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UA Star Part 1.1

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An unrepaired leak will cause which of the following conditions?

a)

high head pressure

b)

high subcooling

c)

high superheat

d)

low superheat

2.

If mechanical refrigeration and a cooling coil are used dehumidification, the system may require which of the following?

a)

High limit control

b)

recooling

c)

reheat

d)

zero voltage switching

3.

Which is the response when dirty filters in an air conditioning system reduce the quantity of air flowing over the DX coil?

a)

the compressor will compensate for the change

b)

the condenser will compensate for the change

c)

the system capacity will decrease

d)

the system capacity will increase

4.

In an air-cooled system with capacity control, compressor unloading will cause which of the following to happen?

a)

discharge pressure will rise, and energy consumption will decrease

b)

suction pressure in discharge pressure will fall

c)

suction pressure will fall, and energy consumption will decrease

d)

suction pressure will rise, and discharge pressure will fall

5.

Which is the only acceptable refrigerant to be used as a trace gas when checking for leaks?

a)

R11

b)

R12

c)

R22

d)

R500

6.

After January 2019, what is the acceptable annual leak rate of a comfort cooling system if this circuit contains more than 50lbs of refrigerant?

a)
10%
b)

25%

c)

35%

d)

40%

7.

For what purpose is a cold trap installed in a series with a vacuum pump?

a)

cool the vacuum pump oil

b)

permit a pressure below 100 microns to be developed

c)

reduce the rate at which water vapor is drawn into the vacuum pump's oil

d)

reduce the systems deep vacuum requirement

8.

When recovering “bad” R-12 and R-22, how or where should it be stored?

a)

a used disposable cylinder

b)

an ARI 700 cylinder

c)

an ISO guideline cylinder

d)

an ARI 720 cylinder

9.

What is cleaning refrigerants to ARI 700 standards called?

a)

reclaiming

b)

recovering

c)

recycling

d)

reuse

10.

How often should the oil in a vacuum pump be changed?

a)

after 100 hours or when oil starts to bubble

b)

after the vacuum pump can no longer achieve desired vacuum level

c)

annually

d)

the oil should only be changed when it is no longer clear

11.

Which of the following DOT designations would be acceptable to use on a recovery cylinder when recovering R410a?

a)

4BA200

b)

4BA300

c)

4BW275

d)

4BW400

12.

What is the best way to drive refrigerant from a cylinder into a unit being charged?

a)

heat the cylinder with a flame

b)

immerse the cylinder in warm water

c)

set the cylinder on the top of a hot plate

d)

warm the cylinder in an oven

13.

Incorrect rotation of a scroll compressor will cause which of these events?

a)

broken valves

b)

excessive discharge pressure

c)

liquid slugging

d)

tripping of the compressor's internal protector

14.

A hermetic compressor internal overload senses which of the following?

a)

an overcharge of refrigerant

b)

compressor motor temperature

c)

excessively high pressure

d)

low side refrigerant temperature

15.

What is the purpose of pulling a system into a proper vacuum?

a)

make it easier for refrigerant to be charged in the system

b)

make it easier for refrigerant to flow in the system

c)

remove air and non condensable in the system

d)

remove particulate contaminants

16.

Which of these is true of three phase alternating current?

a)

the currents are 60 cycles apart

b)

the currents are out of phase by 120 electrical degrees

c)

the currents cancel each other out

d)

the currents have no fixed relationship to one another

17.

What happens to the current when the voltage goes up?

a)

decreases

b)

goes to zero

c)

increases

d)

remains the same

18.

Worn sleeve bearings can be quickly checked by which of these methods?

a)

check the centrifugal switch points

b)

check the squirrel-cage rotor

c)

check the stator

d)

try to move the shaft at right angles to the bearings

19.

What does a pillow block allow a bearing to do?

a)

be self aligning

b)

resist high temperature

c)

handle light loads

d)

set direction of fans

20.

The word ________ is used to describe the amount of wobble on a rotating shaft as read by an indicator.

a)

alignment

b)

backlash

c)

runout

d)

none of the above

21.

Which is the correct tool for removing bearings without damaging the shaft?

a)

ball ping hammer

b)

bearing puller

c)

pipe wrench

d)

sledgehammer

22.

Which is the final step in installing a pillow block bearing?

a)

align bearings

b)

align shaft

c)

tighten bearings to the frame

d)

tighten bearings to the shaft

23.

Which of these are the most important parts of a mechanical seal?

a)

drive collars

b)

elastomers

c)

mating seal faces

d)

springs

24.

