match the following

a)

1.

P-waves

b)

2.

S-waves

c)

3.

Surface or Long waves

30.

The sudden release of strain energy along a fault is called __.

a)

epicenter

b)

distribution

c)

Richter Scale

d)

Elastic rebound

31.

Match the following based on the description given

a)

1.

(Body wave) - Solid, Liquid and Gas

b)

2.

(Body wave) - Solid only

c)

3.

(Surface wave) - Surface only

32.

A seismic wave boundary marking an abrupt change in rock density is __.

a)

Divergent boundary

b)

Convergent boundary

c)

Transform boundary

d)

Discontinuity

33.

The __ is a plastic-like layer upon which Earth's lithospheric plates move.

a)

asthenosphere

b)

lower mantle

c)

lithosphere

d)

outer core

34.

A __ zone is a "dead zone" between 105 and 140 degrees from an earthquake's epicenter, where nothing is recorded on a seismograph.

a)

wave

b)

seismic

c)

shadow

d)

dark

35.

Why do scientists speculate the inner core is composed of iron and nickel?

a)

The densest materials settled toward the core.

b)

Iron and Nickel are the most abundant elements on the Earth.

c)

It is impossible to speculate the core's composition.

d)

Iron and Nickel are only stable under high temperature pressure environments.

36.

The outer core of Earth is __.

a)

silicate

b)

gaseous

c)

solid

d)

liquid

37.

Which occurs when a change in speed causes a wave

to bend and change direction?

a)

Reflection

b)

Referendum

c)

Refraction

d)

Reformation

38.

According to the Image, which layer is directly on top of the Asthenosphere?

a)

Upper Mantle

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Oceanic Crust

d)

Inner Core

39.

Reorder the following from OUTERMOST (Left) to INNERMOST (Right)

a)

Crust

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Asthenosphere

d)

Lower Mantle

e)

Outer Core

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
40.

Click on the 1. NAME and 2. PICTURE of Earth that is solid metal. [click on 1 word and 1 picture]

41.

True or False: Earthquakes can help scientists understand Earth's Interior

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Earth's Inner core is solid because of the extreme ______ at the center of the Earth.

a)

Thermal Energy

b)

Heat

c)

Convection

d)

Pressure

43.

A valley formed as a rapid river cuts rapidly through sediment and rock is a​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words

V-Shaped

U-Shaped

S-Shaped

44.

A root that cracks a rock as it grows is an example of
​ (a)  

Choose from the below words

Mechanical Weathering

Chemical Weathering

45.

Match each sediment transport process to one of its resulting landforms.

a)

Running Water

1.

V-Shaped valley

b)

Glacier

2.

U-Shaped valley

c)

Wind

3.

Dunes

d)

Wave Action

4.

Sea Stacks

e)

Mass Wasting

5.

Slumps

46.


What is the name of the process where surface materials are dropped by an erosional agent like water or wind?

a)

infiltration

b)

Deposition

c)

Mechanical Weathering

d)

Sediment Transport

47.

What is true of erosional forces? (2 points)

a)

They build landforms.

b)

They do not affect landforms

c)

They destroy landforms

48.

What is erosion?

a)

The process of wearing away or breaking down of rocks, soil, or other materials on the Earth's surface by natural forces such as water, wind, or ice.

b)

The process of removing rocks, soil, or other materials from one place to another on the Earth's surface by natural forces such as water, wind, or ice.

c)

The process of melting rocks, soil, or other materials on the Earth's surface by natural forces such as water, wind, or ice.

d)

The process of warping Earth through solar winds or other extra terrestrial forces on the Earth's surface by unnatural forces.

49.

The process in which sediments are dropped when an erosional agent slows down or melts is called

(a)  

50.

​ (a)   ​ (b)   ​ (c)   ​ and ​ (d)   can all cause changes to the landscape.

Choose from the below words

Water

Wind

Glaciers

Gravity

Inner Core

Outer Core

Lunar Cycles

Cellular Service

Pythons in the Everglades

Photosynthesis

51.

Plant root grow in a rock and cause it to split.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

52.

A fast-moving river carries rocks downstream.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

53.

Waves dropping sand on the beach.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

54.

Flood water pounds against a wall and wears it down.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

55.

Wind blowing sand from one location to another.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

56.

Layers of sediment forming at the bottom of the ocean.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

57.

Rainwater enters the cracks of a rock, freeze, and causes the rock to break apart.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

58.

The soil from a hillside is washed away by rain.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

59.

Sand is dropped when the wind stops blowing and forms sand dunes.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

60.

Fast running water causes rocks to hit one another breaking them into smaller rocks.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

61.

A mudslide flowing down a steep hill.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

62.

When glaciers melt, they drop the rocks they were carrying.

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

63.

Rocks get ​ (a)   by weathering, ​ (b)   through erosion, and ​ (c)   somewhere else through deposition.

Choose from the below words
broken down
moved
deposited or dropped
64.

Water, wind, ice, and gravity are all causes of weathering.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

Erosion is the process by which water, ice, wind, or gravity move pieces of rock and soil.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

66.

Deposition is the dropping of sediment by wind, water, ice, or gravity.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

67.

Atmosphere layers end with...

a)

tude

b)

sphere

c)

pause

d)

ology

68.

78% of troposphere gas is...

a)

argon

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

69.

Solar radiation is a type of ___________.

a)

energy

b)

matter

70.

A greenhouse gas

a)

reflects heat energy

b)

absorbs heat energy

71.

The atmosphere is divided into layers based on

(a)  

Choose from the below words

temperature

water amount

gasses

72.

Reorder the following layers from the Earth's surface up:

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

e)

exosphere

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
73.

Weather happens in the

a)

exosphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

hydrosphere

d)

troposphere

74.

Which gas in the stratosphere absorbs harmful ultraviolet light?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen gas

c)

ozone

d)

arbon

75.

Reorder the following troposphere gasses from the largest percent[on the LEFT] to the least [on the RIGHT]

a)

Nitrogen gas

b)

Oxygen gas

c)

Argon

d)

Greenhouse gasses

1)
2)
3)
4)
76.

The boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere is the ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words

tropopause

mesopause

stratopause

77.

The temperature of each atmospheric layer depends on the ______ of the sun's energy.

(2 Points)

a)

reflection

b)

ejection

c)

absorption

d)

diffusion

78.

Which is not a trace gas?

a)

Argon

b)

Ozone

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

79.

A temperature __ is an increase of temperature with altitude, resulting in very stable air that resists the rising needed for cloud formation or dispersal.

a)

Inversion

b)

Structure

c)

Aversion

d)

Front

80.

__ is energy released or absorbed during the phase changes of water, such as evaporating water or melting snow.

a)

Greenhouse Effect

b)

Latent Heat

c)

Urban Heat Island

d)

Coriolis Effect

81.

Match the following Cloud images to the name.

a)

1.

Cirrus Clouds

b)

2.

Cumulus Clouds

c)

3.

Stratus Clouds

82.

Where does the Hydrosphere interact with the geosphere?

(3 points)

83.

Where does the water on Earth turn from Saltwater to Freshwater?

84.

Using the model, show where transferred energy is being "trapped" by greenhouse gasses.

85.

Match the following

a)

Forms over Land

1.

Continental

b)

Forms over the Ocean or Sea

2.

Maritime

c)

Forms over a cold region

3.

Polar

d)

Forms over warm region

4.

Tropical

86.

Which climate zone has great ranges in temperature and little ocean influence?

a)

continental climate

b)

maritime climate

c)

La Niña

d)

El Niño

87.

What is the cryosphere?

a)

liquid water in oceans, lakes, rivers, soil, and underground

b)

water vapor found in the stratosphere

c)

frozen water in snow, ice, and glaciers

d)

the solid Earth, including its soil, rocks, and mantle

88.

Which is the most important factor in determining climate at a given location?

a)

mountains

b)

latitude

c)

altitude

d)

continents

89.


Which type of air mass would most likely be moist and warm?

a)

continental tropical

b)

continental polar

c)

maritime polar

d)

maritime tropical

90.


The water cycle involves interactions between __.

a)

the hydrosphere, the atmosphere, the lithosphere, the cryosphere, and the biosphere

b)

the hydrosphere, the atmosphere, and the lithosphere

c)

the hydrosphere and the atmosphere

d)

rivers and oceans

91.

Where is condensation occurring?

92.

Tag precipitation. [2 points]

93.

Select the area where the Sun's rays are MOST direct.

94.