While lubricating large electric motors, the relief plug should be?

a)

left out to allow for moisture drainage

b)

removed

c)

replaced with a greased fitting

d)

tightened

25.

Which of the following is not a cause of premature V-belt failure?

a)

improper alignment

b)

improper belt tension

c)

rotation of motor

d)

slipping

26.

What should you do to increase airflow on a variable pitch pulley installed on the drive side?

a)

decrease diameter

b)

increase diameter

c)

loosen belt tension

d)

use a larger belt to increase distance between two shafts

27.

After replacing belts and sheaves, which of the following does not need to be checked as a part of start up?

a)

alignment

b)

current draw

c)

tightening of belt

d)

torque of pillow block bearings

28.

For maximum life expectancy of bearings, the pulley should be installed where?

a)

anywhere on the shaft

b)

as close to the bearing as possible

c)

farthest from bearing

d)

in the middle of the shaft

29.

Which of the following is NOT an efficient method for aligning a single belt drive?

a)

Laser alignment

b)

Straight edge

c)

string alignment

d)

visual alignment

30.

When checking for shaft alignment on a motor or a pump, which part of the dial indicator is placed against the shaft?

a)

Bezel

b)

contact point

c)

dial face

d)

swivel

31.

What is the first step of shaft alignment of an open drive compressor?

a)

angular

b)

parallel

c)

radial

d)

perpendicular

32.

Dial indicator measurements are in ________ inch increments.

a)

.001

b)

.101

c)

¼

d)

½

33.

What is an acceptable shaft runout on a 5-horsepower electric motor?

a)

.001"

b)

.025"

c)

.375"

d)

.5"

34.

Which of the following types of coupling require the most critical alignment?

a)

flexible

b)

rigid

c)

Roller chain

d)

Shaft

35.

Which of the following types of couplings requires a minimum alignment?

a)

Flexible

b)

Rigid

c)

Roller Chain

d)

Shaft

36.

Which step should be taken before replacing or installing couplings with electric motors?

a)

Drain the pump casing

b)

Grease the motor bearings

c)

Lockout and tag out the motor

d)

Lubricate the hold-down bolts

37.

Which is the device used in electrical circuits to prevent damage from current overloads?

a)

Fuse

b)

Overload detector

c)

Switch

d)

Thermistor

38.

What is the maximum safe amperage draw of the secondary winding of a 40 v-a transformer output of 25 volts?

a)

7 amps

b)

1.2 amps

c)

1.6 amps

d)

2.8 amps

39.

Which is the acceptable voltage drop across an energized contactor?

a)

0 volts

b)

5 volts

c)

10 volts

d)

15 volts

40.

How would one reverse rotation of a 3-phase motor?

a)

Reverse any 2 power leads

b)

Reverse leads on start capacitor

c)

Reverse terminals number 3 and number 8

d)

Rotate brushes

41.

Which of the following devices changes energy from one form to another?

a)

Transducer

b)

Transformer

c)

Transistor

d)

Vacuum tube

42.

A PSC motor has more starting torque than which of the following?

a)

CSR

b)

CSIR

c)

Shaded pole motor

d)

3 phase motor

43.

A 3 phase motor to be used with a part-winding starter must have ______ windings?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

44.

Which is applicable when replacing defective circuit boards?

a)

Replace with a compatible board with all jumpers and switches in proper position

b)

Replace with a similar board

c)

Switch with any other board available

d)

Take one out of a machine next to it

45.

When troubleshooting a control board you find there is no control power. Which of these is most likely the cause?

a)

Bad relay

b)

Bad resistor

c)

Blown control fuse

d)

Dirty filter

46.

When trouble shooting 480v 3-phase starters at approximately what voltage should you find phase to phase?

a)

240v

b)

277v

c)

480v

d)

1/3 of total voltage

47.

What is the meaning of closed transition starting?

a)

The machine is started with inlet vanes closed

b)

The motor is never disconnected from the line during starting

c)

The motor is only temporarily disconnected during startup

d)

The starter has timed-closed circuits

48.

As compared to across the line starters, reduced voltage starters reduce _______?

a)

Accelerating time

b)

Inertial loads

c)

Starting current inrush

d)

Starting torque required

49.

Why is a surge suppressor used on a contactor coil?

a)

For a faster and smoother start

b)

To prevent damage to the control circuit

c)

To prevent damage when contacts close

d)

To smooth out circuit wave forms

50.

Contactors contain which two sets of contacts?

a)

DC and AC

b)

High voltage and low voltage

c)

Pilot and line voltage

d)

Stationary and moveable

51.

Why should terminal screw be retightened on a contactor?

a)

It increases voltage and gives lower current flow

b)

It prevents voltage drop and high current overheating wire

c)

Tightening screws has no effect on current

d)

start capacitor open

52.

While troubleshooting an HVAC system, if the voltage across a potential relay's contacts remains at 0 volts even when the compressor cycles on its internal overload, what could be a possible reason?

a)

Closed (welded) contacts in the potential relay

b)

Expansion valve stuck closed

c)

Open contacts in the potential relay

d)

Start capacitor open

53.

When the motor of a two-wire spring return actuator is operating the spring, what is the spring doing?

a)

Helps the motor to turn

b)

Is being wound

c)

Is temporarily disconnected

d)

Opens the cam operated switch

54.

When using a magnehelic to set up or calibrate a velocity controller, to which port or ports do you connect?

a)

Both low and high pressure ports

b)

High pressure port

c)

Low pressure port

d)

It does not matter

55.

Which of the following is the most common instrument used to verify flow of a pump?

a)

Auxiliary contacts

b)

Differential pressure switch

c)

Manometer

d)

Paddle switch

56.

Outdoor reset of hot water temperature for heating provides which of the following options?

a)

Hottest water during milder weather

b)

Hottest water during coldest weather

c)

Hottest water only in the morning

d)

Night set back

57.

The symbol shown here is used to indicate which type of switch?

a)

Flow

b)

Pressure actuated

c)

Spring loaded

d)

Temperature actuated

58.

A bourdon tube is used for which type of measurement?

a)

Electrical resistance

b)

Humidity

c)

Pressure

d)

Temperature

59.

Which type of gauge reads pressure both above and below atmospheric pressure?

a)

Compound

b)

Micron

c)

Test pressure

d)

Vacuum

60.

Which of these devices does NOT sense temperature?

a)

Infrared thermometer

b)

photoeye

c)

RTD

d)

Thermocouple

61.

Operation of the flame rectification combustion control system is based on which of these principles?

a)

A. A flame will conduct electrical current

b)

B. Gas flames are harder to see than oil flames

c)

C. Light travels faster than heat

d)

D. Ultraviolet flames are harder to sense

62.

How should safety controls be wired?

a)

A. Across the line

b)

B. In parallel with operating controls

c)

C. In series with operating controls

d)

D. Independently of other controls

63.

The oil pressure safety control operates on which 2 pressures in the refrigeration system?

a)

A. Discharge pressure only

b)

B. Oil pump discharge pressure and discharge pressure

c)

C. Oil pump discharge pressure and suction pressure

d)

D. Suction pressure and discharge pressure

64.

A pneumatic thermostat must be selected for a normally closed chilled water valve. Which type of action will the thermostat have?

a)

A. Delayed response

b)

B. Direct acting

c)

C. Reverse acting

d)

D. Single acting

65.

Which of the following is a digital output?

a)

A. Fan status

b)

B. Humidity sensor

c)

C. Lighting control

d)

D. VFD spd control

66.

Which of the following is NOT a digital input?

a)

A. Condensate float switch

b)

B. Fan status

c)

C. Space temperature

d)

D. VFD fault alarm

67.

Which of these control modes does NOT provide modulating control?

a)

A. Derivative

b)

B. Integral

c)

C. Proportional

d)

D. 2 position

68.

Why should low water cut off controls on a steam boiler be blown down routinely?

a)

A. Brings clean water into the steam boiler

b)

B. Makes room for boiler water chemical

c)

C. Prevents sediment build up that would limit proper operation

d)

D. None of the above

69.

Suction gas temperature minus saturated suction temperature is equal to?

a)

condensing temperature

b)

evaporator operating temperature

c)

superheat

d)

subcooling

70.

The boiling point of refrigerant in the condenser is the same as which of these?

a)

compressor suction pressure

b)

condensing temperature

c)

discharge pressure

d)

evaporator temperature

71.

Which is the correct term for a coil using a TXV capillary tube or restrictor?

a)

adiabatic

b)

balanced

c)

direct expansion coil (DX coil)

d)

transverse

72.

In what form does refrigerant leave the expansion valve?

a)

a mixture of liquid and saturated vapor

b)

a mixture of liquid and superheated vapor

c)

a subcooled liquid

d)

a superheated vapor

73.

The purpose of taking a pressure drop reading across a suction line filter dryer is to determine the _____?

a)

contaminated loading of the filter dryer

b)

proper size and change

c)

superheat readings

d)

None of the above

74.

What results when you reduce water flow to a water-cooled condenser?

a)

a decrease in condenser pressure

b)

an increase in the temperature difference between entering and leaving water

c)

an increase in condenser capacity

d)

a decrease in the temperature difference between entering and leaving water

75.