Select the TWO regions you expect to have the COLDEST temperatures. [2 points]

95.

Select the city that would be considered to have a Maritime climate.

96.

Pavement and buildings heat ____ rapidly than land.

a)

more

b)

less

97.

The effect pavement and buildings have on the temperature is called the ___________ effect.

a)

sea breeze

b)

El Nino

c)

La Nina

d)

heat island

98.

Which is the short term change in Atmospheric conditions?

a)

Climate

b)

Weather

99.
Why is the increase of Greenhouse gasses a big issue?
a)
It causes climate change and increase in the global temerature 
b)
It can lead to a major increase in Greenhouses 
c)
It leads to more factories
d)
It causes a major decrease in people
100.
 What is the greenhouse effect?
a)
The warming of a planet due to trapped radiation.
b)
The cooling of Earth due to air pollution.
c)
The heating of a solid, such as a rock.
101.

Which one of the choices below is NOT a cause of global warming?

a)

Having too many farm animals

b)

Burning Fossil Fuels

c)

Planting new trees

102.

What do humans do that releases greenhouse gases into the atmosphere?

a)

Burn fossil fuels (like gas and coal)

b)

Ride bikes and use solar energy

c)

Compete in the Olympics

103.
What is climate?
a)
A long period of time. 
b)
Atmospheric conditions of a place at a particular point in time. 
c)
Average atmospheric conditions of a place over a long period of time, usually 30 years. 
d)
Current weather outlook of a place. 
104.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
105.
Which of the following natural events would be most likely to contribute to the cooling of Earth's atmosphere?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Hurricane
c)
Volcanism
d)
Monsoon
106.
The greenhouse effect is beneficial as it helps to sustain life on earth by naturally trapping heat in the atmosphere. 
a)
False
b)
True
107.
Because Earth's axis is _________________, the hemispheres receive different amounts of solar energy at different times.
a)
straight
b)
titled
c)
bent
d)
not there
108.
Gases such as water vapor and carbon dioxide that trap heat near Earth are known as 
a)
global gases.
b)
greenhouse gases.
c)
proxy gases.
d)
offset gases.
109.

How do volcanic eruptions affect weather?

a)

Eruptions form clouds that drop large amounts of precipitation.

b)

Gases and particles may block sunlight and lower temperatures.

c)

Vibrations caused by eruptions shift ocean currents, which in turn affect weather.

110.
The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is decreasing. 
a)
True
b)
False
111.
The ____________________ is a natural process in which certain gases in the atmosphere trap heat near Earth and prevent it from radiating back into space.
a)
Greenhouse Zone
b)
Greenhouse Effect
c)
Tropic Layer
d)
Heat Zone
112.
Which of the following gases DOES NOT trap heat?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
nitrogen
c)
water vapor
d)
methane
113.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
114.

Which of the following is NOT a natural cause of climate change?

a)

Sunspot Cycles

b)

Milankovitch Cycles

c)

Deforestation

d)

Volcanic Eruptions / Asteriod Impacts

115.

A greater number of sunspots leads to increased temperatures on Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Which of the following is a human cause of climate change?

a)

Deforestation

b)

Carbon capture

c)

Melting glaciers

d)

Tornadoes

117.

What does burning fossil fuels do to the greenhouse effect?

a)

Decreases it

b)

Does nothing

c)

Expands it

d)

Enhances it

118.

Compare and Contrast Earth, Venus and Mars

Categorize the following

supports life

moderate surface temperature

Atmosphere has CO2

about 38,000 - 40,000 km Circumference

Dense atmosphere

highest surface temperature

Very high levels of CO2

Has oceans to absorb CO2

Almost no Atmosphere

Smaller, so less gravity

No Magnetic Field

Earth
BOTH (Earth + Venus)
Venus
Mars
119.

​ (a)   is the attractive force between two objects that depends on the masses of the objects and the distance between them.

This force was able to shape Earth because early Earth was ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words

Gravity

molten

Inerta

Motion

full of water

solid

120.

What is the name of the phenomena that occurs when electrically charged particles collide with atoms in the atmosphere and emit light?

a)

Magnetic Field

b)

Aurora

c)

Solar wind

d)

Harmful Radiation

121.

What causes the high surface temperature on Venus?

a)

Large amounts of carbon dioxide in Venus's atmosphere traps heat.

b)

The absence of rain forests on Venus causes the high surface temperatures.

c)

The clouds in Venus's atmosphere cause high surface temperatures.

d)

Venus is the closest planet to the Sun, which causes it to have high surface temperatures.

122.

The shape of Earth's Orbit.

(a)  

123.

During which month of the year is Earth farthest from the Sun? (a)  

Choose from the below words

July

January

March

August

December

124.

Organize these options as evidence that Earth is a Sphere

Categorize the following

Objects fall straight down

Earth's Shadow is round during an Eclipse

Earthquake wave differences

Fossils on differnt mountains

Bubble in Arctic Ice

Evidence
Not Evidence
125.

What causes the apparent daily motion of the Sun?

a)

Earth's rotation

b)

gravitational pull

c)

the Sun's rotation

d)

the Moon's rotation

126.

When it is winter in northern hemisphere, it is​ (a)   in the southern hemisphere.


Choose from the below words

summer

winter

fall

spring

127.

In the Northern Hemisphere, Earth’s rotational axis points directly toward the Sun during the​ (a)   . The Earth has equal length of day and night during the ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words

summer solstice

equinox

winter solstice

Aurora Borealis

128.

When does an equinox occur?

a)

when the Sun reaches the greatest distance south of Earth's equator

b)

when the Sun reaches the greatest distance north of Earth's equator

c)

when the Sun is directly above Earth's equator and the number of daylight hours equals the number of nighttime hours

d)

when there are more daylight hours than there are nighttime hours

129.

On average, how many degrees of longitude are contained in one time zone?


JUST THE NUMBER

130.

If it is 1:00 PM (afternoon) in North Carolina [NC], in what region would it be 11:00 am?

131.

If it is 3:00 PM (afternoon) in California [CA], in what region would it be 6:00 pm?

132.

Tag the spot that best represents summer in the Northern Hemisphere.

133.

Distinguish the factors that cause Earth's seasons.

Categorize the following
Causes Seasons
Does NOT cause Seasons
134.

Match the following description to the correct image.

a)

1.

Earth's Tilt

b)

2.

Earth's Rotation/ 1 Day

c)

3.

Earth's Revolution/ 1 Year

d)

4.

Summer in the Northern Hemisphere

e)

5.

Winter in the Northern Hemisphere

135.

What is the year called according to the Sun?

a)

Sidereal Year

b)

Solar Year

c)

New Year

d)

The Zodiac

136.

What is the year called according to the Zodiac (stars behind the sun)?

a)

Sidereal Year

b)

Solar Year

c)

New Year

d)

Leap Year

137.

We use a base 10 system, the ancient Babylonians used what number as a base to their system?

NUMBER ONLY

138.

If Earth is (1 AU = 150,000,000 km) and Venus is 0.71 AU from the Sun, what is the distance from EARTH to VENUS in kilometers?

139.

What is an extrasolar planet?

a)

It is a piece of an asteroid belt.

b)

It is a comet captured in the gravitational pull of a star.

c)

It is a planet orbiting a star other than the Sun.

d)

It is a star orbiting another planet.

140.

Organize these people with their contribution to Astronomy

Categorize the following

Ptolemy

Copernicus

Galileo

Kepler

Geocentric Model
Heliocentric model
Evidence for Heliocentric
Laws of Planetary motion
141.

Kepler's ​ (a)   Law states that because the Sun has such tremendous gravitational pull, Planets and Comets ​ (b)   when they get closer and ​ (c)   as they get further. Kepler's ​ (d)   law mathematically relates a planet's ​ (e)   and its orbital period.

Choose from the below words
Second
Speed up
Slow down
Third
distance
First
142.

If a planet is 15.0 AU away from the Sun, what is its period in years?

(T2 = R3 )

[round to the nearest tenth]

143.

The solar system formed out of a ​ (a)   of gas and dust. That nebula, started forming about ​ (b)   billion years ago. As the nebula contracted, it's speed ​ (c)   . ​ (d)   started to occur, and that is the beginning of our star: the Sun.

Choose from the below words
nebula
4.6
increased
Nuclear Fusion
disk
150
144.

Where is the sun in this heliocentric model?

145.

Where is the Earth in this heliocentric model?

146.

Where is the Earth in this geocentric model?

147.