Which of these should be used when chemically cleaning a water-cooled condenser?

a)

a hydrochloric acid solution

b)

an inhibited acid

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

uninhibited acid

76.

An evaporative cooling tower's bleed rate is adjusted to maintain which of the following?

a)

A water seal in the drain line trap

b)

Return water temperature

c)

The desired concentration of total dissolved solids

d)

The desired leaving water temperature

77.

Which is NOT an acceptable way for capacity control on a cooling tower?

a)

Basin heater

b)

3 way valves

c)

2 speed fan

d)

VFDs

78.

A customer would like all of their HCFC R-22 equipment retrofitted to HFC refrigerants. Which of the following refrigerants would be an acceptable replacement?

a)

MP-39

b)

R-12

c)

R-134A

d)

R-407C

79.

Which of the following oils is the most hygroscopic?

a)

Alkyl-benzene

b)

Mineral oil

c)

Petroleum base oils

d)

Polyester oil

80.

Which is a proper way to check the rotation on a screw compressor?

a)

Calculate amp draw

b)

Perform a bump check

c)

Use a phase rotation meter

d)

It is not necessary to check rotation on a screw compressor

81.

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way for capacity control of a centrifugal compressor?

a)

Modulating diffuser vane

b)

Liquid line solenoid valve

c)

Modulating inlet guide vanes

d)

VFD

82.

Which device is used to protect a large condenser against excessive compressor discharge pressure?

a)

Fusible plug

b)

Magnetic check valve

c)

Ruptured disk

d)

Spring loaded pressure relief valve

83.

When calculating superheat for an HFC refrigerant with a large temperature glide using a pressure/temperature chart, which column on the chart is used?

a)

Bubble point

b)

Dew point

c)

Saturation point

d)

Wet bulb temperature

84.

What is a disadvantage of a variable refrigerant flow (VRF) system?

a)

Does not allow for future expansion

b)

Flexible capacity control

c)

Increased capacity

d)

Increased installation cost

85.

Which of the following is true of natural gas?

a)

It has a natural odor of its own

b)

It has a sweet, pleasant odor

c)

It has an odor added to it to make it detectable

d)

It has no chance of leaking into a boiler room

86.

When is the pilot light on in an intermittent pilot system?

a)

During post-purge

b)

During pre-purge

c)

Only during the pilot trial for ignition

d)

Throughout the main flame cycle

87.

Most appliance gas valves require inlet natural gas pressure NOT to exceed which measurement?

a)

1 psi

b)

3.5" wc

c)

14" wc

d)

28" wc

88.

What is the name for the safety control that shuts down a furnace or other gas heating devices when the plenum temperature exceeds the design of the system?

a)

Fan switch

b)

High limit switch

c)

Thermocouple

d)

Thermostat

89.

1 watt = 3.413 btu/hr. A 30 kw electric heater will produce how many btu's per hour in this space?

a)
102,390 btu/h
b)

102.3 btu/h

c)

2838 btu/h

d)

30,000

90.

While working on a make-up air unit, what may have caused the unit to shut down if the customer notifies you that their direct-fired process equipment has just shut down?

a)

A. A timer has shut off the equipment

b)

B. The low ambient temperature has shut off the unit

c)

C. The thermostat is not satisfied

d)

D. There is an open interlock between the MAU and the process equipment

91.

Which of the following is a cause leading to premature heat exchanger failures on gas-fired units?

a)

A. Clogged air filters and loose fan belts

b)

B. High air flow from supply fan

c)

C. High outside air temperature

d)

D. Low btu content of natural gas

92.

In a high-pressure steam boiler, which of the following is controlled by surface blowdown?

a)

A. Sediments

b)

B. Flue stack temperatures

c)

C. Total dissolved solids

d)

D. Remove scale

93.

Low pressure steam boilers are classified as those having operating pressures below how many psi?

a)

A. 15 psi

b)

B. 30 psi

c)

C. 50 psi

d)

D. 100 psi

94.

You should use which of these devices to protect large condeners agasit excessive compressor discharge

a)

Either a fusible plug or ruptured disk

b)

Fusible plug

c)

magnetic check valve

d)

Spring loaded pressure relief valve

95.

A constant __________ is maintained by the txv

a)

Coil pressure

b)

Coil Temperature

c)

Expansion rate

d)

Super heat

96.

Which is the fast way to recover refrigerant?

a)

Liquid only recovery

b)

Vacuum pump only recovery

c)

Push and pull method

d)

Vapor only recovery