Where is the Sun in this geocentric model?

148.

A ​ (a)   is the distance ​ (b)   travels in one ​ (c)   . This is the standard ​unit of measurement scientists use for measuring distances between ​ (d)   and galaxies.

Choose from the below words

light-year

light

year

stars

Astronomical Unit

149.

Organize the Telescopes by type or description.

Categorize the following

Uses lenses to collect and focus light.

Uses mirrors to collect and focus light.

Reflecting
Refracting
150.

Which of the following statements best explain the benefits of using radio telescopes?

Select all that apply.

a)

Radio telescopes don't have to be launched into space.

b)

Radio waves can be detected 24 hours per day.

c)

Radio telescopes are less expensive than optical telescopes.

d)

Radio waves can be detected when its cloudy.

151.

Which of the following statements best explain the benefits of using space telescopes?

Select all that apply.

a)

Space telescopes don't have to be launched into space.

b)

Space telescopes are not affected by weather.

c)

Space telescopes can obtain the clearest, most detailed images of space.

d)

Space telescopes have discovered alien life.

152.

Which magnifies the image in a telescope?

a)

focal length

b)

eyepiece

c)

objective

d)

focus

153.

Use the equation Mp = fo/fe to determine the magnifying power of a telescope in which the focal lengths of the objective lens and the eyepiece lens are 1500 mm and 9 mm, respectively.

[Number only, no units]

154.

Tap the [2 spots] above the spectra lines that PROVE the Sun has Helium.

155.

The dark lines that show astronomers what elements are present in Stars are called ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Star-Spectra

Light-Year

Astronomical Unit

Electromagnetic Spectrum

156.

What are groups of stars as seen from Earth called?

{Often names come from ancient cultures or stories}

a)

Constellations

b)

Zodiac

c)

Light-Years

d)

Galaxies

157.

True or False?

Radio telescopes observe visible light.

a)

True - Radio telescopes detect light.

b)

False - Radio telescopes detect Star Spectra.

c)

False - Radio telescopes detect radio waves.

d)

False - Radio telescopes detect gamma rays.

158.

Approximately how fast does light travel in space?

a)

3 km/s

b)

3,000 km/s

c)

300 km/s

d)

300,000 km/s

159.

Select where the Sun is currently on the H-R Diagram.

160.

Select the coldest, dimmest stars on the H-R Diagram.

161.

Select the hottest, brightest stars on the H-R Diagram.

162.

Which type of star is formed from a supernova?

a)

giant

b)

supergiant

c)

neutron star

d)

white dwarf

163.

What do scientists call the dark, cool areas on the Sun, caused by weakness in the Sun's magnetic field?

a)

Prominences

b)

Sunspots

c)

Solar Flares

d)

Coronal Mass Ejections

164.

What Solar event causes the Ionized gasses in Earth's atmosphere to glow?

a)

Prominences

b)

Sunspots

c)

Solar Flares

d)

Coronal Mass Ejections

165.

Reorder the following stages of a Star's life Cycle.

(Youngest on the LEFT/1, oldest on the RIGHT/5. Like reading a book)

a)

Nebula

b)

Protostar

c)

Nuclear Fusion

d)

Blue Giant

e)

Supernova

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
166.

Select the layer of the sun where MATERIALS CYCLE around, due to heating/rising and cooling/sinking.

167.

Select the layer of the sun where thermal radiation is moving away from the core.

168.

A star forms from cloud of gas and dust called a ​ (a)   . Gravity pulls the material together forming a hot, dense region called a ​ (b)   . Once ​ (c)   occurs, a ​ (d)   is born. If the star is big enough, it will eventually end its life with a ​ (e)   creating new elements in the process.

Choose from the below words

nebula

protostar

nuclear fusion

star

supernova

sunspots

gravity

169.

Nuclear Fusion can occur when a protostar achieves an internal temperature of at least (a)   Kelvin. A nebula becomes a protostar at ​ (b)   Kelvin.

Choose from the below words

10 Million

1 Million

100 Million

100 Thousand

13.8 Billion

170-171.

A team of astronomers discover a new main sequence star. After obtaining all the data they can, the astronomers calculate the star has approximately the same mass as the Sun. One of the astronomers claims that the star will fuse nuclei into progressively heavier nuclei, until an iron core is built up. Then it will explode in a supernova and finally collapse into a black hole.

170.

Explain why the claim is incorrect.

a)

The sun is not a main sequence star.

b)

The sun has no mass.

c)

Stars do not fuse nuclei of atoms.

d)

The sun will not explode and leave behind a black hole.

171.

What is the the life cycle of a star with the same mass as the Sun?

a)

Main Sequence -> Giant -> White Dwarf

b)

Main Sequence -> White Dwarf -> Super Giant

c)

Giant-> Super Giant -> Black Hole

d)

Supernova -> Black Hole -> Neutron Star

172.

An astronomer examining a distant galaxy detects the atomic spectrum for gold.

Which of the following are they most likely studying?

a)

Black Hole

b)

Supergiant

c)

Supernova

d)

Planetary Nebula

173.

Tag where Sagittarius A-star is located.

174-176.

In this performance task, you apply what you have learned about the life cycle of a star to answer four questions.

A student is developing a model to show different phases of a star’s life span. The model will show how a star begins as a massive cloud of gas and dust. Gravity pulls the cloud together into a dense, hot core, where hydrogen fusion begins. The fusion of hydrogen into helium releases huge amounts of energy, providing the pressure that allows the star to keep its shape. When the hydrogen fuel is exhausted, the core of the star collapses and the external layers expand, changing the star into a red giant.

A medium-mass star will extend its life by fusing helium nuclei. Eventually, however, the core will cool and shrink, becoming a white dwarf.

A more massive star will undergo additional stages that allow fusion reactions to form a series of elements, ending in iron. When the iron core reaches a critical mass, the star explodes in an event called a supernova. In many cases, the remnants of a supernova become an extremely dense structure called a neutron star.

However, if the star was massive enough, the remnants will collapse into a black hole.

Scientists use letters to classify stars by mass. The Sun is a G-type main-sequence star. From smallest to largest in mass, the classes of main-sequence stars are M, K, G, F, A, B, and O.

174.

What will the Sun become when it reaches the end of its life span?

a)

red giant

b)

black hole

c)

white dwarf

d)

neutron star

175.

Nuclear reactions within the core of a stable star provide pressure that prevents it from collapsing under its own weight.

Which statement correctly describes the interaction of forces on a stable star?

a)

Pressure pushing outward from the star is in balance with gravity pushing inward.

b)

Pressure pushing inward toward the star is in balance with gravity pushing outward

c)

The level of pressure from within the star is less than the force of gravity pressing on the star.

d)

The level of pressure from within the star is greater than the force of gravity pressing on the star.

176.

How does the life cycle of a very massive star differ from the life cycle of the Sun?

a)

A very massive star will never run out of Hydrogen because it is regenerative.

b)

A very massive star will will burn through its hydrogen faster and can end up as a black hole.

c)

A very massive star will become a white dwarf, then a red giant.

d)

A very massive star is the same as the sun, the sun is the largest thing in the solar system.

177-178.

An emission spectrum of a star is rarely smooth. Instead the spectrum has peaks and dips that reveal which elements make up the star. Stars that contain only hydrogen and helium formed early in the universe. These stars created heavier elements through nuclear fusion. Stars that are made up of hydrogen, helium, and other elements were formed later.

177.

Do you think the star was formed early in the universe??

a)

The star was probably formed later in the lifespan of the universe because all elements were present in the early universe.

b)

The star was probably formed later in the lifespan of the universe because it contains heavier elements such as oxygen and sulfur.

c)

The star was probably formed early in the life of the universe because it is made up of hydrogen and helium.

d)

The star was probably formed early in the lifespan of the universe because it is made up of all the elements.

178.

What conclusion can be drawn about the elements that were present at the beginning of the universe?

a)

The only elements that were in the early universe were stars and galaxies because they are the only elements that make up stars that were formed early in the universe.

b)

The only elements that were in the early universe were Carbon and Neon because they are the only elements that make up stars that were formed early in the universe.

c)

The only elements that were in the early universe were Oxygen and Iron because they are the only elements that make up stars that were formed early in the universe.

d)

The only elements that were in the early universe were Hydrogen and Helium because they are the only elements that make up stars that were formed early in the universe.

179.

What type of galaxy is the Milky Way?

a)

Irregular

b)

Spiral

c)

Elliptical

d)

Candy bar